Test: Weekly Current Affairs: October 1st to 7th - UPSC MCQ

The Chief Justice of India emphasized the dynamic nature of the Constitution to underscore the importance of adapting the Constitution to changing societal needs and contexts. This approach ensures that the Constitution remains relevant and effective in addressing contemporary challenges and issues that may not have been foreseen by the original framers.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Constitution is often referred to as a "living document" due to its ability to adapt to evolving societal norms and contexts. This adaptability ensures that the Constitution remains relevant as new social, legal, and economic challenges arise.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The doctrine of originalism is not primarily followed in interpreting the Indian Constitution. Instead, the Indian legal system embraces a more adaptive and dynamic approach, allowing for interpretations that align with contemporary values and needs. This contrasts with the originalist approach seen in some other countries, like the United States.

- Statement 3 is correct. The Indian Constitution is a hybrid, combining elements of both rigid and flexible constitutions. This hybrid nature allows for necessary adaptations while safeguarding core principles and maintaining the stability of its fundamental structure. Certain provisions require a special amendment process, while others can be changed more easily, reflecting this balance.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

1. Constitution as a Living Document - Requires strict adherence to original framers' intent

This pair is incorrectly matched. The concept of a living Constitution refers to its ability to adapt and evolve with changing societal norms, not requiring strict adherence to the original framers' intent. The latter is more aligned with the doctrine of originalism, which the Chief Justice contrasted against the Indian approach.

2. Hybrid Structure - Combines rigid and flexible elements

This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Constitution indeed has a hybrid structure, incorporating both rigid and flexible elements. It can be amended through different procedures, depending on the provision being amended, thus providing stability while allowing adaptability.

3. Special Majority of Parliament - Involves only a simple majority for amendment

This pair is incorrectly matched. A special majority of Parliament requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, along with a majority of the total membership of each House, not a simple majority. Amendments requiring a simple majority do not fall under Article 368 and are not considered through the special majority process.

4. Safeguarding Citizens' Rights - Supports progressive reforms

This pair is correctly matched. A dynamic interpretation of the Constitution helps in safeguarding citizens' rights and supports progressive reforms, allowing the legal framework to adapt to new challenges while protecting freedoms.

Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Article 121 of the Indian Constitution prohibits parliamentary discussions on the conduct of judges from the Supreme Court and High Courts, except during impeachment or removal motions. This provision aims to safeguard the independence and integrity of the judiciary by limiting political interference in judicial matters.

Let's analyze each statement:
1. Statement 1 is correct. Article 121 of the Indian Constitution indeed prohibits any discussion in Parliament regarding the conduct of Supreme Court or High Court judges except when the process of impeachment is underway. This provision is in place to maintain the independence of the judiciary and protect judges from undue pressure or influence by the legislature.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Justice of India, through the Collegium system, does have the authority to recommend the transfer of High Court judges. This mechanism is used as a measure to ensure impartiality and discipline within the judiciary. An example of this is the transfer of Justice P D Dinakaran to the Sikkim High Court during impeachment proceedings.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010, did propose the establishment of a National Judicial Oversight Committee, along with a Complaints Scrutiny Panel and an Investigation Committee, to address issues of judicial misconduct and ensure accountability within the judiciary.
Thus, all three statements are correct, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer.

1. Article 121 - Prohibits state legislatures from discussing judges' conduct: This is incorrectly matched. Article 121 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discussions in Parliament regarding the conduct of Supreme Court or High Court judges, except upon a motion for their removal.

2. Article 124(4) - Details the impeachment process for judges: This pair is correctly matched. Article 124(4) indeed details the process for the impeachment of Supreme Court judges, requiring a majority of the total membership and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.

3. Transfer Policy - Conducted by the Supreme Court Collegium: This pair is correctly matched. The Supreme Court Collegium, consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges, is responsible for recommending the transfer of High Court judges as part of its disciplinary measures.

4. In-House Inquiry Procedure - Established in 1999 for investigating judges' misconduct: This pair is correctly matched. The In-House Inquiry Procedure was established in 1999 and allows the Chief Justice of India to conduct inquiries into allegations of misconduct against judges.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I mentions a decline in employment in the manufacturing sector in India in 2022-23, particularly in the informal sector. This aligns with the information provided in the ASI report, which highlighted a decrease in informal sector employment. Statement-II accurately reflects the findings of the ASI report, which indicated a rise in formal employment and a decrease in informal sector jobs. While both statements are correct and related to the ASI report, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but provides additional context regarding the type of employment shifts observed in the manufacturing sector during the specified period.

1. The first statement is correct. It is stated in the food wastage is responsible for generating 3.3 billion tons of CO₂ equivalents annually, contributing significantly to global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. This highlights the environmental impact of food loss and waste, demonstrating its role in climate change.
2. The second statement is incorrect. The UNEP Food Waste Index Report 2021 actually notes that Indian households produce approximately 50 kg of food waste per capita annually, not 25 kg. 
3. The third statement is correct. The text suggests that reducing food loss and waste could potentially cut emissions by as much as 12.5 gigatons of CO₂ equivalent, which is a significant figure that aligns with the goal of reducing environmental impact through better management of food resources.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C, as statements 1 and 3 are accurate, while statement 2 is not.

1. The year IDAFLW was established by the UNGA - 2019
- Correct. The International Day of Awareness of Food Loss and Waste (IDAFLW) was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2019.

2. SDG Target related to FLW - SDG Target 12.3
- Correct. SDG Target 12.3 aims to halve per capita global food waste at the retail and consumer levels and reduce food losses along production and supply chains.

3. Annual water waste due to food loss - Annual flow of the Nile River
- Incorrect. The volume of water wasted is equivalent to the annual flow of the Volga River in Russia, not the Nile River.

4. Economic value of food losses in India - Rs 1.53 lakh crore
- Correct. According to a survey by NABCONS in 2022, India suffers food losses valued at Rs 1.53 lakh crore.

Three pairs are correctly matched: Pairs 1, 2, and 4. Pair 3 is incorrect because the correct river is the Volga River.

The main objective of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is to provide digital health IDs to all citizens of India, enabling healthcare providers and insurance companies to access health records electronically when necessary. This initiative aims to improve accessibility, efficiency, and transparency in the Indian healthcare system.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) in the United States indeed mandates that websites must obtain parental consent before collecting any data from children under the age of 13. This is a well-established regulation aimed at protecting children's privacy online.

2. Statement 2 is correct. South Korea's Cinderella Law, also known as the Shutdown Law, was enacted to prevent children under 16 from playing online games between midnight and 6 AM to combat internet addiction. This law was repealed in August 2021.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union sets the age of consent for data processing at 16, though member states can set it as low as 13. The statement incorrectly implies that children under 16 can access the internet without parental consent, which is not the case under GDPR.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

1. Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) - United States Correctly matched. COPPA is a United States federal law that was enacted in 1998. It requires websites to obtain parental consent before collecting personal information from children under 13 years of age.

2. Cinderella Law (Shutdown Law) - United Kingdom Incorrectly matched. The Cinderella Law, also known as the Shutdown Law, was implemented in South Korea, not the United Kingdom. This law prohibited children under 16 from playing online games between midnight and 6 AM.

3. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) - European Union Correctly matched. The GDPR is a regulation in the European Union that was implemented in 2018 to protect data privacy and give individuals more control over their personal information.

4. Age-Appropriate Design Code - France Incorrectly matched. The Age-Appropriate Design Code was introduced in the United Kingdom, not France. It mandates that digital services used by children incorporate strong privacy protections by default.

Thus, two pairs are correctly matched: COPPA with the United States and GDPR with the European Union.

Cholera is primarily caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is responsible for infecting the intestines and leading to the characteristic symptoms of cholera. Proper sanitation and clean water access are crucial in preventing the spread of this water-borne disease.

Cholera infection is characterized by symptoms such as severe watery diarrhea and vomiting. These symptoms can lead to dehydration and, if not promptly treated, may result in severe health complications.

Malnourished children and individuals with HIV/AIDS are considered to be at a higher risk of experiencing severe outcomes from cholera due to their weakened immune systems and nutritional status.

Cholera primarily spreads through the consumption of water or food contaminated with the cholera bacterium. This mode of transmission underscores the critical importance of ensuring access to clean drinking water and proper sanitation practices to prevent outbreaks of this disease.

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. Cholera is primarily transmitted through the consumption of water or food contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and not through direct person-to-person contact. The disease spreads rapidly in areas lacking proper sewage treatment and clean drinking water.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The World Health Organization (WHO) reported a significant increase in the global burden of cholera from 2022 to 2024, with 22 countries experiencing ongoing outbreaks and a notable rise in both cases and deaths.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The currently available WHO pre-qualified Oral Cholera Vaccines (OCV), such as Dukoral, Shanchol, and Euvichol-Plus, require two doses for full protection. However, due to vaccine shortages, a single-dose regimen has been considered, but it does not provide full protection.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making Option D the correct answer.

1. Vibrio cholerae - A virus causing cholera: Incorrect. Vibrio cholerae is not a virus; it is a bacterium that causes cholera. The disease is bacterial, not viral.

2. Oral Cholera Vaccines (OCV) - Includes Shanchol and Euvichol-Plus: Correct. Shanchol and Euvichol-Plus are among the WHO pre-qualified Oral Cholera Vaccines used for cholera prevention.

3. Climate Change - Contributes to cholera spread through extreme weather events: Correct. Climate change affects cholera spread by impacting water quality and availability, with extreme weather events like floods and droughts exacerbating the situation.

4. Microplastics - Assist Vibrio pathogens in adapting to ocean environments: Correct. Research indicates that Vibrio pathogens can adhere to microplastics, which helps them survive and adapt in marine environments.

Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

- Statement-I is incorrect because cholera is caused by the bacterium *Vibrio cholerae*, not *Salmonella Typhi*. *Salmonella Typhi* causes typhoid fever.
- Statement-II is correct as cholera predominantly affects countries in Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean region due to factors like poor sanitation and limited access to clean water.
- Thus, the correct answer is D: Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are designed to be physically smaller than traditional nuclear reactors, enabling factory assembly and transportation as complete units for easier installation. This characteristic distinguishes SMRs by offering flexibility in deployment and suitability for various settings, including existing coal plant locations, which require significantly less land compared to conventional reactors.

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are indeed designed for factory assembly and can be transported as complete units to their installation sites. This feature provides flexibility and reduces the construction time compared to traditional reactors.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. High-Temperature Gas-Cooled SMRs (HTGRs) are capable of generating heat exceeding 750 degrees Celsius, which makes them suitable for a variety of industrial applications beyond electricity generation, such as hydrogen production and process heat for industries.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, poses challenges for foreign nuclear suppliers because it places liability primarily on equipment manufacturers rather than operators. This has led to hesitance among foreign entities to enter the Indian nuclear market due to the potential financial liabilities from accidents.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as only the first two statements accurately describe the facts regarding SMRs and related challenges in India.

The primary objective of Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (now Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita) is to address the criminal act of cruelty towards a married woman by her husband or in-laws. This provision aims to protect married women from intentional acts likely to cause serious injury or risk to their life, health, or well-being, emphasizing the prevention and punishment of such behavior.

• Statement 1 is correct. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code is indeed a cognizable and non-bailable offense, meaning the police can arrest the accused without a warrant and without conducting a preliminary investigation. This aspect has been criticized for its potential misuse, as it allows for immediate arrest, which can lead to wrongful detentions.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides for financial compensation to victims of domestic violence. This includes covering medical costs, lost wages, and other financial losses resulting from domestic violence. The Act aims to provide comprehensive relief to victims, not just through protection orders but also through financial assistance.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India has acknowledged the misuse of Section 498A but has not mandated that it can only be applied following a thorough investigation. Instead, it has called for reforms to ensure proper investigation before arrests, but Section 498A remains a law under which arrests can be made without preliminary investigation.

Thus, Option B: 1 and 2 Only is the correct answer, as it accurately reflects the current legal framework and judicial observations regarding the misuse of these laws.

1. Section 498A IPC - Non-cognizable and bailable offense: Incorrect. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code is a cognizable and non-bailable offense, meaning the police can arrest the accused without a warrant and bail is not a right, but rather at the discretion of the court.

2. Domestic Violence Act 2005 - Protection includes economic abuse: Correct. The Domestic Violence Act 2005 indeed provides protection against various forms of abuse, including physical, emotional, sexual, verbal, and economic abuse, thus ensuring a comprehensive safeguard for women in domestic situations.

3. Section 498A IPC - Allows only the victim to file a complaint: Incorrect. Under Section 498A, the complaint can be lodged not only by the victim but also by any relative of the victim, including those related by blood, marriage, or adoption. If no such relatives exist, a designated public servant may file the complaint.

4. Domestic Violence Act 2005 - Covers only married women: Incorrect. The Domestic Violence Act 2005 covers all women in domestic relationships, not just married women. This includes mothers, daughters, sisters, and live-in partners, offering protections against domestic violence from any member of the household.

• Statement-I correctly describes Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, which indeed pertains to cruelty towards a married woman by her husband or in-laws.
• Statement-II accurately summarizes the objective of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which indeed aims to shield women from various forms of domestic violence, including physical and psychological abuse. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed provides a broader context and understanding than Statement-I.