Test: Indian Polity MCQs (August 2024 Current Affairs) - UPSC MCQ

1. Correct: The right to be forgotten indeed allows individuals to request the removal of their personal information from various online platforms when it is no longer necessary or relevant.

2. Incorrect: While the Personal Data Protection Bill of 2019 in India does grant individuals some control over their personal data, it has not yet been formally enacted into law, and thus the right to be forgotten is not formally recognized through it.

3. Incorrect: The Supreme Court of India has acknowledged the right to be forgotten as part of the broader right to privacy in various rulings, including the KS Puttaswamy case.

Thus, the correct statement is 1 only.

Statement-I correctly describes the establishment of the Central Waqf Council as a national advisory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Statement-II accurately reflects the role of the Council in advising the Union government on waqf-related policies and in resolving inter-State disputes. The second statement explains the purpose and function of the Central Waqf Council as outlined in the first statement, making both statements correct and logically interconnected.

- Statement 1: Correct. The Supreme Court ruling in Shailesh Kumar v. State of UP (2024) clarified that any information indicating the occurrence of a cognizable offence must be recorded as an FIR in the official FIR register.

- Statement 2: Incorrect. The term FIR is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), but it is recognized under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).

- Statement 3: Correct. The Supreme Court ruling in Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh & Others (2014) established that FIR registration is mandatory for cognizable offences as per Section 154 of the CrPC.

Hence, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

1. The first statement is correct. DNA profiling targets specific regions known as genetic markers, particularly Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), which vary among individuals, except in the case of monozygotic (identical) twins. These STRs are essential for forensic analysis as they provide a unique DNA profile for each individual.

2. The second statement is incorrect. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not prohibit the use of DNA evidence in court. In fact, sections 45-51 of the Act address the admissibility of expert testimony, including DNA evidence. DNA evidence is routinely used in Indian courts, although its probative value can vary depending on the case.

3. The third statement is incorrect. The random occurrence ratio provided by experts indicates how often similar DNA profiles might appear in the population, but it does not by itself conclusively determine guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. The Madras High Court and the Law Commission of India have noted that DNA matches should be corroborated with additional evidence to establish identity and guilt conclusively.

Thus, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.

The "Right to be Forgotten" allows individuals to request the removal of their publicly available personal information from the internet, databases, and search engines when the information is considered no longer necessary or relevant, and its presence infringes on an individual's privacy. This right is crucial in managing one's online presence and protecting personal privacy in the digital age.

1. KS Puttaswamy case - Correctly matched. The Supreme Court of India in the KS Puttaswamy case recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.

2. Delhi High Court, 2019 - Correctly matched. The Delhi High Court in 2019 recognized the 'right to be forgotten' as a part of the right to privacy.

3. Orissa High Court, 2020 - Incorrectly matched. The Orissa High Court noted the complexities and technological challenges surrounding the 'right to be forgotten' but did not mandate the deletion of all online data after a court acquittal.

4. Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 - Correctly matched. The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 grants individuals the right to restrict dissemination of their personal data under certain circumstances.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Statement-I correctly reflects the recent ruling by the Supreme Court, which allows for the sub-classification of SCs and STs to extend reservations to more disadvantaged segments within these groups. However, Statement-II is inaccurate in portraying the Supreme Court's decision in the E.V. Chinnaiah vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) case, where the court ruled that sub-classification among Scheduled Castes for the purpose of reservation would violate the right to equality and said that the SC list must be treated as a single, homogenous group. 

Therefore Correct Answer: Option-C

The primary purpose of establishing a waqf is to contribute charitably for public benefit. A waqf is a property dedicated to God for religious or charitable purposes, and it allows individuals to contribute charitably beyond their lifetime, ensuring that the assets benefit the public in various ways such as maintaining mosques, funding educational institutions, or assisting the needy. This act of devotion is viewed as a noble way to give back to society and uphold religious principles of charity and public welfare.

The Supreme Court ruling on sub-classification of SCs and STs in India primarily aims to extend reservations to the more disadvantaged segments within these groups. This decision intends to ensure that reservation benefits reach SC/ST communities that are historically marginalized and less privileged.

DNA profiling, also referred to as DNA fingerprinting, primarily aims to identify individuals by examining unique regions of their DNA. This technique is based on the fact that although human DNA is highly similar across individuals, there are specific sequences known as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) that vary between people, making them crucial for forensic analysis.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India, in its recent ruling, stated that SCs and STs do not constitute a socially uniform group. The court affirmed that states have the right to sub-classify SCs and STs to extend reservations to the more disadvantaged segments within these groups.

2. Statement 2 is correct. Article 341 of the Constitution indeed allows the President to designate certain castes, races, or tribes as SCs through public notification. This designation process is a constitutional mechanism to identify and list SCs.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The "Creamy Layer" concept is applied within reserved categories to exclude wealthier individuals from certain affirmative action benefits, ensuring that support reaches those in greater need. This principle aims to provide equitable opportunities by focusing on the more disadvantaged individuals within these categories.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

1. FIR Registration: Section 154 of CrPC - Correct. Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) pertains to the registration of First Information Reports (FIRs) for cognizable offences.

2. General Diary: Section 44 of Police Act, 1861 - Correct. Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 mandates the maintenance of a General Diary to log daily activities and events at a police station.

3. Lalita Kumari Case: Mandatory FIR for non-cognizable offences - Incorrect. The Supreme Court ruling in Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh & Others (2014) established that FIR registration is mandatory for cognizable offences, not non-cognizable offences.

4. Sub-Classification of SCs/STs: Article 342A of the Constitution - Incorrect. Article 342A pertains to the classification of socially and educationally backward classes, not the sub-classification of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Sub-classification of SCs and STs is governed by judicial interpretations and state policies.

Hence, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making the answer Option B: Only two pairs.

- Statement 1: The Waqf Act of 1995 indeed permits the sale of waqf properties, but it requires the approval of two-thirds of the Waqf Board members. This statement is correct.

- Statement 2: The proposed Waqf Amendment Bill aims to abolish the concept of 'waqf by use', meaning properties can no longer be deemed waqf based solely on their usage. This statement is correct.

- Statement 3: Under the existing Waqf Act of 1995, non-Muslims are not allowed to participate in State Waqf Boards. However, the proposed amendments would allow non-Muslims to participate. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Waqf Board - Managed by a CEO who must be a Muslim with at least Deputy Secretary rank.

- This statement is correct. Each State Waqf Board is required to appoint a full-time Chief Executive Officer (CEO), and this individual must be a Muslim with a rank of at least Deputy Secretary.

2. Central Waqf Council - Headed by the Chief Justice of India.

- This statement is incorrect. The Central Waqf Council is headed by the Union Minister of Minority Affairs, not the Chief Justice of India.

3. District Collectors - Responsible for surveying waqf properties under the proposed amendments.

- This statement is correct. Under the proposed amendments, district collectors will replace survey commissioners in surveying waqf properties.

4. Aldermen in MCD - Nominated by the Delhi L-G without aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

- This statement is correct. The Supreme Court ruled that the Delhi Lieutenant Governor has the authority to nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi independently, without requiring the aid and advice of the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers.

So, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Thus, there are three correctly matched pairs.

Statement-I correctly highlights the purpose of DNA profiling, emphasizing the identification of individuals through specific regions of their DNA. Statement-II accurately describes DNA as the genetic material found in cells, encoding information using nucleotide sequences. While both statements are individually correct, they address distinct aspects of DNA without one explaining the other. DNA fingerprinting pertains more to the identification process, whereas the latter statement focuses on the genetic material's general function.