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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 for SSC CGL 2024 is part of SSC CGL preparation. The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 below.
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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 1

J + R' means 'J is the father of R', 'J – R' means 'J is the mother of R', 'J ÷ R' means 'J is the son of R' and 'J × R' means 'J is the brother of R'. If S + M × T ÷ F – K, then how is S related to K?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 1

Preparing a family tree using the following set of symbols:

Now, S + M × T ÷ F – K ⇒ S is the Father of M, M is the brother of T, T is the son of F, and F is the mother of K.

Therefore, S will be the Father of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 2

select the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?)in the following series. 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 2

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Images are rotating one place in clockwise direction.

So, 'Option 4' will replace the question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

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SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 3

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line, facing South. Only two people sit to the left of A. Only three people sit between E and A. D sits at one of the extreme end. G sits to the immediate right of D. C sits in the middle of the row. B is not the immediate neighbor of C. Which among the following statement is true?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 3

According to the given information,

  • Only two people sit to the left of A.
  • Only three people sit between E and A.
  • D sits at one of the extreme ends.

  • G sits to the immediate right of D.
  • C sits in the middle of the row.
  • B is not the immediate neighbor of C.

​This is the final diagram.

Option 1) A sits to the immediate right of C - False(A sits to the left of C).

Option 2)Four people sit to the right of A. - True.

Option 3)Two people sit between B and F. - False(No one sits between B and F).

Option 4)There are four people sitting between D and E. - False (There are 5 people between D and E).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 4

Which of the following ministries is responsible for governing Indira Awaas Yojana ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 4

The correct answer is the Ministry of Rural Development.

  • Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY), a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Rural Development.

Key Points

  • Indira awaas yojana was introduced during the Rajiv Gandhi government in June 1985.
  • The Ministry of rural development is the ministry responsible for governing Indira awaas yojana.
  • It was launched during the 7th five-year plan in India.
  • Initially, it is launched as a subscheme of the rural landless employment guarantee program.
  • in 1989 it became a subscheme of Jawahar rozgar yojana.
  • It is renamed Pradhan Mantri Gramin awaas yojana in 2016.
  • The houses constructed under this scheme are allotted in the name of the woman or jointly between husband and wife.
  • "AWAAS Soft" is software to assist in improved administration of this scheme.
    • AWAAS Soft was launched in July 2010.

Additional Information

  • Shri Giriraj Singh is the current minister responsible for the ministry of rural development.
  • Shri Bhupender Yadav​ is the Minister of State with an independent charge of the ministry of labour and employment.
  • Shri Dharmendra Pradhan is the current minister responsible for the ministry of Education.
  • Dr. Virendra Kumar​ is the current minister responsible for the ministry of social justice and empowerment.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 5
What was the primary focus of the Brahmo Samaj when it was formed in 1828?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 5

The primary focus of the Brahmo Samaj when it was formed in 1828 was emphasis on Upanishads and Hindu traditions. Key Points

  • The Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, a Bengali polymath who was influenced by both Western and Eastern thought.
  • The Samaj's primary focus was on the Upanishads, which are a collection of ancient Hindu texts that emphasize the unity of God and the soul.
  • The Samaj also drew on other Hindu traditions, such as the Bhagavad Gita, but it rejected the caste system and other practices that it saw as harmful or outdated.
  • The Brahmo Samaj's emphasis on the Upanishads and Hindu traditions was in line with Roy's belief that Hinduism was a fundamentally monotheistic religion.
  • He argued that the Upanishads taught that there was one God and that all other gods and goddesses were simply different manifestations of this one God.
  • This belief was in contrast to the polytheistic beliefs of many Hindus at the time.
  • The Brahmo Samaj's emphasis on the Upanishads and Hindu traditions also helped to make it more appealing to Hindus who were interested in reform.
  • The Samaj offered a way to modernize Hinduism without abandoning its core beliefs.
  • This made it a more attractive option than other reform movements, such as the Arya Samaj, which rejected many traditional Hindu beliefs.
  • The Brahmo Samaj had a significant impact on Indian society.
  • It helped to spread the ideas of monotheism, social reform, and women's empowerment.
  • It also inspired other reform movements, such as the Arya Samaj and the Prarthana Samaj.
  • The Brahmo Samaj's legacy continues to be felt today, and it remains one of the most important reform movements in Indian history.

​Therefore the correct answer is emphasis on Upanishads and Hindu traditions.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 6
The Chief of Army during the Mughal administration was known as :
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 6

The Chief of Army during the Mughal administration was known as Mirbakshi.

Important Points

  • The Mughals provided a stable administration in larger parts of India.
  • The Emperor was the supreme head of the Mughal administrative system.
  • He was the law maker, the chief executive, the commander-in-chief of the army and the final dispenser of justice.
  • He was assisted by a council of ministers.
  • The most important officials were the Wakil (Prime Minister) and Wazir or diwan (in charge of the revenue and expenditure).
  • Mir Bakshi was in-charge or chief of the army.
  • The Mir Saman looked after the royal household.
  • The Qazi was the Chief Judge.
  • Sadr-us-Sudr was minister for enforcing Islamic law (Sharia).

Thus, we can conclude that the Chief of Army during the Mughal administration was known as Mirbakshi.

Additional Information

  • Fauzdar:
    • Fauzdar was responsible for maintaining law and order.
    • He basically was the administrative head.
  • Deewan:
    • ​He was in-charge of the revenue and expenditure.
  • Subedar:
    • The empire was divided into several Subhas (provinces).
    • Each Subha was under the control of an officer called Subedar. 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 7

Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 7

Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrectly matched.

Key Points

  • The battle of Khatoli was fought in 1517 AD. between the Rajput army of Mewar led by Rana Sanga (Maharana Sangram Singh) and the army of the Delhi Sultanate led by Ibrahim Lodi. Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
    • A fierce battle was fought at Khatoli near Bundi.
    • The sultan was defeated and fled from the battlefield.
    • A son of the sultan was imprisoned.
    • The next year, the sultan sent Miyan Husain and Miyan Mukhan as the head of a large army.
    • Again the army of the Sultan was defeated by the Maharana, at Badi near Dholpur.
  • The Battle of Khanwa was a decisive engagement between the Mughal forces under Babur and the Rajput alliance under Rana Sanga of MewarHence pair 2 is correctly matched.
    • The battle was fought on 16 March 1527.
    • It ended in a decisive victory for the Mughal forces and would consolidate Babur and his descendant's rule for centuries to come.
  • The Battle of Chandwar was fought between  Muhammad Ghori and Jayachandra. Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched. 
    • Jayachandra was the last great ruler of the Gahadavala dynasty of northern India. 
    • He was killed in the Battle of Chandwar in 1194A.D. by Muhammad of Ghori.
    • The Battle of Chandwar (1193 or 1194) was the second major victory won by Muhammad of Ghor in northern India, after the second battle of Tarain.
    • Muhammad's first expedition in the Ganges plain had ended in defeat at the hands of Prithviraj Chauhan at Tarain in 1191.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 8
Which of the following enzymes are found in saliva?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 8

The correct option is Ptyalin.

Key Points

  • Three salivary glands in the mouth, sublingual glands, submaxillary glands & parotid glands. 
  • Ptyalin and Lysozyme enzymes are found in saliva
  • Ptyalin & Lysozyme both help in the pre-digestion of starches. It is also called salivary amylase.

Additional Information

  • Trypsin &  Carboxypeptidase enzyme helps in the digestion of protein.
  • Lipase enzymes help in the digestion of fat.
  • Chymotrypsin is found in the Pancreatic juice.It is activated by the Trypsin enzyme.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 9

Which one of the following statements with regard to ultra violet light is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 9

The correct answer is It is a longitudinal wave.

  • Ultraviolet light also called UV light has a wavelength between 10 and 400 nm which is shorter than visible light but it is larger than the X-rays.

Key Points

  • It is a type of electromagnetic radiation which is present in sunlight.
  • Ultraviolet light contributes to 10% of the total sunlight.
  • Ultraviolet light can travel through a vacuum.
  • Radio waves, infrared waves, visible light, ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays are examples of transverse waves. while sound waves and ultrasound waves are examples of longitudinal waves.
  • In transverse waves, particles get dispersed in the perpendicular direction in which the waves travel while in longitudinal waves particles are displaced in the parallel direction in which the wave travels.

Additional Information

  • Different Types of Wave
    • Wave: The continuous transfer of energy by vibrating the medium of propagation is called a wave.
    • Sound waves, light waves, waves formed due to stretched string are some examples of waves.
    • Longitudinal wave: The wave in which the particles in the medium vibrate in to and fro motion along the line of propagation of the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
    • Transverse wave: The wave in which the particles in the medium vibrates along the perpendicular axis of propagation of the wave is called a transverse wave.
    • Propagation of sound wave: Sound waves travels in the air or any medium by vibrating the air particles along the direction of its motion.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 10
Prakrit was the official language under which of the following dynasty?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 10

The correct answer is Satavahana dynasty.

Key Points

  • Prakrit was the official language of the Satavahana kingdom.
  • It was the golden age of Prakrit under the reign of Hala of Satavahanas.
  • The majority of satavahana inscriptions were written in Prakrit. Prakrit was the common language as well as the language of literature.
  • The Satavahanas preferred Prakrit to Sanskrit as their official language.
  • Prakrit refers to a group of Indo-Aryan languages and dialects that were spoken in ancient India.
  • Some current researchers include all Middle Indo-Aryan languages together as "Prakrits," while others emphasise the languages' separate evolution from Sanskrit's history, which is often separated by caste, religion, and geography. 

Important Points

  • The Satavahanas were an ancient Indian dynasty centred in the Deccan region, also known as the Andhras in the Puranas.
  • Most modern academics believe the Satavahana dynasty began in the late second century BCE and lasted until the early third century CE, however, some researchers place the start of their rule as early as the third century BCE, based on the Puranas but without archaeological evidence.
  • The present-day states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Maharashtra were all part of the Satavahana monarchy.
  • They ruled areas of modern-day Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Karnataka at various times.
  • During various eras, the dynasty had different capital cities, including Pratishthana (Paithan) and Amaravati (Dharanikota). 

Additional Information

  • During the 4th century BCE, and perhaps the 5th century BCE, the Nanda dynasty ruled in the northern Indian subcontinent.
  • The Shaishunaga dynasty is thought to have been the second governing dynasty of ancient India's Magadha empire.
  • The Haryanka dynasty succeeded the Pradyota and Barhadratha dynasties as the third governing dynasty of Magadha, an ancient Indian empire. 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 11
Which of the following soils show swelling and shrinkage behavior on wetting and drying?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 11

The correct answer is Black cotton Soil.

Key Points

Black cotton soils

  • It shows swelling and shrinkage behaviour on wetting and drying. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Black Cotton Soil also consists of the excess Montmorillonite mineral.
  • These show volumetric changes with the change in atmospheric conditions.
  • Black cotton soil shows swelling when moisture content increases and shrinkage behaviour when moisture content decreases. 
  • Under reamed piles are used for these types of soils.
  • As black cotton soils are expansive soils i.e having swelling and shrinkage behaviour and due to this Lightly loaded structures are more susceptible to damage as a result of volume changes in the soil. Therefore these soils need to be stabilized first before loading.
  • Investigation says that lime is a good stabilizing agent for the construction of a road in black cotton soil.
  • Lime forms the bonding between the soil particles which is missing in black cotton soil and hence stabilizes.

Additional Information

Alluvial Soils

  • Alluvial soils are formed mainly due to silt deposited by the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra rivers. In coastal regions, some alluvial deposits are formed due to wave action.
  • Rocks of the Himalayas from the parent material. Thus the parent material of these soils is of transported origin.
  • They are the largest soil group covering about 15 lakh sq km or about 46 per cent of the total area.
  • They support more than 40% of India’s population by providing the most productive agricultural lands.

Peaty, and Marshy Soil/Bog Soil

  • This soil originates from areas where adequate drainage is not possible. It is rich in organic matter and has high salinity. They are deficient in potash and phosphate.

Desert Soil

  • This soil is deposited by wind action and is mainly found in the arid and semi-arid areas like Rajasthan, West of the Aravallis, Northern Gujarat, Saurashtra, Kachchh, Western parts of Haryana, and the southern part of Punjab.
  • It lacks moisture contentHumus content is less, and Nitrogen is originally low but some of it is available in the form of nitrates.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 12
The audible range of sound for human beings is _______.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 12

The correct answer is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Key Points

  • The audible range of sound for human beings is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
  • Humans can detect sounds in a frequency range from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
    • (Human infants can actually hear frequencies slightly higher than 20 kHz, but lose some high-frequency sensitivity as they mature; the upper limit in average adults is often closer to 15–17 kHz.)

Additional Information

  • The number of sound vibrations emitted per second is known as the frequency which is measured in hertz (Hz).
    • The lower (or higher) the frequency, the lower (or higher) the pitch of the sound.
    • The sensation of a frequency is commonly referred to as the pitch of a sound.
    • A high pitch sound corresponds to a high-frequency sound wave and a low pitch sound corresponds to a low-frequency sound wave.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 13
Who was the Mughal Emperor at the time of Battle of Plassey?
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 13

The correct answer is Alamgir II.

Key Points

  • Alamgir II was the Mughal Emperor at the time of the Battle of Plassey.
    • Alamgir II was the Mughal Emperor of India from 3 June 1754 to 29 November 1759.
    • He was the son of Jahandar Shah. 
    • The Battle of Plassey was fought between Siraj-Ud-Daulah who was then the Bengal Nawab and East India Company forces headed by Robert Clive.
    • The Battle of Plassey took place when Nawab of Bengal Siraj-Ud-Daulah did not like the uncontrolled use of privileges by the East India Company’s officials.
    • Also, the workers of the company stopped paying the taxes that became one of the reasons for the Battle of Plassey.

Additional Information

  • Siraj-ud-Daulah:
    • Siraj-ud-Daulah was the last independent Nawab of Bengal who succeeded Alivadi Khan to the throne.
    •  The end of his reign marks the end of the independent rule in India and the beginning of the company's rule that continued unabated over the next two hundred years.
    • The end of his reign marked the start of British East India Company rule over Bengal and later almost all of the Indian subcontinent. 
  • Mir Qasim:
    • Mir Qasim was the Nawab of Bengal from 1760 to 1763.
    • He was installed as Nawab with the support of the British East India Company, replacing Mir Jafar, his father-in-law, who had himself been supported earlier by the East India Company after his role in winning the Battle of Plassey for the British.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 14
Manish buys an old car for Rs. 5,300 and spend Rs. 1,000 on its repairs. If he sells the car for Rs. 7,000, his gain percent is:
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 14

Given:

Manish buys an old car for Rs. 5,300 and spend Rs. 1,000 on its repairs

His selling price = Rs. 7000

Concept used:

Profit = Selling price - cost price

Profit% = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

His net cost price = 5300 + 1000

⇒ Rs. 6300

Now,

His profit = 7000 - 6300

⇒ Rs. 700

Profit % = (700/6300) × 100

⇒ 11%

∴ His gain percent is 11%.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 15

The average of the natural numbers divisible by 5 from the integers -10 to 35 is:

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 15

Given:

Natural numbers divisible by 5 from the integers -10 to 35.

Formulas used:

Sum of an AP is , where n is the number of terms, a is the first and l is the last term.

Average = Sum of all terms/Total number of terms

Calculation:

The natural numbers divisible by 5 from the integers -10 to 35 is an arithmetic progression 5, 10, 15, 20, 25,30, 35 with a common difference of 5.

The sum of these natural numbers is 

Therefore, the average of the given natural numbers is .

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 16

An angle of depression from top of the building towards point B on the ground is 60°. The angle of elevation from point A on ground towards the 6th floor of the building is 30°. The distance between the Point A and base of the building is 450 units. The distance between the Point B and A is 150 units. Find the height of the building from above 6th floor. (Point B is nearer to the base of the building)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 16

Given,

OA = 450 units

OB = 300 units

Angle of elevation from point B is equal to the angle of depression from top to point B.

Angle of elevation from point B = 30°

Then,

⇒ tan60 = OP/OB

⇒ OP = 300 × √3 = 300√3 units

Then,

⇒ tan30 = OM/OA

⇒ OM = 1/√3 × 450 = 150√3 units

Required height = MP = OP – OM

= 300√3 - 150√3

= 150√3 units

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 17

A can do a certain piece of work in 1.5 times the number of days in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together can do the said piece of work in 30 days and C alone can do it in 120 days, then how many days will B take to do this piece of work alone?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 17

Given:-

A can do a certain piece of work in 1.5 times the number of days in which B and C together can do it.

 A and B together can do the said piece of work in 30 days

C alone can do it in 120 days

Concept:-

The ratio of efficiency is reciprocal of time.

Number of days required to complete a certain work = (Work to be completed/Work efficiency)

Calculation:-

A = 1.5 (B + C)

A/(B + C) = 3/2

A/(B + C)(efficiency) = 2/3

Total work be 120(LCM of 30 and 120)

Efficiency of A + B = 120/30 = 4 unit/day

Efficiency of C = 120/120 = 1 unit/day

Efficiency of B = 4 - 2 = 2 unit/day

Time taken by B to do this piece of work alone = 120/2

= 60 days.

The time taken by B to do this piece of work alone is 60 days.

Shortcut Trick 

The time taken by B to do this piece of work alone is 60 days.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 18

What will come in the place of ? in 323 ÷ 17 × √841 + 122 = ?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 18

Given:

The expression 323 ÷ 17 × √841 + 122

Concept used:

Following the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation

323 ÷ 17 × √841 + 122

= 19 × 29 + 122

= 551 + 144

= 695

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 19

The marked price of a television set is ₹18,000. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 40% and gets a profit of 10%. What is the cost price of the television set?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 19

Concept used:

CP/MP = (100 - Discount%) / (100 + Profit%)

Calculation:

According to the given concept,

CP/MP = (100 - 40) / (100 + 10)

⇒ CP/MP = 60/110 = 6/11

⇒ CP/MP = 6/11

⇒ CP = (18000 × 6)/11 = \(\rm Rs.\ 9,818\frac{2}{11}\) 

∴ The correct answer is option 4

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 20
Choose the correct word for 'A display of unnecessary excitement'
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 20

The correct answer is option 1, i.e.'Fuss'.

'Fuss' means 'A display of unnecessary excitement'. So option 1 is the answer.

'Complaint' means ' a statement that something is unnecessary'.

'Layoff' means 'An act of ending the employment of a worker or group of workers'

'Temerity' means 'excessive boldness'

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 21

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Hansa said, “I have passed my RAS examination with flying colors.”
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 21

The correct answer is 'Hansa said that she had passed her RAS examination with flying colors.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the question we have to change it into Indirect Speech
  • The process of transformation is as follows:
    • In the given sentence the reporting verb does not have an object. Hence, 'said' will not be changed. 
    • The comma and inverted commas will be removed.
    • The conjunction 'that' will be added. 
    • We know that in 'direct to indirect transformation' the present perfect tense is changed into 'the past perfect tense'. 
    • 'I' will be changed into 'she' and 'my' will be changed into 'her' because in 'direct to indirect transformation' the first-person pronouns are changed according to the subject of the reporting verb. 
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 1. 

Correct Sentence: Hansa said that she had passed her RAS examination with flying colors.

Additional Information

  • Transformation of Imperative Sentence:
  • 'Orders', 'Command', 'Request', 'Advice' are given in these kinds of sentences. 
  • Reporting Verb is changed into 'ordered, advised, requested, commanded, beg, forbade, suggested, proposed, assured, asked, reminded, warned, agreed, refused, promised', etc.  
  • Inverted Commas will be removed. And conjunction 'to/not to' will be used. 
  • Example: 
    • He said, "John, please bring me my towel." (Direct Speech)
    • He requested John to bring him his towel. (Indirect Speech) 
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 22

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose 'No improvement' as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct.

He doesn't hardly ever visit his hometown.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 22

The correct answer is 'He hardly ever visits'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "doesn't hardly ever" in the sentence is incorrect as it constitutes a double negative ('doesn't' and 'hardly'). Double negatives result in a positive meaning, which misleads the intent of the sentence.
  • The term 'hardly' already carries a negative sense (meaning 'almost never') and thus should not be used with another negative term ('doesn't').
  • The corrected sentence should be: 'He hardly ever visits his hometown', which communicates the intended message that he rarely visits his hometown.
  • This sentence properly conveys that his visits to his hometown are very infrequent.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • He visits hardly ever: This statement is grammatically wrong because the adverb phrase 'hardly ever' is more conventionally placed before the verb 'visits'.
  • He doesn't hardly visit: This sentence has a double negative that flips the meaning of the sentence to positive, which is not the intended meaning
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 23

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fetish 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 23

The correct answer is "Desire".

Key Points

  •  A "fetish" typically refers to an excessive and irrational devotion or commitment to a particular thing.(किसी विशेष चीज़ के प्रति अत्यधिक और अतार्किक भक्ति या प्रतिबद्धता)
  • The word carries connotations of a deep-seated "desire" or obsession.
  • A "desire" is a strong feeling of wanting or wishing for something.(किसी चीज़ को चाहने या चाहने की प्रबल भावना) Given that a fetish is often driven by an intense, irrational wish, "desire" is a synonym that captures the longing aspect of "fetish."
  • From the above meaning it is clear that both words are synonyms to each other. 

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

  • "Awkward" usually means uncomfortable, embarrassing, or not at ease.(अजीब) Although a fetish can sometimes make social interaction awkward, this word doesn't directly relate to the meaning of "fetish" itself.
  • A "requirement" is something mandatory or needed.(आवश्यकता) While a fetish may feel crucial to the person who has it, the term "requirement" does not capture the obsessive or excessive nature of a fetish.
  • "Learning" refers to the acquisition of knowledge or skills through study, experience, or being taught.(सीखना) It doesn't connect with the meaning of "fetish," which is more about an intense inclination or obsession.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 24

Direction: Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The most important fruit in Kinnaur is apricot. It is possible to get it at everyplace in huge amount.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 24

The correct answer is "found everywhere in a huge amount."
Key Points

  • The original sentence uses "at everyplace" which is not grammatically correct. "Everywhere" should be used instead.
  • The phrase "in huge amount" should come after "everywhere" to indicate the quantity of apricots available.
  • The correct verb form is "found" which is in the past tense and agrees with the subject "apricot".
  • The correct preposition to use is "in" to indicate that apricots are available in Kinnaur.
  • The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentenceThe most important fruit in Kinnaur is apricot. It is found everywhere in a huge amount.​​​​​​​

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 25

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Oliver said to his teacher, "She had taken my notebook."

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 25

The correct answer is "Oliver told his teacher that she had taken his notebook."

Key Points

  • The reporting verb "said" is changed to "told" in reported speech if there is a personal object. 
  • The pronoun "she" and the possessive "my" remain the same because these refer to people other than the speaker and the listener (Oliver and his teacher).
  • Conjunction "that" will be used instead of inverted commas.
  • The verb form "had taken" is already in the past perfect tense, which typically remains unchanged in reported speech. 

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 26

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The boxer showed audacity by agreeing to fight the champion.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 26

The correct answer is: Courage

Key Points

  •  Audacity means showing boldness or daring. (साहस)
    • ExampleThe mountaineer showed audacity by climbing the peak without any safety gear.
  • Marked option Courage means having the strength and determination to face fear, pain, or difficult challenges, even when it's not easy. (पराक्रम)
    • ExampleDespite her fear of heights, she showed great courage by climbing to the top of the mountain to conquer her anxiety and enjoy the breathtaking view.
  • So, the synonym of audacity is courage.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Honesty means being truthful and straightforward. (ईमानदारी)
  • Desperation means a state of despair or hopelessness. (निराशा)
  • Reparation means making amends or repairing something. (मरम्मत)
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 27

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution'.

The moon is Earth's only natural satellite and the nearby large celestial body.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 27

The correct answer is 'the nearest large'.

Key Points

  • The sentence aims to describe the moon in terms of its proximity to Earth and its significant size compared to other celestial bodies.
  • The original phrase "nearby large" doesn't effectively convey both the sense of proximity and the notion of significant size.
  • The corrected phrase "the nearest large" effectively combines two elements:
    • "Nearest" indicates the proximity of the moon to Earth, portraying it as the closest celestial body.
    • "Large" denotes the substantial size of the moon among other celestial bodies, indicating its importance or significant dimensions.
  • Grammatically, "nearest" functions as a superlative form of "near," signifying the closest in distance. It modifies "large," emphasizing that among the celestial bodies in proximity to Earth, the moon is not only close but also substantial in size compared to others.
  • So, the chosen option, "the nearest large," effectively communicates both the idea of proximity and the significance of size in a grammatically correct manner, making it the most suitable substitution. 

Correct Sentence: The moon is Earth's only natural satellite and the nearest large celestial body.

SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 28

Direction: Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Without any question, Naresh is my good friend. 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 28

The correct answer is "Beyond a doubt."
Key Points

  • The phrase "without any question" means "definitely" or "certainly," indicating that there is no doubt about Naresh being the speaker's good friend. (निश्चित रूप से)
    • ExampleThey carried out orders without any question.
  • We say that something is beyond doubt or beyond reasonable doubt when we are certain that it is true and it cannot be contradicted or disproved.
    • ExampleA referendum showed beyond doubt that voters wanted independence.
  • The correct answer is Option 4.
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 29

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

I camouflaged the hide, took my essentials, came out of the hide and stretched out to my heart's content.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 29

The correct answer is 'Exposed'.

Key Points

  • 'Camouflage', refers to the method that allows an otherwise visible object or person to remain indiscernible from the surrounding environment. ('छिपाना').
    • Example: "The troops camouflaged their tents to blend in with the surrounding forest."
  • 'Exposed': The act of making something visible or disclosed. ('बेनक़ाब करना').
    • Example: "The controversial reporter exposed the hidden misdeeds of the corrupt politician."

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • 'Betrayed': To reveal against someone's wishes or without permission. ('धोखा देना').
  • 'Uncloaked' refers to the action of revealing or making visible. ('अनावरण करना').
  • 'Masked': To hide or cover something, usually so that it can't be seen or recognized. ('मुखौटा पहनाना').
SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 30

Select the most appropriate answer for blank 3. 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL Tier I Mock Test - 15 - Question 30

The correct answer is "numerous."
Key Points

  • "Numerous" means many or a large number. (बहुत सारे, बड़ी संख्‍या में; अनेक)
    • ExampleWe have discussed these plans on numerous occasions.
  • It is the most appropriate answer to fill in the blank.
  • The correct answer is Option 4.
  • Correct passage:

Summer camp is a terrific idea used primarily by schools to assist pupils to acquire and master new skills. It is an organised outdoor activity. Many parents offer to enroll their kids in summer camps so they can participate in numerous activities, discover their talents and passions, and broaden their horizons. Summer camps are ______ (4) ______ for all children for ten to fifteen days by various schools or other organisations. These summer camps ______ (5) ______ entertaining educational activities like fitness classes, hobby improvement classes, learning lectures, sports activities, musical performances, etc. The pupils' general development and growth are benefitted from these summer camps.

Additional Information 

  • Option 1, "much", means a large quantity or amount. ((अगणनीय संज्ञाओं में, मुख्‍यतया निषेद्यवाचक और प्रश्‍नवाचक वाक्‍य अथवा as, how, so, too के बाद प्रयुक्त) किसी वस्‍तु की अधिक मात्रा)
  • Option 2, "more", means a greater amount or quantity than before. (व्‍यकि्तयों या वस्‍तुओं की अधिक बड़ी संख्‍या या मात्रा; जो है वह भी (और) साथ ही और भी, से अधिक)
  • Option 3, "few", means a small number or amount. (थोड़े-से, गिने-चुने; बहुत-से नहीं)
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