Assam Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test - 1 - Judiciary Exams MCQ

• Meaning of Quarantine: To separate someone into isolation.
• Meaning of Rescue: save (someone) from a dangerous or difficult situation
• Meaning of Detention: the action of detaining someone or the state of being detained in official custody
• Meaning of Defence: the action of defending from or resisting an attack
• Meaning of Safety: the condition of being protected from or unlikely to cause danger, risk, or injury

The given sentence is of present perfect tense and it is in active form.

The structures for active/passive voices are:

Active: Subject + has/have + verb (IIIrd form) + object...

Passive: Object + has/have + been + verb (IIIrd form) + by + subject...

The active voice statement is in present perfect tense, thus the passive voice statement has to be in present perfect tense itself.

Out of the available options, only option (d) satisfies this criterion and thus, is the correct response.

Desolate: Empty And with out person, making you feel sad/frightened
absolute: Total and complete
Obsolete: Something no longer in use
Primitive: Belonging to an early stage in the development of humans and animals

• The folk dance of women in Punjab is Giddha.
• The main Punjabi folk dance for females is giddha or giddhah and for men or for both men and women is bhangda or bhangra.
• Punjab is a state in Northern India.
• Forming part of the larger Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent, the state is bordered by the Indian union territories of Jammu and Kashmir to the north, Chandigarh to the east, the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh to the north and northeast, Haryana to the south and southeast, and Rajasthan to the southwest.
• It is bordered by Punjab, a province of Pakistan to the west.
• The state covers an area of 50,362 square kilometres (19,445 square miles), 1.53% of India's total geographical area.
• It is the 20th-largest Indian state by area. With over 27 million inhabitants, Punjab is the 16th-largest state by population, comprising 23 districts.
• Punjabi, written in the Gurmukhi script, is the most widely spoken and official language of the state.
• The main ethnic group is the Punjabis, with Sikhs and Hindus as the dominant religious groups.
• The state capital is Chandigarh, a Union Territory and also the capital of the neighbouring state of Haryana.

• Capital- Chandigarh
• CM- Bhagwant Mann

Option 2 is correct.

• Carbon monoxide (CO) is one of the most serious air pollutants, highly poisonous to living beings because of its ability to block the delivery of oxygen to the organs and tissues.
• It binds to haemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin, which is about 300 times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.
• In blood, when the concentration of carboxyhemoglobin reaches about 3–4 per cent, the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is greatly reduced.
• This oxygen deficiency results in headache, weak eyesight, nervousness and cardiovascular disorder.

The Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front has been the ruling party in Zimbabwe since independence in 1980. The party was led for many years under Robert Mugabe, first as Prime Minister with the Zimbabwe African National Union and then as President from 1987 after the merger with the Zimbabwe African People's Union and retaining the name ZANU–PF, until 2017 when he was removed as leader.

In china elections were held regularly after every 5 years for electing chinese national congress, here only the members of chinese communist party could participate so the government is always formed by the chinese communist party but in a democratic government there should be chances for those currently in power to lose also. Therefore it is not a true democracy.

Following the Babri Masjid demolition, retaliatory bomb blasts occurred in Bombay in 1993, which were seen as a response to the demolition and subsequent riots.

• The correct answer is Baba Dyal.

Key Points Baba Dyal Das.

• The social reform movement 'Nirankari' established in 1851 was founded by Baba Dyal Das.
  • 'Nirankari' is a sect of Sikhism.
  • Nirankari movement emerged in the aftermath of the end of the Sikh Empire and the Sikh history after Ranjit Singh's death.
  • Baba Dyal is a Sahajdhari, who aimed at refocusing Sikhs on the Adi Granth.
  • Don't Confuse it with Namdhari Movement founded by Baba Ram Singh.

Additional Information

• Guru Nanak Dev:
  • He was born in a village, Talwandi Rai Bhoe, near Lahore (it was renamed later as Nankana Sahib).
  • Guru Nanak Dev initiated inter-faith dialogue way back in the 16th century and had conversations with most of the religious denominations of his times.
  • His written compositions were included in the Adi Granth compiled by Guru Arjan (1563-1606), the fifth Sikh guru.
• Ram Singh Kuka:
  • He was the second guru of the Namdhari sect of Sikhism.
  • He is credited as being the first British Indian to use non-cooperation and boycott of British goods and services as a political tool.
  • He was exiled to Rangoon, Burma by the British colonial government of India on 18 January 1872.

Father’s father means grandfather.
Grandfather’s granddaughter means sister.
Sister’s husband means Brother-in-law.
So, B is A’s brother-in-law

K is daughter of L.
L is the daughter-in-law of M.
So, M is grandfather of K.
J is uncle of K.
J is the brother of K’s father.
Hence J is the son of M.

Section 36 in The Indian Penal Code deals with effect caused partly by act and partly by omission. Wherever the causing of a certain effect, or an attempt to cause that effect, by an act or by an omission, is an offence, it is to be understood that the causing of that effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is the same offence. Illustration A intentionally causes Z's death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and partly by beating Z. A has committed murder.

While the state could not be held liable for acts committed in the discharge of sovereign functions, it was held liable for offences occurring during non-sovereign functions like commercial acts. In this case, the liability was imposed on the state and the concept of sovereign immunity was not adopted. The act of driving a government vehicle during the course of employment cannot make the state immune when it substantially interferes with the right to life of the citizens. The state undertakes a plethora of activities under the umbrella of a welfare state such as transportation, trading, construction and others. It would be unfair to immunise the state for any mistake committed by itself or its employees during the course of these activities.
In Nagendra Rao's case as well, when the state seized certain goods under the Essential Commodities Act for public welfare, the onus fell on the state to ensure that the said goods are carefully preserved as is necessary. Thus, the state was held liable to pay the compensation for the loss incurred.

The exception to the rule, "law of limitation only bars the remedy, but does not extinguish the right itself" is contained in Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 in India. Section 27 states that when a right to property is acquired by adverse possession, the title of the previous owner extinguishes and the person who acquires the right by adverse possession gets the absolute title to the property. This exception means that in cases where adverse possession has been established, the law of limitation not only bars the remedy, but also extinguishes the right itself.

Amendments made in the year 1999 through the insertion of Section 89 to the Civil Procedure Code introduced provisions to enable the courts to refer pending cases to arbitration, conciliation and mediation to facilitate early and amicable resolution of disputes.
Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code was introduced with a purpose of amicable, peaceful and mutual settlement between parties without intervention of the court. It came into being in its current form on account of enforcement of the CPC (Amendment) Act, 1999 with effect from 1/7/2002.

Special summons under Section 206 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be issued by a Magistrate only.
If, in the opinion of a Magistrate taking cognizance of a petty offence, the case may be summarily disposed of under Section 260, the Magistrate shall, except where he is, for reasons to be recorded in writing of a contrary opinion, issue summons to the accused requiring him either to appear in person or by pleader before the Magistrate on a specified date.

'Volenti non fit injuria' is Latin for 'to a willing person, it is not a wrong'. This legal maxim holds that a person who knowingly and voluntarily risks danger cannot recover for any resulting injury. This principle was the common-law basis for the assumption of the risk doctrine.

The defense of fair comment in the tort of defamation requires that the comment in question is an expression of opinion rather than an assertion of fact, that the comment is fair and not made with malice, and that the matter commented upon is of public interest. Thus, option 1 is the answer.

The right to sue accrued to X on 1.1.2000, and the period of limitation is 2 years. Since X was a minor at the time, the period of limitation would not start running until he attains the age of majority. According to the facts given, X will attain majority on 1.1.2003, so period of limitation will begin to run from 1.1.2003 and the period of 2 years will thus, expire on 1.1.2005.

The leading case of R. V. Blake (1844) 6 Q.B. 126 illustrates two aspects because that authority shows both what is admissible and what is inadmissible. What in that case was held to be admissible against the conspirator was the evidence of entries made by his fellow conspirator contained in various documents actually used for carrying out the fraud. However, a document not created in the course of carrying out the transaction but made by one of the conspirators after the fraud was completed, was held to be inadmissible against the other.

Section 89, C.P.C. provides for the settlement of disputes outside the court.
Where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, the court shall formulate the terms of settlement and give them to the parties for their observations and after receiving the observations of the parties, the court may reformulate the terms of a possible settlement and refer the same for –
(a) arbitration;
(b) conciliation;
(c) judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat; or
(d) mediation.

A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts Section 107 of the IPC. Under section 107 of Indian Penal Code, it is the instigation to the commission of the act itself which constitutes the offence that is regarded as abetment.

Key Points

• Section 2(2) Of C.P.C. 1908 says “decree” means the formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the Court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit and may be either preliminary or final.
• It shall be deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question within section 144, but shall not include:
  • Any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order, or
  • Any order of dismissal for default.
• Explanation.—A decree is preliminary when further proceedings have to be taken before the suit can be completely disposed of. It is final when such adjudication completely disposes of the suit.
• The final decree can be said to become final in two ways:
  • When the period for appeal has passed without any appeals being filed against the preliminary decree or the matter has been adjudicated by the highest court; and
  • When the court that issued the decree is no longer active.

Key Points  
Order 13, Rule 1: 

(1) Original documents to be produced at or before the settlement of issues.-
(1) The parties or their pleader shall produce on or before the settlement of issues, all the documentary evidence in original where the copies thereof have been filed along with the plaint or written statement.

(2) The court shall receive the documents so produced:

• Provided that they are accompanied by an accurate list thereof prepared in such form as the High Court directs.

(3) Nothing in sub-rule (1) shall apply to documents

• produced for the cross-examination of the witnesses of the other party; or
• handed over to a witness merely to refresh his memory.

Option (1) is incorrect: Under the Indian Evidence Act, one attesting witness will always be required to be examined for the proof of a will.
Option (2) is incorrect: Under the Indian Evidence Act, whether will is registered or not, one attesting witness will always be required to be examined for the proof of a will.
Option (3) is correct: Under the Indian Evidence Act, whether it is admitted by the heir, at least one attesting witness will always be required to be examined for the proof of a will.
Option (4) is incorrect: Under the Indian Evidence Act, if no such attesting witness can be found, it must be proved that the attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting and that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person.

Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872 states that the Court shall presume that every document purporting to be a power-of-attorney, and to have been executed before, and authenticated by, a Notary Public, or any Court, Judge, Magistrate, Indian Consul or Vice-Consul, or representative of the Central Government, was so executed and authenticated.