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RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA preparation. The RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 below.
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RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Freud championed ______ psychology.

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

Freud championed psychodynamic psychology.

Psychodynamic psychology is the psychology of mental or emotional forces or processes developing especially in early childhood and their effects on behavior and mental states. In psychology, a psychodynamic theory is a view that explains personality in terms of conscious and unconscious forces, such as unconscious desires and beliefs.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Surgical instruments are generally sterilized in which of the following ways?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Surgical instruments are generally sterilized using autoclave.

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RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from an excessive accumulation of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from an excessive accumulation of Ketone bodies from fat metabolism.

The ketone bodies beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate are produced in the body as a byproduct of fat metabolism. Essentially ketone bodies are formed in the body when there is an excess of fatty acids available.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

The main function of prostate is:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

The main function of prostate is secretion of alkaline muscus.

The main function of the prostate gland is to secrete an alkaline fluid that comprises approximately 70% of the seminal volume. The alkaline fluid in the ejaculate results in liquefaction of the seminal plug and helps to neutralize the acidic vaginal environment.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

The cognitive changes during old age mostly effect which of the following aspects:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

The cognitive changes during old age mostly effect memory. The basic cognitive functions most affected by age are attention and memory. Neither of these are unitary functions, however, and evidence suggests that some aspects of attention and memory hold up well with age while others show significant declines.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

In which of the following biochemical types of microorganisms a slime layer or capsule is formed on the cells?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

In Ropy or stringy fermentation, organisms synthesize a viscous polysaccharide material that forms a slime layer or capsule on the cells. They include Alcaligenes viscolactis, Enterobacter aerogenes, etc.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

____________ is considered as the bluntly rounded portion of the heart.

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Apex is considered as the bluntly rounded portion of the heart.

The apex (the most inferior, anterior, and lateral part as the heart lies in situ) is located on the midclavicular line, in the fifth intercostal space. It is formed by the left ventricle. The general structure of the heart is quite uniform in healthy individuals. However, some variations do occur.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated gloves is to:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated gloves is to gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them.

Turning the gloves inside out while removing them keeps all contaminants inside the gloves. They should then be placed in a plastic bag with soiled dressings and discarded in a soiled utility room garbage pail (double bagged). The other choices can spread pathogens within the environment.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Lorraine who is on chemotherapy has a history of cardiac disease. The patient is at risk for cardiac complications because:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

If hemoglobin and red cell counts drop from myelosuppression, the oxygen-carrying capacity will fall, leaving the person at risk for angina. Some chemotherapy agents cause the heart muscle to weaken soon after chemotherapy begins. Novel angiogenesis inhibitors that suppress new blood vessel formation cause blood pressure to rise dramatically and may increase the risk of blood clots and heart failure.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Nurse Walter should expect a 3-year-old child to be able to perform which action?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Nurse Walter should expect a 3-year-old child to be able to ride a tricycle.

At age 3, gross motor development and refinement in eye-hand coordination enable a child to ride a tricycle. Most 3-year-olds are able to walk a line, balance on a low balance beam, skip or gallop, and walk backward. They can usually pedal a tricycle, catch a large ball, and jump with two feet.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

A patient with the diagnosis of diverticulosis is advised to eat a diet high in fiber. What should the nurse recommend that the patient eat to best increase the bulk and fecal material?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Kale is an excellent source of dietary fiber. A serving of  ounces of kale contains 6.6 g of dietary fiber. Fiber is a very important component of our diet and comes from plant-based food sources (fruits, vegetables, legumes and whole grains). Different food sources contain different types of fiber and resistant starches and the side effects depend on the individual’s microbiome (gut bacteria). Instead of avoiding fiber altogether, you may want to identify the certain types of food that cause the distress.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

A nurse is giving dietary instructions to a patient receiving levodopa. Which of the following food items should be avoided by the patient?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Whole grain cereal should be avoided by the patient.

When administering levodopa, the patient should avoid excessive intake of foods rich in pyridoxine (vitamin B6) which has been found to reduce the effects of levodopa. Large amounts of pyridoxine are also contained in some foods such as bananas, egg yolks, lima beans, meats, peanuts, and whole-grain cereals.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

When creating a teaching program for the parents of Jessica who is diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS), Nurse Alex would keep in mind that this disorder involves which of the following?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

When creating a teaching program for the parents of Jessica who is diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS), Nurse Alex would keep in mind that this disorder involves the Obstruction of blood flow from the right ventricle.

Pulmonic stenosis is a defect of the pulmonic valve in which the valve is stiffened, causing an obstruction to flow. This disease is typically congenital, benign, and diagnosed in pediatric patients with potentially curative treatments.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The epidermis is the outermost of the three layers that make up the skin, the inner layers being the dermis and hypodermis.

The layers of the epidermis include:

  1. Stratum basale (the deepest portion of the epidermis, the only one that experience mitosis)
  2. Stratum spinosum (each time basal cell divides, a daughter cell is pushed into this layer)
  3. Stratum granulosum (the third layer of the epidermis consists of granular cells)
  4. Stratum lucidum (here, the keratinocytes are densely packed)
  5. Stratum corneum (the most superficial portion of the epidermis, consists numerous of flattened, dead cells).

The dermis is split into two parts—the papillary dermis, which is the thin, upper layer, and the reticular dermis, which is the thick, lower layer.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Who is known as 'father of genetics'?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

The father of genetics is called " Johan Gregor Mendel".

Johan Gregor Mendel discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance through his work on pea plants. They concluded that genes come in a pair and are each inherited from the parents as separate units. Mendel tracked the segregation of parental genes and their presence in the offspring as dominant or recessive traits.

Mendel's 3 laws are:

  • law of dissociation
  • Law of purity of gametes
  • law of independent matrices
RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The long-term complications seen in thalassemia major are associated with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The long-term complications seen in thalassemia major are associated with Hemochromatosis.

Long-term complications arise from hemochromatosis, excessive iron deposits precipitating in the tissues, and causing destruction. Hemochromatosis is a disorder associated with deposits of excess iron that causes multiple organ dysfunction. Hemochromatosis occurs when there are high pathologic levels of iron accumulation in the body. Hemochromatosis has been called “bronze diabetes” due to the discoloration of the skin and associated disease of the pancreas.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following is most likely to validate that a patient is experiencing intestinal bleeding?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Blood in the upper GI tract is black and tarry. Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is a symptom of a disorder in the digestive tract. The blood often appears in stool or vomit but isn’t always visible, though it may cause the stool to look black or tarry. The level of bleeding can range from mild to severe and can be life-threatening.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Bell's palsy happens in the wounds of:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Bell's palsy happens in the wounds of Seventh Cranial Nerve.

  • Bell's palsy causes temporary paralysis of the facial muscles.
  • Bell's palsy occurs when trauma occurs in the seventh cranial nerve (the nerve that controls the muscles of the face).
  • In Bell's palsy, the face tends to droop to one side or, sometimes, to both sides.
  • This condition occurs when inflammation temporarily puts pressure on the nerve that controls the muscles of the face.
RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

After accumulation of which one of the following liquid muscle became tired?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The Burning of glucose during respiration requires oxygen. When a Muscle is subjected to continuous exercise there will be low availability of oxygen. This leads to the anaerobic breakdown of glucose which results in the formation of lactic acid.

This accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle causes muscle fatigue. thus Muscles get fatigued due to the accumulation of lactic acid.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Oxygen is paramagnetic due to the presence of two unpaired electron.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

What is the mass number of an element whose atom has two protons, two neutrons and two electrons?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called its mass number.

Hence mass number (a) = number of protons + number of neutrons = 2+2 = 4

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Which of the following metals are most malleable?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Malleability is the ability of a metal to be hammered into thin sheets. Gold and silver are highly malleable. When a piece of iron is hammered it takes the shape of a sheet. This property is not seen in non metals.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Sweat glands are present in which part of the human body?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Sweat glands are exocrine glands and are present in the skin. These glands produce sweat through a duct wart. There are two main types of sweat glands which differ in their structure, function, secretory products, mechanism of excretion, etc. These are - eccrine sweat glands and apocrine sweat glands.

In both types of sweat glands, the secretory coils are surrounded by contractile myoepithelial cells that function to facilitate the excretion of the secretory product.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

A severely immunocompromised female patient requires a blood transfusion. To prevent GVHD, the physician will order:

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

A severely immunocompromised female patient requires a blood transfusion. To prevent GVHD, the physician will order irradiation of the donor blood.

TA-GVHD is almost always fatal, with a less than 10% survival rate. Currently, the approved method for the prevention of TA-GVHD is the irradiation of cellular blood products using either gamma rays or X-rays. Various studies have shown that the effect of irradiation on lymphocytes is dose-dependent: 5 Gy eliminates lymphocyte proliferation, 15 Gy results in an 85% to 90% reduction in mitogen response, and 50 Gy results in a 95% to 98.5% reduction in mitogen response. Although a minimum dose of 15 Gy causes DNA breakage and prevents T-lymphocyte proliferation, in the United States the recommendation for transfusion practice is that the center of a component bag should receive 25 Gy (versus 50 Gy in some countries), and any other area outside the bag center should receive a minimum of 15 Gy (versus 25 Gy in some countries).

In the United States, most irradiation is performed using self-contained component irradiators. These pieces of equipment are typically sources that emit gamma rays or X-rays. For gamma-ray–emitting devices, cesium-137 is usually the preferred radiation source, primarily because of its long half-life (25–30 years). Table 3 compares the pros and cons of gamma-ray and X-ray instruments as irradiation sources. As an alternative to maintaining a self-contained irradiator, smaller blood banks and transfusion services may choose to use their radiation oncology department's irradiation equipment, where cobalt-60 is generally the source for gamma rays. In such circumstances, a dose of 25 Gy has been found to be effective for T-lymphocyte inactivation.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Which among the following organization has been founded by Satish Chandra Basu in Bengal?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Anushilan Samiti was a Bengali Indian organization that existed in the first quarter of the twentieth century, and propounded revolutionary violence as the means for ending British rule in India. It was founded by Satish Chandra Basu. By 1902, Calcutta had three societies working under the umbrella of Anushilan Samity.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Which Formula One racing driver has won the Austrian F1 Grand Prix on July 2022?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Ferrari racer Charles Leclerc won the Austrian Grand Prix on 10 July 2022. This was Leclerc's third win of 2022.

Red Bull's Max Verstappen came second while Mercedes driver Lewis Hamilton finished third.

Leclerc had earlier won the Bahrain GP and the Australian GP in 2022 respectively. Overall, Leclerc has five race wins in his career, besides getting 18 podium finishes.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Tara is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can’t take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best reply?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Tara is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can’t take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. "Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it" would be the nurse’s best reply.

The child has type 1 DM, indicating a lack of functioning pancreatic beta cells and an absolute insulin deficiency. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition that leads to the destruction of pancreatic beta cells which in turn causes insufficient insulin production, resulting in hyperglycemia. Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease requiring insulin replacement and intensive effort by the patient.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Elvera Britto has passed away, was a former captain of which sports team of India?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Former Indian women's hockey team captain, Elvera Britto has passed away at 81 due to old-age-related problems on April 2022. Elvera Britto led Karnataka's domestic team to win seven national titles. She ruled the domestic circuit from 1960 to 1967. She also represented India against Japan, Sri Lanka, and Australia. She is the second women hockey player to be conferred with the Arjuna Award(1965) after Anne Lumsden.

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation based on a certain system:

44 + 23 = 201, 61 + 19 = 240, then 89 + 20 = ?
Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

The first term is:

44 + 23 = 67

67 × 3 = 201

The second term is:

61 + 19 = 80

80 × 3 = 240

Similarly for 89 + 20

89 + 20 = 109

109 × 3 = 327

RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Cough with sputum (200 ml per 24 hours), which is produced mostly in the mornings. Possible condition?

Detailed Solution for RRB Staff Nurse Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Cough with sputum (200 ml per 24 hours), which is produced mostly in the mornings the possible condition is Bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where damage causes the tubes in your lungs (airways) to widen or develop pouches. It makes it hard to clear mucus out of your lungs and can cause frequent infections. Coughing a lot with pus and mucus is the main symptom of bronchiectasis.

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