OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

In News

• The Union Rural Development Ministry has sent teams to 15 districts of the Congress-ruled Chhattisgarh to investigate the implementation of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in the State.
• Recently, the Ministry carried out a similar exercise in Telangana, where its inspection teams asked the Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) government to rectify lapses.

Key Points

MGNREGA Scheme:

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, earlier known as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in 2005 to augment employment generation and social security in India.
• The scheme is a demand-driven wage employment scheme, which functions under the Ministry of Rural Development.
• Every adult member of a household in a rural area with a job card is eligible for a job under the scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The scheme envisages providing 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to adult member volunteers for unskilled manual work. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It covers all districts of India except the ones with a 100% urban population. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• There is also a provision for additional 50 days of unskilled wage employment in drought/natural calamity notified rural areas.
  • As per Section 3(4) of the MGNREGA, the States may make provisions for providing additional days beyond the period guaranteed under the Act from their own funds. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

the correct answer is Rajendra Prasad.

Key Points

• Tripuri session of Congress -
  • It took place in 1939.
  • Subhash Chandra Bose contested for the presidentship of the Indian National Congress
  • He got elected but he had to resign due to his differences with Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Gandhi along with Sardar Patel supported Pattabhi Sitaramayya for the post of president
  • After the resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose, Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Subhash Chandra Bose -
  • ​He is known by his byname Netaji.
  • He was born on January 23, 1897, at Cuttack, Odisha.
  • He passed the civil service examination in 1920 but resigned soon.
  • In 1924 he was appointed chief executive officer of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation.
  • Bose was soon after deported to Burma (Myanmar) because he was suspected of connections with secret revolutionary movements.
  • He wrote The Indian Struggle, 1920–1934, and pleaded India’s cause with European leaders.
  • He presided over the Haripura congress session.
  • He founded the Forward Bloc.
  • He was the leader of the Indian National Army.

The correct answer is Consolidated Fund of the State.
Key Points

Consolidated fund of India (Article 266(1)) is the revenue account of the Government of India Consisting of income from Income Tax, Indirect Tax, and Non-tax revenues and expenses made excluding exceptional items.

The salaries of

• President
• Vice president
• Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
• Chairman and Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
• Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
• judges of the Supreme Court
• Chairman and members of UPSC etc

are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.

Consolidated fund of State (Article 266(1)) is the revenue account of the State Government Consisting of Tax and Non-tax revenues and expenses of State Government. It is a separate fund for each state.

The Salaries of

• High Court Judges
• Council of Ministers
• Governor etc.

are charged to the Consolidated Fund of State.

Contingency Fund of India (Article 267 (1)) is a fund that is used by the union government at the time of unforeseen crisis. For example natural disasters.

• It is kept with the Union Government.

Contingency Fund of State (Article 267(2)) is a fund that is kept with the Governor of individual states to meet the unforeseen expenditure of the State.

The correct answer is ​1, 2 and 4 only.

Key Points

• The Three Round Table Conferences of 1930–32 in Indian history, are a series of meetings in three sessions called by the British government to consider the future constitution of India.
• The conference resulted from a review of the Government of India Act of 1919, undertaken in 1927 by the Simon Commission, whose report was published in 1930.
• This was the first conference arranged between the British and the Indians as equals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The conference was held in London.
  • The First Round Table Conference:
    • It was held between 12 November 1930– 19 January 1931.
    • It had 73 representatives, from all Indian states and all parties except the Indian National Congress, which was waging a civil disobedience campaign against the government.
    • Its principal achievement was an insistence on parliamentarians an acceptance by all, including the princes, of the federal principle and on dominion status as the goal of constitutional development.
  • The Second Round Table Conference:
    • It was held between September–December 1931.
    • It was the only conference attended by the Indian National Congress. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Mahatma Gandhi attended as the Congress representative, as a result of one of the agreements made through Gandhi- Irwin Pact.
    • It failed to reach an agreement, either constitutionally or on communal representation.
  • The Third Round Table Conference:
    • It was held between November 17–December 24, 1932.
    • It was shorter and less important, with neither the Congress nor the British Labour Party attending.
  • Begum Jahanara Shahnawaz, Radhabai Subbarayan represented women in all three conferences. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
    • Sarojini Naidu from Congress represented Indian women only in the second round table conferences.
  • The recommendations were published in a White Paper in March 1933 and were debated in the British parliament.
  • The result of these deliberations was the Government of India Act, of 1935, establishing provincial autonomy and also a federal system that was never implemented. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Option 1 is incorrect.

Key Points

• Main Proposals of Cripps Mission:
  • An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.
  • After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.
    • Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
  • The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions:
    • Any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and
    • The new constitution-making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
  • In the meantime, the defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact.

Mistake Points

• Simon Commission:
  • It recommended the abolition of diarchy and the setting-up of representative governments in the provinces. Hence option 1 is incorrect.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

Stagflation

• It is a period of rising inflation but falling output and rising unemployment.
• Stagflation is characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment.
• Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s when many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and high unemployment as a result of an oil shock.

Stagflation causes:

• Stagflation occurs when the government or central banks expand the money supply at the same time they constrain.
• It can also occur when a central bank's monetary policies create credit.
• It is a combination of three undesirable economic situations:
  • High levels of inflation
  • High unemployment
  • Very slow growth

Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary is in the Murud and Roha talukas of Raigad district, Maharashtra.
• It was created in 1986 to preserve some of the coastal woodland ecosystems of the Western Ghats and consists of 6,979 ha (17,250 acres) of forest, grasslands, and wetlands.
• The area was once part of the hunting reserves of the princely state of Murud-Janjira.
• The forest types are semi-evergreen, evergreen, Mixed deciduous, and dry deciduous forests.
• The fauna includes 16 species of mammals, 62 species of birds, 17 reptiles, 47 insects, and 27 marine invertebrates.

Important Points

• Indian Gaur is also known as Indian Bison.
• Indian Bison is the state animal of Bihar and Goa.
• Indian Bison is a Schedule 1 animal under the Wildlife Protection Act.
• Schedule 1 animals are those that need maximum protection for their existence.

Additional Information

• Some important Wildlife Sanctuaries and their states:

the correct answer is Carbon Sequestration.

Carbon Sequestration-

• It is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
• It is one of the methods of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere with the goal of reducing global climate change.
• It aims at stabilizing the amounts of the greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere, and reducing the human ‘carbon footprint’.
• There are two main types of carbon sequestration: biological and geological.
• Biological Carbon Sequestration
  • It is the storage of carbon dioxide in vegetation like grasslands and forests, as well as in soils and oceans.
  • When the ocean absorbs carbon dioxide, it results in a negative flux, and conversely, when the ocean releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, it results in a positive atmospheric flux.
  • Oceans absorb about 25% of the carbon dioxide emitted through human activities each year.
  • Similarly, Deforestation and wildfires continue to diminish forests as a carbon sink.
  • Similarly, Grasslands can sequester more carbon underground and when they burn, the carbon stays fixed in the roots and soil instead of in leaves and woody biomass.
• Geological Carbon Sequestration
  • This is where carbon dioxide is stored in underground geologic formations, such as in rocks.
  • Industrial sources of carbon dioxide facilities release their carbon dioxide, which is then injected into porous rocks for long-term storage.
  • Such carbon capture and storage allows the use of fossil fuels until a substitute energy source is introduced on a large scale

The correct answer is Pulicat.

Key Points

• Pulicat Lake:-
  • Pulicat Lake, saltwater lagoon on the Coromandel Coast of Andhra Pradesh state, southern India.
  • It extends from the extreme southeastern portion of Andhra Pradesh into the adjacent portion of Tamil Nadu state and has a length of about 30 miles (50 km) and a width of 3 to 10 miles (5 to 16 km).
  • Pulicat Lake is a large brackish water lagoon.

Additional Information

• Loktak:-
  • Loktak Lake is situated in the Bishnupur district of Manipur, which is a state in the northeastern part of India.
  • Loktak Lake is one of the largest freshwater lake.
  • One of the most unique features of Loktak Lake is the presence of "phumdis," which are floating islands made of vegetation, organic matter, and soil.
• Bhimtal:-
  • Bhimtal Lake is the largest lake in the Kumaon region.
  • The lake is named after the mythological character Bhima from the Hindu epic Mahabharata.
  • It is known for its green-blue waters and a small island situated within the lake
• Nainital:-
  • The iconic Naini Lake is the heart of Nainital.
  • It is a natural freshwater lake that's shaped like an eye and gives the town its name.
  • The lake is surrounded by a promenade called the "Mall Road," which offers scenic views of the water and the surrounding hills. Boating is a popular activity on the lake.

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points

Functions of Public Service Commissions.

• It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the services of the State respectively.
• It shall also be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission if requested by any two or more States so to do, to assist those States in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Union Public Service Commission or the State Public Service Commission, as the case may be, shall be consulted—
  • on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts; Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • on the principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services and posts and in making promotions and transfers from one service to another and on the suitability of candidates for such appointments, promotions or transfers;
  • on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the GOI or the GOS in a civil capacity, including memorials or petitions relating to such matters;
  • on any claim by or in respect of a person who is serving under the Government of an Indian State, in a civil capacity, that any costs incurred by him in defending legal proceedings instituted against him in respect of acts done or purporting to be done in the execution of his duty should be paid out of the Consolidated Fund of India, or, as the case may be, out of the Consolidated Fund of the State; on any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under the GOI or GOS in a civil capacity, and any question as to the amount of any such award,
  • it shall be the duty of a Public Service Commission to advise on any matter so referred to them and on any other matter which the President, or, as the case may be, the Governor of the State, may refer to them;
  • The President as respects the all-India services and also as respects other services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union, and the Governor, as respects other services and posts in connection with the affairs of a State, may make regulations specifying the matters in any particular class of case or any particular circumstances, it shall not be necessary for a Public Service Commission to be consulted.
  • Nothing in clause (3) shall require a Public Service Commission to be consulted as respects how any provision referred to in clause (4) of article 16 in which effect may be given to the provisions of article 335. Hence, the Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • All regulations made under the proviso to clause (3) by the President or the Governor of a State shall be laid for not less than fourteen days before each House of Parliament or the House or each House of the Legislature of the State, as soon as possible after they are made, and shall be subject to such modifications, whether by way of repeal or amendment, as both Houses of Parliament or the House or both Houses of the Legislature of the State may make.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

Ramosi Revolt

• The Ramosis served in the lower ranks of the Maratha army and police.
• They revolted in Satara in 1822 under the leadership of Chittur Singh. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Reason: heavy assessment of land revenue and the harsh methods of its collection.
• The British Government followed a pacifying policy overlooking the violent acts of the Ramosis by granting them land and recruiting them as hill police.

Khond Uprising

• The Khonds lived in vast hill tracts stretching from Tamilnadu to Bengal, covering central provinces.
• The movement continued from 1837 to 1856 and was led by Chakra Bisoi. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Reason: an attempt by the government to suppress human sacrifice (Mariah), the introduction of new taxes by the British, and the influx of Zamindars and sahookars (money-lenders).
• After 1855 the movement faded out.

Sawantwadi Revolt

• The revolt took place in the Sawantwadi region in Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra state in 1844.
• It was led by Phond Sawant. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Reason: discontentment against British rule.
• Several Sawantwadi rebels were tried for treason and sentenced to various terms of imprisonment. After the introduction of martial law, the movement was quashed.

Hence all the personalities are correctly matched with their movement.

The correct answer is Varahamira.

Key Points

• Varahamira:
  • Varahamihira lived in Ujjain and was one of the nine jewels (Navaratnas) of the court of Chandragupta II.
  • He wrote Panchasiddhantaka, the five treatises on astronomy. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • It summarises five earlier astronomical treatises, namely the Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta and Paitamaha Siddhantas.

The correct answer is Chlorine

Key Points

• Chlorine is a major contributor to the depletion of the ozone layer.
• Chlorine atoms are released into the atmosphere from chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
• Once in the stratosphere, chlorine atoms react with ozone (O₃) molecules, causing the ozone to break down into oxygen molecules (O₂).
• This breakdown reduces the concentration of ozone in the stratosphere, leading to the thinning of the ozone layer.
• The ozone layer is crucial for protecting life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
• International agreements like the Montreal Protocol have been established to phase out the production and use of CFCs and other ODS to protect the ozone layer.

Additional Information

• The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 and is considered one of the most successful environmental agreements to date.
• It aims to reduce and eventually eliminate the production and use of ODS.
• Since the implementation of the Montreal Protocol, the ozone layer has shown signs of recovery.
• Continued global cooperation and adherence to the protocol are essential for the full recovery of the ozone layer.

The correct answer is option 4.

Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008:

• “unorganised worker” means a home-based worker, self-employed worker or a wage worker in the unorganised sector and includes a worker in the organised sector who is not covered by any of the Acts mentioned in Schedule II to this Act.
• It is an Act to provide for the social security and welfare of unorganised workers and for other
  matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• The act was subsumed in the new Social Security Code, 2020.
• As per the Ministry of Labour and Employment, workers in the unorganized sector constitute about 93% of the total workforce in the country.
• The growth of formal employment in the country has always been less than that of total employment, indicating a faster growth of employment in the informal sector.
• It is widely acknowledged that the informal sector in India suffers from a low productivity syndrome, compared to the formal sector.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Organic Farming is a production system that sustains the health of soils, ecosystems and people.

• It uses tradition, innovation & science to benefit the environment.
• It relies on ecological processes, biodiversity & cycles adapted to local conditions.
• It helps to maintain soil fertility & ecological balance & minimizes pollution.
• It comprises no use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, genetically modified seeds. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.

​Key Features:

• Farmers prepare & enrich land before sowing seeds by sprinkling natural fertilizers.
• Nitrogen fixation of soils using legumes.
• Seeds are not soaked in any chemical solution. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Ensuring food for all without damaging the environment.
• Protecting soil quality using organic material & encouraging biological activity.
• Fertilizers such as green manure, shellfish fertilizer are used.
• No irrigation of the newly planted seeds using water with added chemicals.
• It depends on natural rain or harvest & stored rainwater to use during dry months.

• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

Key Points

The Quit India Movement 1942

• It was launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
• It is also known as August Kranti.

Causes:

• ​The immediate cause for the movement was the collapse of Cripps Mission. Hence 1 is correct.
• The British assumption of unconditional support from India to the British in World War II was not taken well by the Indian National Congress. Hence 2 is correct.
• The anti-British sentiments and demand for full independence had gained popularity among the Indian masses. Hence 3 is correct.
• The two decades of mass movement which were being conducted on a much more radical tone under the leadership of the various associated and affiliated bodies of the Congress, like All India Kisan Sabha, Forward Bloc, etc. had already prepared the ground for the movement.
• There were militant outbursts happening at several places in the country which got channelized with the Quit India Movement.
• The economy was also in shatters as a result of World War II.
• Several national leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Abdul Kalam Azad, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were arrested during the initial phase of the movement.
• In the later phase, the movement became leaderless and violent.

Gandhi’s instructions to various sections of the public:

• Government servants: do not resign your job but proclaim loyalty to the INC.
• Soldiers: be with the army but refrain from firing on compatriots.
• Peasants: pay the agreed-upon rent if the landlords/Zamindars are anti-government; if they are pro-government, do not pay the rent.
• Students: can leave studies if they are confident enough.
• Princes: support the people and accept their sovereignty.
• People of the princely states: support the ruler only if he is anti-government; declare themselves as part of the Indian nation.

Additional Information

Three Round Table Conferences were organized by the British Government between 1930 and 1932 to discuss the constitutional reform in India. Hence 4 is not correct.

First Round Table Conference:​

• It was held in 1930.
• Political leaders from British India, delegates from the native princely states, delegates from the three British political parties.
• The Indian National Congress does not participate in the conference as many of the INC leaders were imprisoned due to their involvement in the civil disobedience movement. Hence option 1 is wrong.
• The First Round Table Conference lasted till 19th January 1931.
• Although many principles on reforms were agreed upon, not much was implemented and the Congress Party carried on its civil disobedience.
• The Conference was regarded as a failure.

Second Round Table Conference:

• It was held in London from 7th September 1931 to 1st December 1931.
• British delegates belonging to various political parties including the British Prime Minister, James Ramsay Macdonald.
• Indian princely states are represented by Maharajas, princes and divans.
• British Indians represented by Indian National Congress (INC) – Mahatma Gandhi, Rangaswami Iyengar, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Muslims by Md. Ali Jinnah, Aga Khan III, Muhammad Iqbal, etc. Hindus by M R Jayakar, etc., Depressed classes by Dr B R Ambedkar, Women by Sarojini Naidu, etc.

Third Round Table Conference:​

• It was held between 17th November 1932 and 24th December 1932.
• Only 46 delegates in total took part in this conference.
• The INC and the Labour Party decided not to attend it. Hence option 3 is wrong.
• Indian princely states were represented by princes and divans.
• British Indians were represented by the Aga Khan (Muslims), Depressed classes women, Europeans, Anglo-Indians and Labour groups.

The correct answer is Option 3.

In News

• Indian Express: Who are the Majeed Brigade, the Baloch militants who carried out Gwadar attack?

Key Points

Balochistan:

• Balochistan is a historical region in Western and South Asia.
• It is located in the Iranian plateau's far southeast and bordering the Indian Plate and the Arabian Sea coastline.
• This arid region of desert and mountains is primarily populated by ethnic Baloch people.
• The Balochistan region is split among three countries: Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan.
• Administratively it comprises the Pakistani province of Balochistan, the Iranian province of Sistan and Baluchestan, and the southern areas of Afghanistan, which include Nimruz, Helmand and Kandahar provinces.
• It borders the Khyber Paktunkhwa region to the north, Sindh and Punjab to the east, and Iranian regions to the west.
• Its southern coastline, including the Makran Coast, is washed by the Arabian Sea, in particular by its western part, the Gulf of Oman.
• It is in Pakistan’s southwest, is the country’s largest and most sparsely populated province.
• It has oil reserves and abundant natural resources, but the ethnic Baloch are Pakistan’s poorest and most under-represented people.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

• The Hindu: PM Modi signs first file to transfer Kisan Nidhi installment to farmers; Opposition sees ‘grand show '.

Key Points

• The PM-KISAN scheme provides income support to all landholding farmer families across the country to supplement their financial needs for procuring various inputs related to agriculture and allied activities as well as domestic needs.
• Each eligible farmer family receives ₹6,000 per year in three equal installments of ₹2,000 each. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The scheme aims to transfer the financial benefit directly to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries to ensure transparency and avoid delays or leakages in the disbursement process.
• The direct benefit transfer (DBT) mechanism ensures that the funds reach the intended beneficiaries without intermediaries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The PM-KISAN scheme is a central sector scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India.
• The entire financial outlay for the scheme is borne by the central government, and state governments are responsible for identifying and verifying the eligible beneficiaries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is A wildlife sanctuary houses the animals that are found locally in an area while in a zoo animals brought from all over the world are kept

Explanation:

Zoo:

• A zoo is a facility where animals are housed for public display and entertainment.
• It is typically a controlled environment that aims to provide educational and recreational experiences for visitors.
• Collection of Animals: Zoos gather animals from various parts of the world and maintain a diverse collection of species, including both common and endangered animals.
• The animals are often kept in enclosures that resemble their natural habitats, but the space available to them may be limited.
• Public Exhibition: The primary purpose of a zoo is to exhibit animals to the public. Visitors can observe the animals up close, often through enclosures, fences, or glass barriers.
• Zoos may have scheduled feeding times and interactive activities such as animal shows or petting areas.

Wildlife Sanctuary:

• A wildlife sanctuary, on the other hand, is a protected area created with the primary objective of conserving and preserving wildlife.
• It serves as a safe haven for native or indigenous animal species and their habitats.
• Habitat Conservation: Wildlife sanctuaries focus on preserving natural habitats and ecosystems, providing a protected environment for the animals to live and breed.
• The primary aim is to safeguard biodiversity and create a safe space for wildlife to thrive
• Minimal Human Intervention: Unlike zoos, wildlife sanctuaries strive to minimize human interference and maintain a more natural setting.
• Animals in sanctuaries are generally not used for public display or entertainment purposes.
• They are given more freedom and space to exhibit natural behaviors and live in a relatively undisturbed environment.

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only.

Key Points

Clean Technology Fund (CTF):

• The Clean Technology Fund (CTF), one of two multi-donor Trust Funds within the Climate Investment Funds (CIFs), promotes scaled-up financing for the demonstration, deployment and transfer of low-carbon technologies with significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas emissions savings.
• Channelled through the African Development Bank, Asian Development Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, Inter-American Development Bank, and World Bank Group, the CTF finances 12 country programmes and one regional programme.
• The World Bank is the Trustee and Administrating Unit of the CTF Trust Fund. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

BioCarbon Fund:

• The BioCarbon Fund ISFL (IFIN Securities Finance Limited) is a multilateral facility, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• ISFL has a geographically diverse portfolio of large-scale programs that can have a significant impact and transform rural areas by protecting forests, restoring degraded lands, enhancing agricultural productivity, and improving livelihoods and local environments.

Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF):

• In 2001, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) established the first multilateral adaptation finance instruments: the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) and the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF).
• The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established under the Convention in 2001 to finance projects relating to adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
• The Global Environment Facility (GEF), as an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism, has been entrusted to operate the SCCF. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF):

• The Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) was established in 2001 to support the LDC work programme under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), including the preparation and implementation of national adaptation programmes of action (NAPAs).
• It is operated by the Global Environment Facility (GEF). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Torrid Zone

Key Points

• Torrid Zone lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The Torrid Zone is also known as the tropical zone, which is characterized by a hot climate and is located around the equator.
• This zone receives direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to higher temperatures and a generally warm climate.
• Countries located in the Torrid Zone often experience tropical weather, including monsoons and tropical storms.

Additional Information

• The Tropic of Cancer is located at approximately 23.5° North latitude.
• The Tropic of Capricorn is located at approximately 23.5° South latitude.
• The area between these two tropics is known for its diverse ecosystems, including rainforests, savannas, and deserts.
• This region supports a wide variety of plant and animal life due to its consistent warm temperatures and varying rainfall patterns.

The correct answer is both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight.

Key Points

Rainbow Formation by Water Droplets

• Refraction: When sunlight enters a water droplet, it slows down and bends. This bending of light is called refraction. The light is refracted at the surface of the droplet.
• Internal Reflection: After refraction, the light reflects off the inside surface of the water droplet. This internal reflection is crucial to the formation of a rainbow.
• Second Refraction: The light undergoes a second refraction as it exits the droplet, bending again as it moves from water to air.
• Dispersion: During these processes, the light is dispersed into its constituent colors (spectrum) due to different wavelengths of light bending by different amounts.
• The combination of these processes - refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion - results in the formation of a rainbow.

Additional Information

• Refraction: This is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another. The amount of bending depends on the indices of refraction of the two media and the wavelength of the light.
• Internal Reflection: Occurs when light hits the boundary of a medium and is reflected back into the medium instead of passing through. This is essential for the formation of a rainbow.
• Dispersion: The process in which white light separates into its constituent colors (spectrum) due to different degrees of bending for different wavelengths. This is why rainbows display a spectrum of colors.
• Rainbow Colors: The colors of a rainbow typically include Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet (ROYGBIV), arranged in this order from the outer to the inner edge of the rainbow.
• Viewing Angle: A rainbow is typically seen when the sun is low in the sky and the observer has their back to the sun. The angle of view is approximately 42 degrees relative to the direction opposite to the sunlight.

Option 4 is incorrect.

Key Points

Gram Sabha:

• The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a Panchayat and whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• This could be only one village or a few villages.
• In some states, as in the example above, a village meeting is held for each village.
• The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the Gram Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
• It is a permanent body.
• The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Important and specific functions of Gram Sabha:

• To help implementation of the development programs and schemes of the Panchayat.
• To identify beneficiaries for different programs and schemes.
• However, if the Gram Sabha fails to identify such beneficiaries within a reasonable time, the Gram Panchayat shall identify the beneficiaries.
• To solicit support in cash or kind or both and voluntary labour from the public for community welfare programs.
• To support the programs of mass education and family welfare.
• To promote unity and harmony among all sections of the society in the village.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Key Points

Role of the Himalayas in the Indian climate

• The Himalayas play a very important role in influencing the climate of India.
• The Himalayas acts as an obstacle to monsoon winds which causes rainfall in the Indian subcontinent. Therefore, It acts like a climate separator. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• India is a monsoon land only because of the presence of the Himalayas.
• It traps the monsoon winds from the Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal and forces them to shed their moisture content within the Indian sub-continent in the form of snow and rain. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• It also blocks the cold winter storms of East Asia and Siberia from entering India, thus protecting us from severe cold. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia.
• The Himalayas splits the westerly jet streams into two branches such that the southward branch entering India plays a significant role in bringing the monsoon. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• India has mountains to the north, which have an average height of about 6,000 metres.
• India also has a vast coastal area where the maximum elevation is about 30 metres.

The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

Succession

• It is a universal process of directional change in vegetation, on an ecological time scale.
• It occurs when a series of communities replace one another due to large scale destruction either natural or manmade.
• This process continues - one community replacing another community until a stable, mature community develops.
• It is a progressive series of changes that leads to the establishment of a relatively stable climax community.
• The first plant to colonise an area is called the pioneer community.
• The final stage of succession is called the climax community.
• The stage leading to the climax community is called successional stages or seres.
• Succession is characterized by the following:
  • Increased productivity. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • The shift of nutrients from’ the reservoirs. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Increased diversity of organisms with increased niche development, and a gradual increase in the complexity of food webs. Hence, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

The correct answer is Option 1.

In News

• News: Meet ‘Noctis,’ A Giant Volcano Just Found On Mars That’s Bigger Than Mount Everest.

Key Points

Noctis volcano:

• Scientists have discovered a massive, deeply eroded giant shield volcano on Mars that has been "hiding in plain sight."
• The volcano, which has been provisionally named “Noctis Mons,” reaches 29,600 feet (9,022 meters). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Discovered just south of the planet’s equator, Noctis Mons could be an ideal place to send NASA’s next Mars rover to search for evidence of life.
• Key Highlights:
  • The region preserves signs of a complex geological history with fracturing, thermal erosion and glacial erosion.
  • The volcano is made up of layered accumulations of lava and ice.
  • Scientists have not been able to determine if the volcano is still active.
• The volcano is close to the trio of shield volcanoes in the Tharsis region of Mars, flanked on either side by the tortured terrain known as Noctis Labyrinthus (Labyrinth of the Night), and the Valles Marineris (Valley of the Mariner), which is among the largest canyon systems in the Solar System.
• The eroded remains of the volcano measure 450 kilometers across and possibly contain buried glacier ice beneath a recent volcanic deposit, making it a suitable location to hunt for life.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• Fiscal Deficit is defined as the difference between the total revenue and total expenditure.
• Subsidies are a major component of government spending, and their reduction reduces the fiscal deficit. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• Revenue expenditure neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government. Unnecessary revenue expenditure increases the fiscal deficit. Hence reducing revenue expenditure has a very large effect on the fiscal deficit. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Introducing new welfare schemes neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government and will further enhance the fiscal deficit. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• Reducing import duty will reduce tax revenue and thus increases the fiscal deficit. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)

The correct answer is Absorption of CO₂ by sea-water

Key Points

• Absorption of CO₂ by sea-water is the primary cause of ocean acidification.
• When CO₂ is absorbed by seawater, it reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of the ocean.
• This process leads to an increase in the acidity of the ocean, which can have detrimental effects on marine life, particularly organisms with calcium carbonate shells or skeletons.
• Ocean acidification is a significant environmental issue because it affects the health of coral reefs, shellfish, and other marine organisms, disrupting marine ecosystems and biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Human activities, particularly the burning of fossil fuels, have significantly increased the concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere.
• Approximately one-third of the CO₂ released into the atmosphere is absorbed by the oceans.
• Ocean acidification can also affect the behavior and physiology of marine organisms, including fish, which can have cascading effects on marine food webs and fisheries.
• Efforts to mitigate ocean acidification include reducing CO₂ emissions, protecting marine habitats, and promoting research to better understand the impacts of acidification on marine ecosystems.

The correct answer is ​Temporary camp situated at a strategic location.

Key Points

Jayaskandhavara

• "Jayaskandhavara", literally “Camp of victory”, implies a temporary camp situated at a strategic location.
• The places located in strategically sound areas, like those situated on elevated regions or those surrounded by hills or rivers; regions which were well connected by land and water routes for facilitating the movement of the army or the easy transportation of supplies and provisions for the army, assumed more importance than the older rajadhanis (capitals).
  • These new centres were called Jayaskandhavaras (literally meaning ‘camp of victory’) in epigraphs.
• It was from these Jayaskandhavaras that the ruling dynasties issued land grants to religious recipients like the Brahmanas or the monasteries and temples.
• Inscriptions of the early medieval polities are replete with references to various Jayaskandhavaras under different kings.
• From such references, the political conquests and the extent of the territories of the rulers may be inferred.
• For instance, the Banskhera and the Madhuban copper plates of Harsha were issued from the Jayaskandhavaras of Vardhamanakoti and Kapitthika respectively.
  • Both were probably located somewhere in Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is 6 ∶ 30 PM

The Earth is divided into 360 degrees around the equator for longitude lines. All of these lines meet at the poles. Each degree is equivalent to 4 minutes of time with 60 minutes in an hour.If India is located at 82°30' E longitude, we can calculate the time difference from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), which is located at 0° longitude.

First, convert 30' (minutes of degree) to degrees. There are 60 minutes in a degree, so 30' equals 0.5 degrees.
Now, add this to the degrees already given: 82° + 0.5° = 82.5°
To convert this to time, multiply by 4 (since each degree is equivalent to 4 minutes):
82.5° x 4 = 330 minutes
Next, convert these minutes to hours. There are 60 minutes in an hour, so:
330 minutes ÷ 60 = 5.5 hours
So, India is 5.5 hours ahead of GMT.
Finally, if it's 1 PM at GMT, then in India (IST), it would be:
1 PM GMT + 5.5 hours = 6:30 PM IST
So, the answer is 6:30 PM.