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UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - UGC NET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 for UGC NET 2025 is part of UGC NET preparation. The UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UGC NET exam syllabus.The UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for UGC NET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 below.
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UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

A teacher designing a lesson on cultural diversity for a college class in anthropology plans to:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

The correct response is Organize a simulation where students experience aspects of a specific culture.

Key Points

  • Organize a simulation where students experience aspects of a specific culture: This option actively engages students by immersing them in the experiences of a particular culture.
  • It allows for a deeper understanding of cultural practices, beliefs, and values by experiencing them firsthand, promoting empathy and cultural sensitivity.

Additional Information

Lecture on major cultural groups around the world and their traditions: While lectures can provide valuable information, they may not fully engage students or allow for deeper exploration of cultural diversity beyond surface-level descriptions.

Analyze artifacts and symbols from different cultures, explaining their meanings: This option is also valuable as it allows for a more hands-on approach to learning about cultural diversity. However, it may still lack the experiential aspect that option 3 offers.

Facilitate a debate on the impact of globalization on cultural identities: While debates can stimulate critical thinking and discussion, they may not directly address the topic of cultural diversity in a way that fosters understanding and appreciation for different cultures.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

All the parts of this car are made of metal. Therefore, the whole car is made of metal. Which of the following fallacies is committed in this argument?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2
Key Points Fallacy of composition:
  • The fallacy of composition is committed when someone assumes that something that is true for the parts of a group is also true for the whole group.
  • In this case, the person is assuming that because all the parts of the car are made of metal, then the whole car is made of metal.
  • However, this is not necessarily true. The car may have other parts, such as plastic or glass, that are not made of metal.
  • The fallacy of division occurs when someone assumes that something that is true for the whole group is also true for the parts of the group.
  • The false dilemma fallacy occurs when someone presents two options as the only possible choices, when in reality there are other options available.
  • The straw man fallacy occurs when someone distorts an opponent's argument to make it easier to attack.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Pesticides can disrupt ecosystems and harm biodiversity. Which of the following impacts is MOST likely to have a negative long-term effect on people in rural communities?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

The correct answer is 'Soil contamination that affects crop growth.'

Key Points

  • Soil contamination that affects crop growth:
    • Soil contamination refers to the presence of toxic chemicals in the soil, commonly due to the application of pesticides and fertilizers.
    • This contamination can significantly reduce soil fertility, leading to lower crop yields and impaired quality of produce, directly affecting farm income and local food supply.
    • Contaminants can include heavy metals, persistent organic pollutants, and pesticide residues, which can enter the food chain, posing health risks to humans and animals.
    • In rural communities that depend on agriculture for their livelihood, poor soil health can result in food insecurity and economic instability.

Additional Information

  • Reduced insect populations that pollinate crops:
    • Pollinators like bees and butterflies are essential for the production of many fruits, vegetables, and nuts.
    • While reduced pollination can lead to lower crop yields, efforts can be made to introduce alternative pollination methods such as managed pollinator services or promoting wild pollinators.
    • The decline of pollinators is critical, but the impact can sometimes be mitigated through human intervention and technology.
  • Loss of aquatic insect populations that are a food source for fish:
    • Aquatic insects play a key role in freshwater ecosystems, providing a primary food source for fish.
    • The decline in these insect populations can disrupt aquatic food chains and impact local fisheries.
    • However, this effect is more localized to water bodies and may not have as direct of an impact on terrestrial farming communities compared to soil contamination.
  • Decreased bird populations that control insect pests:
    • Birds help in controlling insect pests that can damage crops, reducing the need for chemical pesticides.
    • While their loss can lead to increased pest-related crop damage, other pest management strategies can sometimes be implemented to counterbalance this effect.
    • This issue is significant but often more manageable compared to the pervasive impact of soil contamination.

Important Points

  • Long-term soil health is crucial for sustainable agriculture. Organic farming and integrated pest management (IPM) are strategies that can help improve and maintain soil fertility over time.
  • Regular soil testing and monitoring can help detect contamination early and mitigate its effects through appropriate remediation techniques.
  • Community education and support for sustainable farming practices are vital in ensuring the long-term prosperity and health of rural agricultural communities.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

What would you do if a teacher helped you?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

a) Thanks him/her in return

This shows gratitude and acknowledges the teacher's support. Depending on the context, b) Would like to help her in the future could also be a good option, as it demonstrates appreciation and a willingness to reciprocate. However, expressing thanks directly is the most immediate and expected response.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5
According to Berlo, the communication process has:
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

According to David K. Berlo's SMCR model, the communication process has Four Key Elements

Key Points

Berlo's communication model, often referred to as the SMCR model, breaks down the process of communication into four main components: Source, Message, Channel, and Receiver.

Source (S):

  • The Source is where the communication originates.
  • This could be a person, group, or organization that wants to convey information or a message.
  • The effectiveness of the source depends on its communication skills, attitude, knowledge, social system, and culture.
  • These factors influence how well the source can encode and transmit the message.

Message (M):

  • The Message is the information or content that is being communicated.
  • It can be in the form of words, pictures, sounds, gestures, etc.
  • The message has several elements, including content (what is being said), structure (how it is organized), code (the form in which it is presented, such as language or symbols), and treatment (how the message is conveyed or delivered).

Channel (C):

  • The Channel is the medium through which the message travels from the source to the receiver.
  • This could be via spoken words, written text, digital media, body language, etc.
  • The efficiency of the channel affects how well the message gets through. Channels can be auditory (hearing), visual (seeing), tactile (touching), olfactory (smelling), or gustatory (tasting).

Receiver (R):

  • The Receiver is the person, group, or system for whom the message is intended.
  • The receiver's job is to interpret or decode the message.
  • Just like the source, the receiver's communication skills, attitude, knowledge, social system, and culture play a crucial role in how well they understand and respond to the message.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Identify the fallacy committed in the argument.

All men who understand women are potentially perfect husbands.

All potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite patience.

Therefore, some men of infinite patience are men who understand women.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6
Key PointsExistential fallacy:
  • The existential fallacy occurs when the conclusion of an argument asserts the existence of something that is not explicitly stated in the premises.
  • In this case, the conclusion asserts that some men of infinite patience exist, even though the premises do not explicitly state this.
  • The premises of the argument state that all men who understand women are potentially perfect husbands, and that all potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite patience.
  • However, these premises do not state that there are any men who understand women or that there are any men who are potentially perfect husbands.
  • Therefore, the conclusion that some men of infinite patience exist is not supported by the premises.

Additional Information

  • Fallacy of Illicit Major occurs when the major term is distributed in the conclusion but not in the premises.
  • Fallacy of Illicit Minor occurs when the minor term is distributed in the conclusion but not in the premises.
  • Fallacy of Undistributed Middle occurs when the middle term is not distributed in either the premises or the conclusion.

Therefore, the fallacy committed in the argument is the Existential fallacy.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

If the yearly savings of C increases by 20%, then yearly savings of C is how much more/less than the yearly expenditure of B on Rent?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Yearly savings of C = (4500 x 12) = Rs. 54000
New increase savings of C = 120% of 54000 = Rs. 64800
Yearly expenditure on Rent of B = (5000 x 12) = Rs. 60000
Difference = (64800 - 60000) = Rs. 4800
Required percentage = (4800/60000) x 100 = 8%
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

What is the difference between the yearly savings of A and B together and C, D, and E together?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Step-by-Step Explanation:

  1. Calculate Monthly Savings for Each Person:

    • A: 27% of 20,000 = ₹5,400

    • B: 10% of 25,000 = ₹2,500

    • C: 30% of 15,000 = ₹4,500

    • D: 36% of 12,000 = ₹4,320

    • E: 18% of 18,000 = ₹3,240

  2. Convert Monthly Savings to Yearly:

    • A: ₹5,400 × 12 = ₹64,800

    • B: ₹2,500 × 12 = ₹30,000

    • C: ₹4,500 × 12 = ₹54,000

    • D: ₹4,320 × 12 = ₹51,840

    • E: ₹3,240 × 12 = ₹38,880

  3. Sum Yearly Savings:

    • A + B: ₹64,800 + ₹30,000 = ₹94,800

    • C + D + E: ₹54,000 + ₹51,840 + ₹38,880 = ₹144,720

  4. Calculate the Difference:
    ₹144,720 − ₹94,800 = ₹49,920

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

What is the sum of yearly expenditure on Entertainment of B, yearly expenditure on Travel of D and yearly savings of E?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Yearly expenditure on Entertainment of B = (12 x 10000) = Rs. 120000
Yearly expenditure on Travel of D = (12 x 2880) = Rs. 34560
Yearly savings of E = (12 x 3240) = Rs. 38880
Required sum = (120000 + 34560 + 38880) = Rs. 193440
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10
Which of the following are the characteristics of mass communication?

A. Delayed means of Communication

B. Heterogeneous Audience

C. Instant Feedback

D. Intermediary Channels

E. Wide and Vast Area.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The correct answer is B, D and E only.

Key Points Mass Communication:

  • Mass communication is the process of imparting and exchanging information through mass media to large population segments.
  • It utilizes various forms of media as technology has made the dissemination of information more efficient.
  • Primary examples of platforms utilized and examined include journalism and advertising.

Characteristics of Mass Communication:

Over the years, the impact of mass communication has increased drastically because of the improvements made. Hence, it’s crucial to know the main characteristics of mass media, and they are as follows:

  • It can appeal to a wide target audience;
  • It communicates a public message;
  • There’s a distance between a source of information and those who obtain it;
  • It can be transmitted through various channels, such as TV, the internet, radio, and newspapers;
  • It has a heterogeneous audience;
  • The news or information communicated through TV, radio, and print media can’t receive feedback.

Hence, the correct answer is Mass Communication.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
Which of the following Indian entities are not corporate partners with the international Solar Alliance Mission?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental treaty-based organization with a global mandate to catalyze solar growth by lowering funding and technological costs.

Key Points

  • The ISA aims to develop and deploy cost-effective and transformative solar-powered energy solutions to assist member countries in developing low-carbon growth paths.
  • ISA's collaborations with multilateral development banks, development finance institutions, corporate and public sector organizations, civil society, and other international organizations.
  • Some corporate partners of the International Solar Alliance Mission from India are mentioned below:
    • National Thermal Power corporation
    • Rural Electrification Corporation
    • Power grid corporation
    • India Trade Promotion Organisation
    • National Hydroelectric Power Corporation
    • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
    • Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited
    • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited
    • Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)

Thus, In the international Solar Alliance Mission, the National Thermal Power Corporation, Power grid corporation, Rural Electrification Corporation, and Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency entities are corporate Partners from India.

Additional Information

  • The only foreign corporate partner is SOFT Bank is a Japanese multinational conglomerate.
  • The ISA was conceived as a cooperative initiative between India and France to organize climate change efforts through the deployment of solar energy technologies.
  • It is an Indian initiative that was launched on the sidelines of the UNFCCC Conference of the Parties (COP-21) on November 30, 2015, in Paris.
  • The organization's headquarters are in India with an interim secretariat in Gurugram.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

The passage highlights

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

The correct answer is USA's research plan for Astronomy and need for international collaboration.
Key Points

  • Let's refer to the first and last paragraphs of the passage:
    • The United States is the world’s largest funder of astronomy and astrophysics.
    • This report (Decadal Survey) — a massive three-year, grass-roots effort that incorporates hundreds of white papers from thousands of astronomers — is essential reading for astronomers everywhere.
    • That’s because what the United States thinks and does has an impact on scientific priorities for other countries, whose astronomers are often very keen to work with the United States.
    • Crucially, the report also identifies opportunities for the United States to coordinate with other nations and space agencies on astronomical exploration.
  • ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the given passage highlights USA's research plan for Astronomy and need for international collaboration.

​Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

What does the latest 'decadal survey' emphasize ?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

The correct answer is Search for habitable worlds.
Key Points

  • Let's refer to the last paragraph of the passage:
    • ​The latest decadal survey makes it clear that the next decade’s priorities will include the search for habitable Earth-like worlds — and will require big facilities to pursue such themes.
  • ​From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the latest 'decadal survey' emphasizes the search for habitable worlds.

​Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
Which of the following defines the most about Adolescent learners and adult learners?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

The correct response is: Adolescent learners are more susceptible to peer pressure, while adult learners are less susceptible to peer pressure.

Key Points

  • The distinction between adolescent and adult learners primarily centers on their susceptibility to peer pressure and independence in learning. Adolescents are in a stage of identity formation, making them more prone to peer influence, which can significantly impact their learning behaviors, motivations, and attitudes.
  • Educators working with adolescents need strategies that leverage positive peer interactions and minimize negative influences, such as promoting collaborative learning and a positive classroom environment.
  • Adult learners, in contrast, have established identities and are more autonomous. Their learning is often driven by personal or professional goals, and they are less influenced by peers.
  • Adults value learning that is practical, self-directed, and applicable to their lives. For educators, this means prioritizing teaching methods that incorporate real-world applications and respecting the experiences and knowledge that adult learners bring to the learning process.

Additional Information

Cognitive Development
  • Adolescents: Still developing critical thinking and decision-making skills; education should involve structured guidance and challenge their problem-solving abilities.
  • Adults: Possess fully developed cognitive abilities; prefer to apply critical thinking to practical, real-life situations.
Emotional and Social Development
  • Adolescents: Navigating emotional and social complexities; educational environments should promote inclusivity, positive social interactions, and support identity exploration.
  • Adults: Generally more emotionally stable and independent; value education that respects their life experiences and pre-existing knowledge.
Learning Motivations and Goals
  • Adolescents: Motivations can be varied and influenced by external factors; engaging education connects material to their interests and real-life.
  • Adults: Self-motivated with specific goals; appreciate learning that is directly relevant and applicable to their personal and professional lives.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
Which of the following can be used for positive verbal reinforcement?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Events or consequences which strengthen behaviour when they are presented are called positive reinforcers. In negative reinforcement, the response causes the termination of a painful event. Removal of painful or unpleasant consequences can also strengthen or reinforce behaviour.

Key Points Types of Positive reinforcement:

There are many different forms of positive reinforcement, but some of the most common include:

  1. Verbal praise: This can be as simple as a “good job!” or as specific and detailed as complimenting the child on their hard work. Praise is an incredibly powerful way to nurture children’s sense of self-esteem, confidence, motivation, and more. Some of the other words that can be verbal positive reinforcers are: excellent, fair, and correct.
  2. A pat on the back: This can be used any time a child displays positive behaviour whether in public or private.
  3. Positive facial expressions: When a child does something good, give them a smile and/or positive facial expressions to show that you’re proud of them.
  4. Physical touch: A hug, high-five, handshake, or any other form of physical touch will let the child know that their actions made him happy.
  5. Smiling and nodding in approval: Smiling and nodding in approval is a non-verbal gesture for positive reinforcement.
  6. Gift giving: Giving a child an edible treat when they do something good, like brushing their teeth or cleaning up after themselves encourages them to do better.

Hence, it can be concluded that the words like excellent, fair, and correct can be used for positive verbal reinforcement.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
Which of the following is a limitation of Sabda?
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The correct response is option 4.

Explanation: All of the given options are limitations of Sabda. The source of the testimony may not be reliable, Sabda can only be used to acquire knowledge about things that we cannot know directly, and Sabda can be used to justify false beliefs.

Key Points

  • Sabda (Sanskrit: शब्द) is the Sanskrit word for "sound" or "word." In Indian logic, sabda refers to verbal testimony as a source of knowledge. It is one of the six pramanas (sources of knowledge) in Indian logic, along with pratyaksha (direct perception), anumana (inference), upamana (analogy), arthapaatti (postulation), and anupalabdhi (non-perception).
  • Sabda is considered to be a valid source of knowledge because it is based on the assumption that truthful people will speak the truth. However, it is important to note that sabda is only as reliable as the source of the testimony. If the person testifying is not reliable, then the knowledge acquired through sabda will also not be reliable.

Here are some examples of sabda:

  • Accepting the testimony of a reliable witness to an event that you did not witness yourself.
  • Reading a book written by an expert.
  • Listening to a lecture given by a qualified professor.
  • Following the instructions of a trusted religious teacher.

  • Sabda is an important source of knowledge in Indian logic because it allows us to acquire knowledge about things that we cannot know directly. For example, we cannot directly know the experiences of other people or the events that happened in the past. However, by accepting the testimony of reliable sources, we can gain knowledge about these things.
  • Sabda is also an important source of knowledge in Indian philosophy because it allows us to learn from the wisdom of the sages and saints of the past. The Vedas, the Upanishads, and other sacred scriptures are all considered to be sources of sabda. By studying these scriptures, we can gain insights into the nature of reality and the path to liberation.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
Class room teaching and directors meeting are the examples of:
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Exchange of information in order to make decisions, resolve confusion, build rapport and get closer to attaining the business goal is called Group communication.

Therefore, Classroom teaching and directors' meeting are examples of Group communication.

Additional Information

  • Mass communication is the communication of information from a person, a small group of people, or an organization to a large group of heterogeneous and anonymous people.
    • Examples of mass communication include commercial advertising, public relations, journalism, and political campaigning.
  • Intrapersonal communication can be defined as communication with one's self, and that may include self-talk, acts of imagination and visualization, and even recall and memory.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

In Indian logic, an argument is traditionally articulated in a five-part form known as:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

The correct answer is A. Panchavayava.

Key Points

  • Panchavayava refers to the five-part structure of an argument in classical Indian logic. It translates to "five members" and details the specific components considered essential for presenting a logical and coherent argument. These five parts are:
  • Pratyaksha (Perception): This refers to direct knowledge gained through the senses.
  • Anumana (Inference): This involves reasoning from a known premise to an unknown conclusion.
  • Upamana (Comparison): This uses similarities between two things to draw conclusions about one.
  • Shabda (Testimony): This relies on the knowledge of credible sources like experts or religious texts.
  • Arthapatti (Implication): This infers something based on its necessary consequences or the opposite being unacceptable.

The other options don't represent the five-part structure of an argument:

  • Nikaya: This refers to a collection or school of thought within Buddhism or Jainism.
  • Upamana: While an element of Panchavayava, it doesn't encompass the entire structure.
  • Sankhya: This is a specific school of Indian philosophy focused on dualistic realism, not a general argument structure.

Therefore, Panchavayava accurately captures the five-part form of an argument in Indian logic.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

According to NEP 2020, a critical objective of education would be to enhance among learners key 21st-century skills namely ________,________, _________, and _________.

A. critical thinking

B. vocational skills

C. creativity

D. cyber security awareness

E. multi-disciplinary awareness

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

The most appropriate answer is A, C, D, and E only.

Key Points

  • The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) emphasizes the importance of developing 21st-century skills among learners. These skills are essential for success in the rapidly changing world of work and life.
  • The NEP 2020 identifies the following as critical 21st-century skills:
    • Critical thinking and problem-solving
    • Creativity and innovation
    • Collaboration and teamwork
    • Communication and literacy
    • Information and communication technology (ICT) literacy
    • Digital citizenship
    • Global citizenship
    • Entrepreneurial and financial literacy
    • Environmental literacy
    • Health and well-being literacy
  • The answer choices A, C, D, and E all include critical 21st-century skills. Answer choice B, vocational skills, is an important skill, but it is not specifically mentioned as a critical 21st-century skill in the NEP 2020.

 

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is A, C, D, and E only.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

The correct sequence of the following steps in the communication process is:

A. Decoding

B. Feedback

C. Encoding

D. Transmission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

The correct sequence of the following steps in the communication process is:

C. Encoding D. Transmission A. Decoding B. Feedback

Key Points

  • The sender first encodes their message into a form that can be transmitted to the receiver.
  • This may involve translating the message into another language, converting it to a digital format, or simply choosing the right words.
  • Once the message has been encoded, it is transmitted to the receiver through a communication channel, such as speech, writing, or email.
  • The receiver then decodes the message and interprets it based on their own knowledge and experience.
  • Finally, the receiver may provide feedback to the sender to indicate whether they understood the message and whether they have any questions or comments.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The material and the efficient cause, according to Samkhya philosophy, are related as

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

Samkhya philosophy:

  • The word Samkhya is based upon the Sanskrit word samkhya which means ‘number’.
  • The school specifies the number and nature of the ultimate constituents of the universe and thereby imparts knowledge of reality.
  • In fact, the term Samkhya also means perfect knowledge.
  • Hence it is a system of perfect knowledge.

Key - Points
Characteristics of Samkhya Philosophy:

  • Samkhya is dualistic realism.
  • It is dualistic because it advocates two ultimate realities: Prakriti, matter and Purusha, self (spirit).
  • Samkhya is realism as it considers that both matter and spirit are equally real.
  • Samkhya is pluralistic also because of its teaching that Purusha is not one but many.
  • Samkhya adopts a consistent dualism of matter (prakriti) and the eternal spirit (purusha).
  • The two are originally separate, but in the course of evolution purusha mistakenly identifies itself with aspects of prakriti.
  • Right knowledge consists of the ability of purusha to distinguish itself from prakriti.

Hence, it is clear from the above discussion that the matter and the efficient cause are different in Samkhya philosophy.
Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

From the following identify those which illustrate the fallacy of the irregular middle ?
A. Ashrayasidha
B. Asadharna
C. Vyapyatvasidha
D. Sadharna
E. Anupasamhari
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Meaning of fallacy

  • The fallacy is the English term, which means Hetvabhasa in Sanskrit.
  • In other words, in Indian logic, a fallacy is called Hetvabhasa.
  • A fallacy occurs when the middle term appears to be the reason but it is not a valid reason.
  • There are five kinds of fallacies according to Nyaya school.
  • All five fallacies are regarded as material fallacies.
  • Material fallacies occur when the reasoning is unsound because of an error concerning the subject matter of the argument.

Key-Point
Savyabhicara Hetvabhasa:

  • It is also known as anaikantika.
  • It is also called the fallacy of irregular middle term.
  • It is of three kind: Sadharna, Asadharna and Anupasamhari


Important Points
The five kinds of fallacies are:
​Asiddha Hetvabhasa:

  • Also known as Sadhyasama.
  • It is the fallacy of unproved middle term.
  • It occurs when the middle term is not present in the minor term.
  • It is further divided into three kind Ashryasiddha, Svarupasiddha, and Vyapvyatvasiddha

Hence, B, D, and E are correct options.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Computer based trainings (CBTs) are learning activities that a trainee can study at his own pace.

Statements II: CBTs typically present content in a linear structure.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Key Points

Statement I: Computer-based training (CBTs) are learning activities that a trainee can study at his own pace.

  • Computer-based training (CBTs) refers to any form of training or educational materials delivered through a computer.
  • These learning activities can be completed by trainees at their own pace, making them ideal for self-paced learning.
  • Computer-based training (CBT) is a form of self-paced learning activities delivered through a computer, which can include online courses, software tutorials, compliance training, simulations, gamification, and language learning.

Hence statement I is true.

Statements II: CBTs typically present content in a linear structure.

  • Additionally, CBTs are typically presented in a linear structure, meaning that the content is organized in a specific order that the trainee follows.
  • This ensures that the trainee receives the information in a logical sequence that builds upon previously learned concepts.

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore, the statements I and II are both accurate and related to the characteristics of CBTs.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Which of the following is a physical/environmental barrier to communication?

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Key Points
Effective Communication can face multiple barriers. Some types of communication barriers are as follows-

  • Organizational Barriers-The Organizational Barriers refer to the hindrances in the flow of information among the employees that might result in a commercial failure of an organization.
  • Physical Barriers-Physical barriers are structural obstructions in both man-made and natural environments that prevent effective communication by preventing messages from being transferred from sender to receiver.
  • Psychological Barriers-Psychological barriers are due to the emotional character and mental limitations of human beings. These barriers result in absent-mindedness, the fear of expressing one’s ideas to others, excitement, and emotional instability—all accounting for an overwhelming number of communication problems.
  • Mechanical Barriers-Mechanical communication barriers are technical sources of interference in the communication process. A mechanical barrier stems from a problem in machinery or instruments used to transmit the message

Important Points
Time is a physical/environmental barrier to communication
. Different time zones of the sender and receiver not only cause a problem in communication but there is also a concept of time separation that takes place. Coordination can breakdown over as little as differences in lunchtimes and work hours across teams.

Therefore, the correct answer is Time.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

An entity that has the power to express some meaning is termed as ________ in Indian logic.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Theory of knowledge in Nyaya philosophy

  • Knowledge, according to Nyaya, reveals both the subject and the object which are quite distinct from itself.
  • Pramana is valid means of knowledge. ' Nyaya accepts four valid means of knowledge viz. perception (pratyaksha), inference (anumana), testimony (shabda), and comparison (upmana).

Key Points
Sabda:

  • A sentence that is a means of valid knowledge is called verbal testimony.
  • It is the fourth kind of valid knowledge in Nyaya philosophy, it is called Sabda or agama or authoritative verbal testimony.
  • It is defined as the statement of a trustworthy person (aptavakya) and consists in understanding its meaning.
  • A sentence is defined as a collection of words and a word is defined as that which is potent to convey its meaning.
  • The power in a word to convey its meaning comes, according to ancient Nyaya, from God, and according to later Nyaya, from the long-established convention.
  • Verbal testimony can be classified into two,Vaidika and secular (laukika).
  • An entity that has the power to express some meaning is termed as sabda.
  • For example, water the plant

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Additional Information
Pratyakṣa (perception):

  • It occupies the foremost position in the Nyaya epistemology.
  • Perception can be of two types, laukika (ordinary) and alaukika (extraordinary).

Anumāna (inference):

  • It is one of the most important contributions of the Nyaya.
  • It can be of two types: inference for oneself, and inference for others.
  • Inference can also be classified into 3 types:
    • Purvavat (inferring an unperceived effect from a perceived cause),
    • Sheshavat (inferring an unperceived cause from a perceived effect), and
    • Samanyatodrishta (when inference is not based on causation but on the uniformity of co-existence).

Upamāna:

  • Upamāna means comparison and analogy.
  • The knowledge is drawn from the similarity between two objects
  • Upamana, states Lochtefeld, may be explained with the example of a traveller who has never visited lands or islands with an endemic population of wildlife.
  • He or she is told, by someone who has been there, that in those lands you see an animal that sort of looks like a cow, grazes like a cow but is different from a cow in such and such way.
  • Such use of analogy and comparison is, state the Indian epistemologists, a valid means of conditional knowledge, as it helps the traveler identify the new animal later.
  • So, Upamana is the knowledge of the relation of the name and the object or the thing denoted by that name. In other words, it is produced by the knowledge of similarity.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) (Amendment) Rules the noise level at the boundary of the public place where a loudspeaker or public address system is being used the sound should not exceed ______ at night
Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

The correct answer is 10 dB

Key Points The Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) (Amendment) Rules, 2010

These rules provide the terms and conditions necessary to reduce noise pollution and allow the use of loudspeakers or public address systems at night (between 10:00 p.m. and 12:00 a.m.) on or during any cultural or religious celebratory event.

Following are the salient features of the amendment:

  • At night, a loudspeaker, any sound producing device, or a sound amplifier may be used only in closed premises for internal communication, such as auditoriums, conference rooms, community halls, or banquet halls, or in the event of a public emergency.
  • The noise level at the boundary of a public place where a loudspeaker or public address system is being used should not exceed 10 db above the ambient noise requirements of that region, or 75 db, whichever is lower.
  • No horn shall be used in silence zones or residential areas at night except in emergency situations.
  • Sound emitting construction equipments shall not be operated during night.
  • In the heading ‘PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM’ the words ‘AND SOUND PRODUCING SYSTEMS’ shall be inserted.
UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The example (udahāran) is a special feature of the Nyāya syllogism and it illustrates the truth that the universal major premise is the result of a real induction.
Statement II : Induction in Nyāya conception of inference is based on the law of causation and induction and deduction cannot really be separated.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Nyaya school is one of the six astika schools of Indian Philosophy. This school's most significant contributions to Indian philosophy were the systematic development of the theory of logic, methodology, etc
Key Points

  • According to Nyaya Philosophy, nothing is acceptable unless it is in accordance with reason and experience (scientific approach).
  • Nyaya is regarded as a logical thinking technique.

Important Points
Statement I
: The example (udahāran) is a special feature of the Nyaya syllogism and it illustrates the truth that the universal major premise is the result of a real induction.

  • Inductive reasoning is a method of reasoning in which a body of observations is analyzed to come up with a general principle. It consists of making broad generalizations based on specific observations. Inductive reasoning is distinct from deductive reasoning.
  • If the premises are correct, the conclusion of a deductive argument is certain; in contrast, the truth of the conclusion of an inductive argument is probable, based upon the evidence given.

Thus statement I is true.
Statement II
: Induction in Nyaya's conception of inference is based on the law of causation and induction and deduction cannot really be separated

  • Inference literally means knowledge that follows some other knowledge. Nyāya philosophy considers inference as the second source of valid knowledge.
  • Inferential knowledge can be explained with the typical example of inferring the presence of fire from the perception of smoke.

Thus, this statement II is true.
Hence, both statements I and II are correct.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

Match items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

The correct match between the items of List-I and List II is:(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
Important Points

Therefore The correct match between the items of List-I and List II is:(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Assertion (A): Mass communication is more effective in reaching a large audience than interpersonal communication.

Reason (R): Mass communication utilizes mass media channels to disseminate information to a broad range of people, while interpersonal communication is limited to face-to-face interactions between two individuals.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

The correct answer is that both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Mass communication is indeed more effective in reaching a large audience than interpersonal communication. This is because mass communication utilizes mass media channels, such as television, radio, newspapers, and the internet, to disseminate information to a broad range of people. These channels have the potential to reach millions of people simultaneously, making them far more effective than interpersonal communication in terms of sheer reach.
  • Interpersonal communication, on the other hand, is limited to face-to-face interactions between two individuals. While this form of communication can be highly effective in building personal relationships and fostering understanding, it is simply not as effective as mass communication in terms of reaching a large audience.

Therefore, statement A is true, and statement R is a correct explanation of why A is true. Mass communication's ability to utilize mass media channels makes it far more effective in reaching a large audience than interpersonal communication, which is limited to face-to-face interactions between two individuals.

Additional Information

Mass media communication is the process of transmitting information to a large audience through various media channels. These channels can be broadly categorized into four main types: print, broadcast, digital, and out-of-home.

  • Print media is the oldest form of mass media and includes newspapers, magazines, books, and comic books. Print media is characterized by its permanence and portability, making it a good medium for in-depth information and analysis.
  • Broadcast media includes television, radio, and streaming services. Broadcast media is characterized by its ability to reach a large audience quickly and simultaneously.
  • Digital media includes websites, social media, and mobile apps. Digital media is characterized by its interactivity and potential for personalization.
  • Out-of-home media includes billboards, bus ads, and subway posters. Out-of-home media is characterized by its ability to reach a large audience with a brief, impactful message.

UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Read the given statement and the arguments carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options.

Statement:

“If waste management capabilities of Hospital X are dealt with, we will definitely win the ‘excellence in service’ award for year 22-23.” One of the board of directors from Hospital X.

Arguments:

I. In four separate incidents in the year 22-23, 15 patients lost their lives and 46 were injured due to various incidents such as fire breakout in ICU, lack of oxygen etc.

Il. Hospital A located in the nearby city has won ‘excellence in service’ award for a record five times.

Detailed Solution for UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

The correct answer is I weakens while II is a neutral argument.Key Points

  • Argument I weakens the statement because it highlights a major issue in the hospital's operations that needs to be addressed immediately.
  • The hospital cannot receive an award for excellence in service if patients are losing their lives due to preventable incidents.
  • Argument II is a neutral argument as it does not provide any relevant information that supports or weakens the statement.
  • The fact that another hospital has won the award five times does not impact Hospital X's chances of winning the award if they address their waste management capabilities.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "I weakens while II is a neutral argument."
  • In summary, the statement suggests that if Hospital X improves its waste management capabilities, they will win the 'excellence in service' award for year 22-23.

Additional Information

  • Waste management refers to the process of collecting, transporting, processing, recycling, and disposing of waste materials.
  • The "7R" approach—"R'efuse, 'R'educe, 'R'euse, 'R'epair, 'R'epurpose, 'R'ecycle, and 'R'ecover—is essential to effective "waste management."
  • The 'excellence in service' award is likely a recognition given to hospitals that provide exceptional healthcare services to their patients.
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