UGC NET Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - UGC NET MCQ

The correct response is Grammatical errors and poor sentence structure.

Key Points

• While grammatical errors and poor sentence structure might make a message harder to understand, they don't directly impact the meaning or interpretation of words and concepts. They primarily affect the clarity and delivery of the message.
• Semantic barriers, on the other hand, deal with the misunderstanding of the meaning itself due to factors like ambiguity, cultural references, or specialized vocabulary.

Additional Information

• (1) Ambiguity and multiple interpretations of words: This is a very common semantic barrier. Words can have multiple meanings or unclear connotations, leading to confusion and miscommunication.
• (2) Differences in cultural references and background knowledge: Assumptions about shared cultural understanding can lead to misunderstandings based on unfamiliar references or concepts. This is another major form of semantic barrier.
• (3) Technical jargon and specialized vocabulary: When unfamiliar technical terms or industry-specific language is used, it can create obstacles for understanding, especially for those not familiar with the jargon.

Important Points
A semantic barrier in communication refers to any obstacle that hinders the accurate understanding and interpretation of a message between sender and receiver. It's not about simply not hearing or processing what someone says, but about misunderstanding the meaning because of various factors.

Causes:

• Ambiguity: Words can have multiple meanings or unclear connotations, leading to confusion and different interpretations. For example, "literally" can be used figuratively and literally, potentially causing misunderstandings.
• Cultural differences: Cultural references, background knowledge, and social norms can differ significantly between individuals or groups, leading to misinterpretations of jokes, sarcasm, or even everyday statements.
• Technical jargon or specialized vocabulary: Using terms specific to a profession or field can be confusing for those who aren't familiar with the terminology, creating a barrier to understanding.
• Non-verbal cues: Misreading facial expressions, gestures, or tone of voice can alter the intended meaning of the message.
• Preconceived notions and biases: Personal perspectives and prejudices can influence how we interpret information, leading to misinterpretations based on existing assumptions.

Impact:

Miscommunication: Semantic barriers can lead to misunderstandings, disagreements, and even conflicts if the message is not properly understood.
Decreased efficiency: Misinterpretations can waste time and effort as people try to clarify the meaning and correct misunderstandings.
Frustration and dissatisfaction: Both the sender and receiver can become frustrated and dissatisfied if the message is not adequately conveyed or understood.
Overcoming Semantic Barriers:

• Clear and concise communication: Using simple language, avoiding jargon, and explaining unfamiliar terms can help prevent misunderstandings.
• Active listening: Paying close attention to the message, both verbal and non-verbal, and asking clarifying questions to ensure understanding.
• Empathy and cultural sensitivity: Trying to understand the sender's perspective and taking into account cultural differences can help avoid misinterpretations.
• Feedback and clarification: Encouraging two-way communication, requesting feedback, and being open to clarifications can help ensure the message is received and understood correctly.

• The fallacy of composition is committed when someone assumes that something that is true for the parts of a group is also true for the whole group.
• In this case, the person is assuming that because all the parts of the car are made of metal, then the whole car is made of metal.
• However, this is not necessarily true. The car may have other parts, such as plastic or glass, that are not made of metal.
• The fallacy of division occurs when someone assumes that something that is true for the whole group is also true for the parts of the group.
• The false dilemma fallacy occurs when someone presents two options as the only possible choices, when in reality there are other options available.
• The straw man fallacy occurs when someone distorts an opponent's argument to make it easier to attack.

The correct answer is 'Soil contamination that affects crop growth.'

Key Points

• Soil contamination that affects crop growth:
  • Soil contamination refers to the presence of toxic chemicals in the soil, commonly due to the application of pesticides and fertilizers.
  • This contamination can significantly reduce soil fertility, leading to lower crop yields and impaired quality of produce, directly affecting farm income and local food supply.
  • Contaminants can include heavy metals, persistent organic pollutants, and pesticide residues, which can enter the food chain, posing health risks to humans and animals.
  • In rural communities that depend on agriculture for their livelihood, poor soil health can result in food insecurity and economic instability.

Additional Information

• Reduced insect populations that pollinate crops:
  • Pollinators like bees and butterflies are essential for the production of many fruits, vegetables, and nuts.
  • While reduced pollination can lead to lower crop yields, efforts can be made to introduce alternative pollination methods such as managed pollinator services or promoting wild pollinators.
  • The decline of pollinators is critical, but the impact can sometimes be mitigated through human intervention and technology.
• Loss of aquatic insect populations that are a food source for fish:
  • Aquatic insects play a key role in freshwater ecosystems, providing a primary food source for fish.
  • The decline in these insect populations can disrupt aquatic food chains and impact local fisheries.
  • However, this effect is more localized to water bodies and may not have as direct of an impact on terrestrial farming communities compared to soil contamination.
• Decreased bird populations that control insect pests:
  • Birds help in controlling insect pests that can damage crops, reducing the need for chemical pesticides.
  • While their loss can lead to increased pest-related crop damage, other pest management strategies can sometimes be implemented to counterbalance this effect.
  • This issue is significant but often more manageable compared to the pervasive impact of soil contamination.

Important Points

• Long-term soil health is crucial for sustainable agriculture. Organic farming and integrated pest management (IPM) are strategies that can help improve and maintain soil fertility over time.
• Regular soil testing and monitoring can help detect contamination early and mitigate its effects through appropriate remediation techniques.
• Community education and support for sustainable farming practices are vital in ensuring the long-term prosperity and health of rural agricultural communities.

A teacher is a facilitator who tries to satisfy the educational needs of the learners in such a manner that they play an important and positive role in the upliftment of society. Thus, a great responsibility lies on the shoulders of teachers— the future of any society.
Key Points

Hence, if a teacher helps you, the student should also help in return when required in the future.

• The existential fallacy occurs when the conclusion of an argument asserts the existence of something that is not explicitly stated in the premises.
• In this case, the conclusion asserts that some men of infinite patience exist, even though the premises do not explicitly state this.
• The premises of the argument state that all men who understand women are potentially perfect husbands, and that all potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite patience.
• However, these premises do not state that there are any men who understand women or that there are any men who are potentially perfect husbands.
• Therefore, the conclusion that some men of infinite patience exist is not supported by the premises.

Additional Information

• Fallacy of Illicit Major occurs when the major term is distributed in the conclusion but not in the premises.
• Fallacy of Illicit Minor occurs when the minor term is distributed in the conclusion but not in the premises.
• Fallacy of Undistributed Middle occurs when the middle term is not distributed in either the premises or the conclusion.

Therefore, the fallacy committed in the argument is the Existential fallacy.

• Pollution occurs when a substance present in the environment prevents the functioning of natural processes and produces harmful environmental and health effects.
• In the natural world, many substances accumulating in the environment are processed through the intricate network of biogeochemical cycles.

Key Points

Thus, the correct match is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (V), (E) - (I)

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Monthly savings of D = Rs. 4320
Yearly savings = (12 x 4320) = Rs. 51840
Monthly savings of A = Rs. 5400
Yearly savings = (12 x 5400) = Rs. 64800
Required ratio = 51840 : 64800 i.e. 4 : 5
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Yearly expenditure on Rent and Travel of A and B together = (3000 + 5000 + 4800 + 7500) x 12 = Rs. 243600
Yearly expenditure on Entertainment and Travel of D and E together = (2640 + 3960 + 2880 + 5400) x 12 = Rs. 178560
Required percentage = (243600/178560) x 100 = 136. 42% ≈ 137%
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Yearly savings of A and B together = (5400 + 2500) x 12 = Rs. 94800
Yearly savings of C, D, and E together = (4500 + 4320 + 3240) x 12 = Rs. 144720
Required difference = (144720 - 94800) = Rs. 49920
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Solution:
From the table and note, we get:

Yearly expenditure on Entertainment of B = (12 x 10000) = Rs. 120000
Yearly expenditure on Travel of D = (12 x 2880) = Rs. 34560
Yearly savings of E = (12 x 3240) = Rs. 38880
Required sum = (120000 + 34560 + 38880) = Rs. 193440
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Active learning:

• Active learning involves students directly and encourages them to think, problem-solve, collaborate, and generally engage more deeply with the material.
• Thus, teaching methods that encourage active learning include:
  • Discussion groups (2): These allow for the exchange of ideas, debating, and learning from different viewpoints.
  • Problem-based learning (3): Students learn about a subject by solving an open-ended problem found in trigger material.
  • Collaborative projects (5): When students work together on a project, they learn from each other, problem-solve together, and synthesize different perspectives.
  • Flipped classroom (6): This method, in which students learn the material beforehand and use class time for problem-solving and discussion, promotes active participation.
• While lectures (1) and the drill and practice method (4) have their place in education, they largely involve passive learning, as they do not necessarily require students to engage actively with the material.

Therefore, the correct answer would be: (2), (3), (5), (6)

The correct answer is B, D and E only.

Key Points Mass Communication:

• Mass communication is the process of imparting and exchanging information through mass media to large population segments.
• It utilizes various forms of media as technology has made the dissemination of information more efficient.
• Primary examples of platforms utilized and examined include journalism and advertising.

Characteristics of Mass Communication:

Over the years, the impact of mass communication has increased drastically because of the improvements made. Hence, it’s crucial to know the main characteristics of mass media, and they are as follows:

• It can appeal to a wide target audience;
• It communicates a public message;
• There’s a distance between a source of information and those who obtain it;
• It can be transmitted through various channels, such as TV, the internet, radio, and newspapers;
• It has a heterogeneous audience;
• The news or information communicated through TV, radio, and print media can’t receive feedback.

Hence, the correct answer is Mass Communication.

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental treaty-based organization with a global mandate to catalyze solar growth by lowering funding and technological costs.

Key Points

• The ISA aims to develop and deploy cost-effective and transformative solar-powered energy solutions to assist member countries in developing low-carbon growth paths.
• ISA's collaborations with multilateral development banks, development finance institutions, corporate and public sector organizations, civil society, and other international organizations.
• Some corporate partners of the International Solar Alliance Mission from India are mentioned below:
  • National Thermal Power corporation
  • Rural Electrification Corporation
  • Power grid corporation
  • India Trade Promotion Organisation
  • National Hydroelectric Power Corporation
  • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited
  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited
  • Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)

Thus, In the international Solar Alliance Mission, the National Thermal Power Corporation, Power grid corporation, Rural Electrification Corporation, and Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency entities are corporate Partners from India.

Additional Information

• The only foreign corporate partner is SOFT Bank is a Japanese multinational conglomerate.
• The ISA was conceived as a cooperative initiative between India and France to organize climate change efforts through the deployment of solar energy technologies.
• It is an Indian initiative that was launched on the sidelines of the UNFCCC Conference of the Parties (COP-21) on November 30, 2015, in Paris.
• The organization's headquarters are in India with an interim secretariat in Gurugram.

The correct answer is Plan for investment in Astronomy.
Key Points

• Let's refer to the first paragraph of the passage:
  • Issued by the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NASEM) , the ‘decadal survey’ of astronomy lays out a 10-year plan for the nation’s investments in astronomy and astrophysics, which run to more than US$2 billion annually.
• From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that NASEM lays out plans for investments in Astronomy in its 'decadal survey'.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'NASA & ESA'.
Key Points

• Let's refer to second paragraph of the passage:
  • Hubble (Hubble Space Telescope) combines the forces of NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).
• ​From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the Hubble Space Telescope is the result of the collaboration between NASA & ESA.

​Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Search for habitable worlds.
Key Points

• Let's refer to the last paragraph of the passage:
  • ​The latest decadal survey makes it clear that the next decade’s priorities will include the search for habitable Earth-like worlds — and will require big facilities to pursue such themes.
• ​From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the latest 'decadal survey' emphasizes the search for habitable worlds.

​Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'It has an influence on the scientific community of other countries'.
Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage :
  • Issued by the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NASEM) , the ‘decadal survey’ of astronomy lays out a 10-year plan for the nation’s investments in astronomy and astrophysics, which run to more than US$2 billion annually.
  • This report — a massive three-year, grass-roots effort that incorporates hundreds of white papers from thousands of astronomers — is essential reading for astronomers everywhere.
  • That’s because what the United States thinks and does has an impact on scientific priorities for other countries, whose astronomers are often very keen to work with the United States.
• ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the 'decadal survey' report is important as it has an influence on the scientific community of other countries .

​Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct response is: Adolescent learners are more susceptible to peer pressure, while adult learners are less susceptible to peer pressure.

Key Points

• ​The distinction between adolescent and adult learners primarily centers on their susceptibility to peer pressure and independence in learning. Adolescents are in a stage of identity formation, making them more prone to peer influence, which can significantly impact their learning behaviors, motivations, and attitudes.
• Educators working with adolescents need strategies that leverage positive peer interactions and minimize negative influences, such as promoting collaborative learning and a positive classroom environment.
• Adult learners, in contrast, have established identities and are more autonomous. Their learning is often driven by personal or professional goals, and they are less influenced by peers.
• Adults value learning that is practical, self-directed, and applicable to their lives. For educators, this means prioritizing teaching methods that incorporate real-world applications and respecting the experiences and knowledge that adult learners bring to the learning process.

Additional Information

Exchange of information in order to make decisions, resolve confusion, build rapport and get closer to attaining the business goal is called Group communication.

Therefore, Classroom teaching and directors' meeting are examples of Group communication.

Additional Information

• Mass communication is the communication of information from a person, a small group of people, or an organization to a large group of heterogeneous and anonymous people.
  • Examples of mass communication include commercial advertising, public relations, journalism, and political campaigning.
• Intrapersonal communication can be defined as communication with one's self, and that may include self-talk, acts of imagination and visualization, and even recall and memory.

The most appropriate answer is A, C, D, and E only.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) emphasizes the importance of developing 21st-century skills among learners. These skills are essential for success in the rapidly changing world of work and life.
• The NEP 2020 identifies the following as critical 21st-century skills:
  • Critical thinking and problem-solving
  • Creativity and innovation
  • Collaboration and teamwork
  • Communication and literacy
  • Information and communication technology (ICT) literacy
  • Digital citizenship
  • Global citizenship
  • Entrepreneurial and financial literacy
  • Environmental literacy
  • Health and well-being literacy
• The answer choices A, C, D, and E all include critical 21st-century skills. Answer choice B, vocational skills, is an important skill, but it is not specifically mentioned as a critical 21st-century skill in the NEP 2020.

Therefore, the most appropriate answer is A, C, D, and E only.

The correct sequence of the following steps in the communication process is:

C. Encoding D. Transmission A. Decoding B. Feedback

Key Points

• The sender first encodes their message into a form that can be transmitted to the receiver.
• This may involve translating the message into another language, converting it to a digital format, or simply choosing the right words.
• Once the message has been encoded, it is transmitted to the receiver through a communication channel, such as speech, writing, or email.
• The receiver then decodes the message and interprets it based on their own knowledge and experience.
• Finally, the receiver may provide feedback to the sender to indicate whether they understood the message and whether they have any questions or comments.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Samkhya philosophy:

• The word Samkhya is based upon the Sanskrit word samkhya which means ‘number’.
• The school specifies the number and nature of the ultimate constituents of the universe and thereby imparts knowledge of reality.
• In fact, the term Samkhya also means perfect knowledge.
• Hence it is a system of perfect knowledge.

Key - Points
Characteristics of Samkhya Philosophy:

• Samkhya is dualistic realism.
• It is dualistic because it advocates two ultimate realities: Prakriti, matter and Purusha, self (spirit).
• Samkhya is realism as it considers that both matter and spirit are equally real.
• Samkhya is pluralistic also because of its teaching that Purusha is not one but many.
• Samkhya adopts a consistent dualism of matter (prakriti) and the eternal spirit (purusha).
• The two are originally separate, but in the course of evolution purusha mistakenly identifies itself with aspects of prakriti.
• Right knowledge consists of the ability of purusha to distinguish itself from prakriti.

Hence, it is clear from the above discussion that the matter and the efficient cause are different in Samkhya philosophy.
Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct response is All of these.
Key Points
I. In 2000, world leaders established the MDGs in New York.

• In 2000, world leaders gathered at the United Nations headquarters in New York for the Millennium Summit, one of the largest assemblies of global leaders at the time.
• During this summit, attended by representatives from 189 countries, the United Nations Millennium Declaration was adopted.
• This declaration led to the establishment of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), a set of eight specific targets aimed at addressing some of the world's most pressing issues, including poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy, environmental degradation, and gender inequality.
• The MDGs provided a unified and quantifiable framework designed to improve global conditions with a clear deadline set for 2015.

II. These were the time-bound targets with a deadline of 2020.

• In September 2000, eight Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were adopted to drive the global development agenda.
• The goals – focusing on poverty, education, gender equality, child mortality, maternal health, disease, the environment, and global partnerships – expire in 2015.
• The MDGs are drawn from the actions and targets contained in the Millennium Declaration that was adopted by 189 nations and signed by 147 heads of state and governments during the UN Millennium Summit in September 2000. The eight MDGs break down into 21 quantifiable targets that are measured by 60 indicators.

III. Later MDGs were replaced by the Sustainable Developments Goals.

• The Rio+20 conference (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) in Rio de Janeiro, June 2012, galvanized a process to develop a new set of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) which will carry on the momentum generated by the MDGs and fit into a global development framework beyond 2015.
• SDGs are the successor to the MDGs.
• The MDG targets for 2015 were set to get us “halfway” to the goal of ending hunger and poverty, with similar proportional goals in other fields. The SDGs are designed to finish the job – to get to a statistical “zero” on hunger, poverty, preventable child deaths, and other targets.
• Sustainable Development Goals Officially Adopted by 193 Countries.

Additional Information
The eight Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) – which range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education, all by the target date of 2015 – form a blueprint agreed to by all the world's countries and all the world's leading development institutions.
The 8 Millennium Development Goals

1. Eradicate Extreme Poverty and Hunger: Halve the number of people living on less than $1.25 a day and those suffering from hunger.
2. Achieve Universal Primary Education: Ensure that all children, both boys and girls, complete primary schooling.
3. Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women: Eliminate gender disparity in education at all levels.
4. Reduce Child Mortality: Reduce the under-five child mortality rate by two-thirds.
5. Improve Maternal Health: Reduce the maternal mortality ratio by three-quarters and improve access to reproductive health.
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria, and Other Diseases: Halt and reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS and other major diseases.
7. Ensure Environmental Sustainability: Integrate sustainable development into policies, reduce the rate of biodiversity loss, and improve access to drinking water and sanitation.
8. Develop a Global Partnership for Development: Create a global partnership for development, addressing issues like trade, debt relief, and access to essential medicines and new technologies.

Meaning of fallacy

• The fallacy is the English term, which means Hetvabhasa in Sanskrit.
• In other words, in Indian logic, a fallacy is called Hetvabhasa.
• A fallacy occurs when the middle term appears to be the reason but it is not a valid reason.
• There are five kinds of fallacies according to Nyaya school.
• All five fallacies are regarded as material fallacies.
• Material fallacies occur when the reasoning is unsound because of an error concerning the subject matter of the argument.

Key-Point
Savyabhicara Hetvabhasa:

• It is also known as anaikantika.
• It is also called the fallacy of irregular middle term.
• It is of three kind: Sadharna, Asadharna and Anupasamhari

Important Points
The five kinds of fallacies are:
​Asiddha Hetvabhasa:

• Also known as Sadhyasama.
• It is the fallacy of unproved middle term.
• It occurs when the middle term is not present in the minor term.
• It is further divided into three kind Ashryasiddha, Svarupasiddha, and Vyapvyatvasiddha

Hence, B, D, and E are correct options.

Statement I: Computer-based training (CBTs) are learning activities that a trainee can study at his own pace.

• Computer-based training (CBTs) refers to any form of training or educational materials delivered through a computer.
• These learning activities can be completed by trainees at their own pace, making them ideal for self-paced learning.
• Computer-based training (CBT) is a form of self-paced learning activities delivered through a computer, which can include online courses, software tutorials, compliance training, simulations, gamification, and language learning.

Hence statement I is true.

Statements II: CBTs typically present content in a linear structure.

• Additionally, CBTs are typically presented in a linear structure, meaning that the content is organized in a specific order that the trainee follows.
• This ensures that the trainee receives the information in a logical sequence that builds upon previously learned concepts.

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore, the statements I and II are both accurate and related to the characteristics of CBTs.

Key Points
Effective Communication can face multiple barriers. Some types of communication barriers are as follows-

• Organizational Barriers-The Organizational Barriers refer to the hindrances in the flow of information among the employees that might result in a commercial failure of an organization.
• Physical Barriers-Physical barriers are structural obstructions in both man-made and natural environments that prevent effective communication by preventing messages from being transferred from sender to receiver.
• Psychological Barriers-Psychological barriers are due to the emotional character and mental limitations of human beings. These barriers result in absent-mindedness, the fear of expressing one’s ideas to others, excitement, and emotional instability—all accounting for an overwhelming number of communication problems.
• Mechanical Barriers-Mechanical communication barriers are technical sources of interference in the communication process. A mechanical barrier stems from a problem in machinery or instruments used to transmit the message

Important Points
Time is a physical/environmental barrier to communication. Different time zones of the sender and receiver not only cause a problem in communication but there is also a concept of time separation that takes place. Coordination can breakdown over as little as differences in lunchtimes and work hours across teams.

Therefore, the correct answer is Time.

Theory of knowledge in Nyaya philosophy

• Knowledge, according to Nyaya, reveals both the subject and the object which are quite distinct from itself.
• Pramana is valid means of knowledge. ' Nyaya accepts four valid means of knowledge viz. perception (pratyaksha), inference (anumana), testimony (shabda), and comparison (upmana).

Key Points
Sabda:

• A sentence that is a means of valid knowledge is called verbal testimony.
• It is the fourth kind of valid knowledge in Nyaya philosophy, it is called Sabda or agama or authoritative verbal testimony.
• It is defined as the statement of a trustworthy person (aptavakya) and consists in understanding its meaning.
• A sentence is defined as a collection of words and a word is defined as that which is potent to convey its meaning.
• The power in a word to convey its meaning comes, according to ancient Nyaya, from God, and according to later Nyaya, from the long-established convention.
• Verbal testimony can be classified into two,Vaidika and secular (laukika).
• An entity that has the power to express some meaning is termed as sabda.
• For example, water the plant

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Additional Information
Pratyakṣa (perception):

• It occupies the foremost position in the Nyaya epistemology.
• Perception can be of two types, laukika (ordinary) and alaukika (extraordinary).

Anumāna (inference):

• It is one of the most important contributions of the Nyaya.
• It can be of two types: inference for oneself, and inference for others.
• Inference can also be classified into 3 types:
  • Purvavat (inferring an unperceived effect from a perceived cause),
  • Sheshavat (inferring an unperceived cause from a perceived effect), and
  • Samanyatodrishta (when inference is not based on causation but on the uniformity of co-existence).

Upamāna:

• Upamāna means comparison and analogy.
• The knowledge is drawn from the similarity between two objects
• Upamana, states Lochtefeld, may be explained with the example of a traveller who has never visited lands or islands with an endemic population of wildlife.
• He or she is told, by someone who has been there, that in those lands you see an animal that sort of looks like a cow, grazes like a cow but is different from a cow in such and such way.
• Such use of analogy and comparison is, state the Indian epistemologists, a valid means of conditional knowledge, as it helps the traveler identify the new animal later.
• So, Upamana is the knowledge of the relation of the name and the object or the thing denoted by that name. In other words, it is produced by the knowledge of similarity.

The correct answer is 10 dB

Key Points The Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) (Amendment) Rules, 2010

These rules provide the terms and conditions necessary to reduce noise pollution and allow the use of loudspeakers or public address systems at night (between 10:00 p.m. and 12:00 a.m.) on or during any cultural or religious celebratory event.

Following are the salient features of the amendment:

• At night, a loudspeaker, any sound producing device, or a sound amplifier may be used only in closed premises for internal communication, such as auditoriums, conference rooms, community halls, or banquet halls, or in the event of a public emergency.
• The noise level at the boundary of a public place where a loudspeaker or public address system is being used should not exceed 10 db above the ambient noise requirements of that region, or 75 db, whichever is lower.
• No horn shall be used in silence zones or residential areas at night except in emergency situations.
• Sound emitting construction equipments shall not be operated during night.
• In the heading ‘PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM’ the words ‘AND SOUND PRODUCING SYSTEMS’ shall be inserted.

The correct answer is that both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• Mass communication is indeed more effective in reaching a large audience than interpersonal communication. This is because mass communication utilizes mass media channels, such as television, radio, newspapers, and the internet, to disseminate information to a broad range of people. These channels have the potential to reach millions of people simultaneously, making them far more effective than interpersonal communication in terms of sheer reach.
• Interpersonal communication, on the other hand, is limited to face-to-face interactions between two individuals. While this form of communication can be highly effective in building personal relationships and fostering understanding, it is simply not as effective as mass communication in terms of reaching a large audience.

Therefore, statement A is true, and statement R is a correct explanation of why A is true. Mass communication's ability to utilize mass media channels makes it far more effective in reaching a large audience than interpersonal communication, which is limited to face-to-face interactions between two individuals.

Additional Information

Mass media communication is the process of transmitting information to a large audience through various media channels. These channels can be broadly categorized into four main types: print, broadcast, digital, and out-of-home.

• Print media is the oldest form of mass media and includes newspapers, magazines, books, and comic books. Print media is characterized by its permanence and portability, making it a good medium for in-depth information and analysis.
• Broadcast media includes television, radio, and streaming services. Broadcast media is characterized by its ability to reach a large audience quickly and simultaneously.
• Digital media includes websites, social media, and mobile apps. Digital media is characterized by its interactivity and potential for personalization.
• Out-of-home media includes billboards, bus ads, and subway posters. Out-of-home media is characterized by its ability to reach a large audience with a brief, impactful message.

The correct answer is I weakens while II is a neutral argument.Key Points

• Argument I weakens the statement because it highlights a major issue in the hospital's operations that needs to be addressed immediately.
• The hospital cannot receive an award for excellence in service if patients are losing their lives due to preventable incidents.
• Argument II is a neutral argument as it does not provide any relevant information that supports or weakens the statement.
• The fact that another hospital has won the award five times does not impact Hospital X's chances of winning the award if they address their waste management capabilities.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "I weakens while II is a neutral argument."
• In summary, the statement suggests that if Hospital X improves its waste management capabilities, they will win the 'excellence in service' award for year 22-23.

Additional Information

• Waste management refers to the process of collecting, transporting, processing, recycling, and disposing of waste materials.
• The "7R" approach—"R'efuse, 'R'educe, 'R'euse, 'R'epair, 'R'epurpose, 'R'ecycle, and 'R'ecover—is essential to effective "waste management."
• The 'excellence in service' award is likely a recognition given to hospitals that provide exceptional healthcare services to their patients.