General Knowledge Mock Test - 1 - CDS MCQ

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• Money supply, like money demand, is a stock variable.
• The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called money supply.
• RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4.
• They are defined as follows
  1. M1 = CU + DD
  2. M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
  3. M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
  4. M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• CU and DD stands for currency and demand deposits respectively.
• M1 and M2 are narrow money-
  • Currency
  • Demand Deposits
  • Savings deposit with PO savings bank
• M3 and M4 are known as broad money-
  • Currency
  • Demand Deposits
  • Net time deposits of commercial banks
  • Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations

The correct answer is Option 2.

In News

• The Hindu: IAU approves ‘Statio Shiv Shakti’ as name for Chandrayaan-3 landing site.

Key Points

Statio Shiv Shakti:

• The International Astronomical Union (IAU) approved the name ‘Station Shiv Shakti’ for the landing site of Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander on the Moon.
  • This decision follows Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s announcement on August 26, 2023, where he declared that the landing site would be named ‘Shiva Shakti’. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Etymology and Significance:
  • The Gazetteer of Planetary Nomenclature, which documents IAU-approved planetary names, defines ‘Station Shiv Shakti’ as a compound word from Indian mythology, representing the masculine (Shiva) and feminine (Shakti) duality of nature.
  • Prime Minister Modi emphasized the significance of these names in connecting India from the Himalayas to Kanyakumari, stating that Shiva symbolizes resolution for humanity’s welfare, while Shakti provides the strength to fulfill those resolutions.
• Planetary Nomenclature:​
  • ​Planetary nomenclature, similar to terrestrial nomenclature, is used to uniquely identify features on the surface of a planet or satellite.
  • The Gazetteer contains detailed information about all IAU-approved names of topographic and albedo features on planets and satellites since the organization’s founding in 1919. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information​

Chandrayaan-3 Mission:

• Chandrayaan-3 is India’s third lunar exploration mission, following Chandrayaan-1 and Chandrayaan-2.
• The mission’s primary objective was to achieve a soft landing on the Moon’s surface, which was accomplished by the Vikram lander.
• The landing site, now officially named ‘Station Shiv Shakti’, marks a significant milestone in India’s space exploration journey.

International Astronomical Union (IAU):

• The IAU was founded on July 28, 1919, during the Constitutive Assembly held in Brussels, Belgium.
• Its creation was prompted by the need for international collaboration in astronomy, especially after the devastation caused by World War I.
• It aims to promote and safeguard astronomy in all its aspects through international cooperation.
• IAU is now headquartered in Paris, France.

The correct answer is (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Key Points

• Assertion (A) is correct because the jizya tax was a major source of revenue for the Delhi Sultanate.
• If large numbers of people converted to Islam, they would no longer have to pay the jizya tax, which would have a significant impact on the sultanate's finances.
• Reason (R) is also correct and is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
• The jizya tax was a tax on non-Muslims, so if large numbers of people converted to Islam, they would no longer be subject to this tax.
• This would have a negative impact on the sultanate's finances, as the jizya tax was a major source of revenue.
• In addition to the financial implications, there were also political considerations that may have led the Sultans to be cautious about encouraging large-scale conversion.
• For example, the Sultans may have been concerned that a large Muslim population would make it more difficult to maintain their control over the non-Muslim majority.

Therefore Assertion and Reason are both correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

The correct answer is Only 1.

In News

• News: Switch off non-essential appliances during Earth Hour on Mar 23, urges BSES.

Key Points

Earth Hour:

• It is an annual global event observed on the last Saturday of March marked by switching off non-essential electric lights, for one hour from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is organized all over the world by the World Wildlife Fund. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It all started back in 2007, born out of frustration about inaction to tackle climate change and protect nature, to replace people’s despair with hope and positivity at a global level.
• On 31 March 2007, more than 2.2 million individuals and 2,000 businesses in Sydney, Australia switched off their lights for one hour, which marked the beginning of the Earth Hour movement.
• And that one particular hour has gone global, with more than 190 countries participating in switch-off events and activities, to show their support for nature and climate.
• Facts about Earth Hour:
  • It is one of the world’s biggest environmental movements
  • A humble beginning with more than a decade of history
  • It is more about rebuilding connection than just switching off
  • It is truly a spectacular, global event
  • Earth Hour is helping to tackle deforestation

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

Universal Declaration of Human Rights

• The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1948 as a common standard of achievements for all peoples and all nations.
• It sets out, for the first time, fundamental human rights to be universally protected and it has been translated into over 500 languages.
• The Declaration consists of 30 articles affirming an individual's rights. Those rights include civil and political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free speech, and privacy. They also include economic, social and cultural rights, like the right to social security, health, and education.
• Regarding the first statement: The Declaration indeed states that everyone has the right to seek and to enjoy in other countries asylum from persecution. This right is particularly outlined in Article 14 of the UDHR. However, it does not specifically mention "political crimes" but rather persecution in general. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Regarding the second statement: While the Declaration does affirm the right to change one’s nationality (Article 15), it does not explicitly provide a provision regarding freedom from arbitrary deprivation of nationality. The statement as presented misrepresents the scope of the Declaration. The emphasis is on the right to a nationality and the prohibition against arbitrary denial or deprivation of nationality, not specifically on the conditions mentioned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Article 14 of the UDHR is significant because it was one of the first international recognitions of the right to asylum. This has paved the way for later treaties and international laws concerning refugees and asylum seekers.
• Article 15 of the UDHR highlights that everyone has the right to a nationality and that no one should be arbitrarily deprived of their nationality nor denied the right to change it. This article underpins the importance of nationality to an individual's sense of identity and legal recognition.
• The principles laid out in the UDHR are considered to be of fundamental importance in the international human rights regime, influencing numerous international treaties, national constitutions, and other protective laws.
• The Declaration, while not a legally binding document, has inspired more than 60 human rights instruments which together constitute an international standard of human rights.
• Among these subsequent instruments are the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, which together with the Declaration form the so-called International Bill of Human Rights.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel MS Olcott got inspired by Indian thought and culture founded the theosophical society in New York City, United States in 1875.
• In 1882, the headquarters of the society was shifted to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras in India.
• Theosophical Society believes that a special relationship could be established between a person's soul and God by contemplation, prayer, revelation, etc. Hence, (R) is true.
• It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and Karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Sankhya, Yoga and Vedanta schools of thought.
• It aimed to work for the universal brotherhood of humanity without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste or colour.
• The theosophical movement came to be allied with the Hindu Renaissance.
• It opposed child marriage and advocated the abolition of caste discrimination, uplift of outcastes, improvement in the condition of widows.
• In India, the movement became popular when Annie Besant became its president after the death of Olcott in 1907.
• The Theosophical society provided a common denominator for the various acts and fulfilled the urge of educated Hindus.
  • However, to an average Indian the theosophist philosophy seemed to be vague and lacked a positive program; to that extent, its impact was limited to a small segment of Westernised class. Hence, (A) is false.
• As religious revivalists, the theosophical society did not attain much success.
  • But as a movement of westerners glorifying Indian religious and philosophical traditions it gave much-needed self-respect to the Indian fighting British Colonial rule.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Euphrates River

• It is the longest river in southwest Asia.
• It is one of the two main constituents of the Tigris-Euphrates river system.
• The river rises in Turkey and flows southeast across Syria and through Iraq.

Congo River

• It is the African continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile.
• It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River.
• Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.

Chao Phraya

• Also called Maenam, it is the principal river of Thailand.
• It flows south through the nation’s fertile central plain for more than 225 miles (365 km) to the Gulf of Thailand.
• Thailand’s capitals, past and present (Bangkok), have all been situated on its banks or those of its tributaries and distributaries, as are many other cities.

Danube

• It is the second-longest in Europe after the Volga.
• It rises in the Black Forest mountains of western Germany and flows for some 1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth on the Black Sea.

the correct answer is Persistence of Vision.

Key Points

• Persistence of Vision:
  • Even after the object is removed, the impression of an object seen by the eye remains on the retina for 1/16th of a second.
  • If we see another object before this time, the impressions of the two merge to give us a sense of continuity.
  • This eye property is known as persistence of vision.

Additional Information

• Defects of the human eye:
  • The various Defects associated with eyes:

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass.
• The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
• This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
• Features of the Peninsular Plateau:-
  • Roughly triangular in shape its base coincides with the southern edge of the great plain of North India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The apex of the triangular plateau is at Kanniyakumari.
  • It covers a total area of about 16 lakh sq km (India as a whole is 32 lakh sq km).
  • The average height of the plateau is 600-900 m above sea level (varies from region to region).
  • Most of the peninsular rivers flow west to east indicating it’s the general slope.
  • Narmada-Tapti is the exception that flows from east to west in a rift (rift is caused by a divergent boundary)
  • The trough of the Narmada and Tapti is interposed between the Vindhyan and the Satpura ranges. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest landforms on earth.
  • It is a highly stable block composed mostly of the Archaean gneisses and schists. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It has been a stable shield that has gone through few structural changes since its formation.
  • For a few hundred million years, the Peninsular block has been a land area and has never been submerged beneath the sea except in a few places.
  • Peninsular Plateau is an aggregation of several smaller plateaus, hill ranges interspersed with river basins and valleys.

The correct answer is Option 2.
In News

• Energitica India: NTPC Climbs Two Levels in Carbon Disclosure Project Water Security Rating.

Key Points

Carbon Disclosure Project:

• Recently, NTPC has achieved recognition for its exceptional water management practices.
• It has increased two levels in the Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP) Water Security Rating.
• The Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP) stands as a global ESG rating agency, evaluating companies' environmental performance, particularly in climate change mitigation, water security, and deforestation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The CDP is a global disclosure system that enables companies, cities, states, and regions to measure and manage their environmental impacts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It collects and collates self-reported environmental data in the world.
• It is aimed at measuring the carbon reduction activities undertaken by different companies and firms operating in various countries across the globe.

The correct answer is Option 2

Concept:

Vertebrates: Vertebrates are a category of animals within the subphylum Vertebrata, which itself is part of the phylum Chordata. The hallmark of vertebrates is the spinal column or backbone, a series of vertebrae that encase the spinal cord. This group includes a variety of animals that are further divided into distinct classes based on their unique characteristics. These classes include:

• Fish: Both bony fish (Osteichthyes) and cartilaginous fish (Chondrichthyes).
• Amphibians: Such as frogs, toads, and salamanders, known for their life cycles that typically include both aquatic larval and terrestrial adult stages.
• Reptiles: Including snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles, characterized by their scaly skin and, in most cases, egg-laying reproduction.
• Birds: Feathered vertebrates capable of flight (though not all birds fly), with unique adaptations such as beaks and hollow bones.
• Mammals: A class known for characteristics like the production of milk by mammary glands, presence of hair or fur, and being warm-blooded.

Explanation:

• Statement 1: All mammals are vertebrates. This statement is true. Mammals are a class of animals within the subphylum Vertebrata, which means they have a backbone or spinal column.
• Statement 2: All vertebrates are mammals. This statement is false. Vertebrates include a much broader range of animals than just mammals, encompassing classes such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. Not all vertebrates are mammals, but all mammals are indeed vertebrates.

Conclusion:

Therefore, Option 2 (Statement 1 is true, and statement 2 is false) is the correct choice.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• British Economic policies and their impact
  • The economic policies followed by the British led to the rapid transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy whose nature and structure was determined by the needs of the British economy.
  • In this respect, the British conquest differed from all previous foreign conquests.
  • The previous conquerors had overthrown Indian political powers but had made no basic changes in the country’s economic structure; they had gradually become a part of Indian life, political as well as economic.
  • The peasant, the artisan, and the trader had continued to lead the same type of existence as before.
  • From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company's role in India was that of a trading corporation that brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles, spices, etc., which is sold abroad.
  • Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries.
  • Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers and thus encouraged their production.
  • This is the reason why the Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company's factories in India.
  • While import to India was free, Indian goods were charged at very high duty (like 66.5% on muslin) in Britain. Hence, (A) is true.
  • Industrial Revolution in England made the cost of foreign goods cheaper.
  • Despite higher prices, Indian goods (especially muslin, silk, etc.) were very popular in England. Hence, (R) is false.
  • India was mainly known for its handicraft industries in the fields of cotton and silk textiles, metal and precious stone works, etc.
  • These products enjoyed a worldwide market due to their fine quality and high standards of craftsmanship.

The correct answer is option 1

Concept:

Concave mirror

• A concave mirror, also known as a converging mirror, is a curved mirror where the reflective surface bulges inward.
• This type of mirror is thicker at the center than at the edges.
• When parallel rays of light strike a concave mirror, they converge at a single focal point in front of the mirror.
• Concave mirrors are commonly used in applications such as reflecting telescopes, shaving mirrors, and focusing mirrors in headlights.
• They can create both real and virtual images depending on the object's position relative to the focal point.

Explanation:

The positions of the object and image formed by a concave mirror depend on the relative distances between the object, the mirror, and the focal point (F) of the mirror.

• Beyond C:
  • When the object is placed beyond the center of curvature (C), its image is formed between the center of curvature (C) and the focal point (F). The image is real, inverted, and diminished.
• At C:
  • When the object is placed at the center of curvature (C), its image is also formed at the center of curvature (C). The image is real, inverted, and the same size as the object.
• Between C and F:
  • If the object is placed between the center of curvature (C) and the focal point (F), its image is formed beyond the center of curvature (C). The image is real, inverted, and magnified.
• At F:
  • When the object is placed at the focal point (F), the reflected rays are parallel, and the image is formed at infinity. The image is real, inverted, and highly magnified.

Thus the correct option is 1.

The correct answer is (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Key Points

• Assertion (A) is supported by historical evidence.
• Muhammad Tughluq did indeed confer honours and high appointments upon foreigners, converted Hindus, members of Sufi families, Afghans and even Mongols.
• This is well-documented in historical texts, such as the Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi by Ziauddin Barani.
• Reason (R) is also supported by historical evidence.
• Muhammad Tughluq was a shrewd and ambitious ruler.
• He was aware that the old nobility was a powerful force that could potentially challenge his authority.

• By appointing foreigners and other non-traditional elites to positions of power, he hoped to weaken the old nobility and create a new order of office-holders who would be loyal to him.

​In conclusion, the assertion and reason are both correct, and the reason is a correct explanation for the assertion.

The correct answer is Reducing their administrative role and powers.

Key Points

• The Permanent Settlement of 1793, also known as the Zamindari System, was a land revenue system introduced by the British colonial administration primarily in Bengal, Bihar, and later other parts of India.
• This system vested land revenue collection rights with the Zamindars, who acted as intermediaries between the colonial government and the peasants.
• While the primary goal of the Permanent Settlement was to create a reliable and efficient revenue collection system, its implementation indirectly affected local governance structures, including traditional Panchayats.
• By centralizing authority and assigning administrative and revenue collection roles to the Zamindars, the British colonial policy diminished the administrative functions and powers of traditional village Panchayats.
• The Zamindars had significant control over the land and the people, which eroded the autonomous functioning of the Panchayats in managing local affairs.

The correct answer is 1773.

Key Points

• The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed during the regime of Governor-General Warren Hastings.
• Warren Hastings became the Governor of the Bengal in 1772.
• He was also the first Governor-General of Bengal in 1774.
• The Regulating Act of 1773 was an Act of the British Parliament which intended to overhaul the management of the East India Company's rule in India.
• The Regulating Act of 1773:
  • The 1773 Regulating Act brought about the British government’s involvement in Indian affairs in the effort to control and regulate the functioning of the East India Company.
  • It recognised that the Company’s role in India extended beyond mere trade to administrative and political fields, and introduced the element of centralised administration, and marked the first step towards parliamentary control.
  • The directors of the Company were required to submit all correspondence regarding revenue affairs and civil and military administration to the government.
  • In Bengal, the administration was to be carried out by the governor-general and a council consisting of 4 members, representing the civil and military government.
    • They were required to function according to the majority rule and Governor-General could only vote in case of a tie.
    • Warren Hastings and four others were named in the Act, later ones were to be appointed by the Company.
  • A Supreme Court of judicature was to be established in Bengal with original and appellate jurisdictions where all subjects could seek redressal.
  • The governor-general could exercise some powers over Bombay and Madras.
  • This act raised the qualifications for a vote in the Court of Proprietors from 500 pounds to 1000 pounds.

Additional Information

• 1793 - Permanent Settlement in Bengal.
• 1818 - First revenue settlement in the Bombay Deccan.

The correct answer is An anemometer.

Key Points

• Anemometer: It is an instrument used to measure the speed of the wind, which is a common weather station instrument, or to calculate any form of gas current.
  • The term is derived from the Greek word anemos meaning wind which was first explained by Leon Battista Alberti who was an Italian artist and architect in the year 1450.
  • He used a mechanical anemometer which was placed perpendicular to the wind direction such that the wind velocity as indicated by the angle of inclination of the disc.
• Types of anemometer:
  • Cup anemometer: This consists of four hemispherical cups that are mounted on one end of the horizontal arms at equal angles on a vertical shaft.
  • Hotwire anemometer: This consists of thin wire which is heated up to a certain temperature slightly more than atmospheric temperature.
  • Windmill anemometer: This is a mechanical device similar to the regular windmill used to calculate the velocity of the wind. It consists of the axis of rotation running parallel to the direction of the wind.
  • Laser Doppler anemometer: A beam of light is used which is further split into two beams. The velocity is determined by calculating the amount of light that has been reflected.
  • Sonic anemometer: Sound waves from this anemometer are used to obtain the speed of the wind. These waves are made to pass through the transducer. These find applications in aircraft and scientific wind turbines.

Additional Information

• Manometers are devices in which columns of a suitable liquid are used to measure the difference in pressure between two points or between a certain point and the atmosphere.
• An odometer is a device that is used for measuring the distance traveled by a vehicle.
• A barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure, also called barometric pressure.

The correct answer is 'All persons are equal before the law and Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, and shops.'

Key Points

• Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution:
  • The Right to Equality is a fundamental right enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
  • It ensures that all citizens are treated equally before the law and that no individual or group is discriminated against on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Key aspects of the Right to Equality:
  • Article 14: Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
  • Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 16: Ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • Article 17: Abolishes "untouchability" and forbids its practice in any form.
  • Article 18: Abolishes titles except military and academic distinctions.

Additional Information

• Citizens can be discriminated against based on religion, caste, or sex: This is incorrect as Article 15 explicitly prohibits such discrimination.
• The State can discriminate against anyone in matters of employment: This is incorrect as Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity in public employment.

Option 1 is incorrect.

In News

• The Hindu: Kerala takes a pioneering step to curb antimicrobial resistance.

Key Points

Operation AMRITH (Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention for Total Health):

• Kerala recently initiated Operation AMRITH (Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention for Total Health). Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• This programme enforces the original H1 rule, mandating a doctor’s prescription for acquiring any class of antibiotics. Hence option 2 is correct.
• It is short for Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention for Total Health.
• It is a significant initiative launched by the Kerala Drug Control Department, to tackle the growing issue of antimicrobial resistance (AMR).

Objective:

• To optimize the use of antibiotics and curb their overuse by preventing over-the-counter (OTC) sales and ensuring compliance with prescription requirements. Hence option 3 is correct.

Implementation:

• Pharmacy Regulations: Pharmacies are mandated to:
  • Maintain accurate records of antibiotic sales.
  • Display notices stating that antibiotics require a doctor's prescription.
  • Face strict action for selling antibiotics without a prescription.
  • Hence option 4 is correct.
• Public Participation:
  • Individuals can report pharmacies selling antibiotics without a prescription to the Drug Control Department.
  • A toll-free number is provided for lodging complaints.
• Enforcement:
  • Surprise raids are conducted in retail medical shops to detect OTC sales of antibiotics.

Significance:

• Reduce the misuse and overuse of antibiotics, which is a major driver of AMR.
• Improve public awareness about the importance of responsible antibiotic use.
• Help preserve the effectiveness of life-saving antibiotics for future generations.

The correct answer is Only (a)

Explanation:-

(a) Sodium reacts vigorously with water to produce hydrogen gas. This statement is correct. Sodium is a highly reactive metal. When it comes into contact with water, it reacts vigorously to form sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrogen gas (H₂). This reaction is quite exothermic and can sometimes ignite the hydrogen gas that is produced.

(b) Gold reacts with oxygen at room temperature to form an oxide layer. This statement is incorrect. Gold is one of the least reactive chemical elements, and it is resistant to corrosion and oxidation in most conditions, including exposure to oxygen at room temperature. This property is why gold is often found in its native metallic form and used in jewelry and electronics.

Therefore, the statement (a) Sodium reacts vigorously with water to produce hydrogen gas is correct, while the statement (b) Gold reacts with oxygen at room temperature to form an oxide layer is incorrect.

Conclusion:-

So, the correct statement is Only (a)

The correct chronological order is A, E, B, D, C.

Key Points

• Battle of Arbela (331 BC):
  • This was a major battle in which Alexander the Great defeated the Persian army of Darius III.
  • It took place near the city of Arbela (modern-day Erbil, Iraq).
• ​Battle of Hydaspes (326 BC):
  • This was a battle between Alexander the Great and the Indian king Porus.
  • It took place near the Hydaspes River (modern-day Jhelum River, Pakistan).
• Battle of Pallalur(618 AD):
  • ​The Battle of Pullalur was a battle fought between the Chalukya king Pulakesin II and the Pallava king Mahendravarman I in the town of Pullalur in about 618–19.
• Battle of Takkolam(948 AD):
  • ​The Battle of Takkolam was a military engagement between a contingent of troops led by Rajaditya, crown prince and eldest son of the Chola king Parantaka I.
  • Another led by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III at Takkolam in southern India.
• ​Battle of Tarain (1192 AD):
  • This was a battle between the Ghurid Empire and the Chauhan dynasty of northern India.
  • It took place near the town of Tarain (modern-day Thanesar, India).

The correct answer is Sublimation

Key Points

• Sublimation occurs when a solid substance absorbs energy (usually in the form of heat) and transforms directly into a gas, bypassing the liquid phase.
• The reverse process, where a gas turns directly into a solid, is called deposition.
• Examples:
  • Dry ice is a common example of sublimation.
  • At room temperature and standard pressure, solid carbon dioxide sublimates into carbon dioxide gas.
  • Solid iodine crystals can sublime when heated.
  • The purple vapor observed when heating iodine is due to its sublimation.
  • Sublimation occurs when the vapor pressure of the solid exceeds the atmospheric pressure.
  • In other words, the solid must have a significant vapor pressure, even at low temperatures.
• Factors affecting sublimation include temperature, pressure, and the nature of the substance.
• Applications:
  • In the pharmaceutical and food industries, freeze-drying (lyophilization) is used to preserve substances by sublimating water directly from frozen products (e.g., instant coffee, and fruits).
  • Some air fresheners contain solid compounds that sublime slowly, releasing pleasant scents into the air.
  • In forensics, sublimation is used to detect certain substances (e.g., drugs) by observing their sublimation patterns.

Additional Information

• Evaporation:
  • Evaporation is the process by which a liquid (such as water) changes into a vapor (gas) at a temperature below its boiling point.
  • It occurs at the liquid’s surface, where molecules gain enough energy to escape and become vapor.
  • Examples include water evaporating from a puddle or wet clothes drying on a clothesline.
• Adsorption:
  • Adsorption is the process of molecules adhering to the surface of a solid or liquid.
  • It occurs when gas or liquid molecules accumulate on the surface of an adsorbent material (e.g., activated carbon, silica gel).
  • Adsorption is commonly used in water purification, gas masks, and chromatography.
• Solid Phase Extraction (SPE):
  • SPE is a technique used to separate and concentrate specific compounds from a mixture.
  • It involves passing a liquid sample through a solid material (usually a sorbent) to selectively retain the target analyte.
  • The retained analyte is then eluted for further analysis.
  • SPE is commonly used in analytical chemistry and sample preparation.

​

The correct answer is ​1889.

Key Points

• Ahmadiya movement
  • It was Started in around 1889 at a town Quadiyan (Gurdaspur, Punjab) under the leadership of Mirza Ghulam Ahmed of Quadim (1835-1908) who in 1891 claimed that he was a prophet, revivalist, and the messiah (mandir) anticipated by Muslims to appear towards the end times and bring about, by peaceful means, the final triumph of Islam. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • "Ahmadi's thought emphasizes the belief that Islam is the final dispensation for humanity as revealed to Muhammad and the necessity of restoring it to its true intent and pristine form, which had been lost through the centuries.
  • It emphasized the humanitarian and universal character of Islam.
  • It also emphasized that technological progress should be regarded by the Muslims as a part of God's purpose and should be given religious recognition.
  • It was strictly apolitical.
  • It was conservative in social morals.
  • The movement split into two following the death of Ahmad's successor, Maulana Nur ad-Din in 1914 into Quadiyani and Lahori.
    • One group affirming Ahmad's messianic status (The Ahmadiyya/ Quadiyani Movement)
    • A second group regarding him as a reformer, but otherwise adhering to mainstream Islamic beliefs that understand Muhammad to have been the final prophet (the Lahore Ahmadiyya Movement)

The correct answer is Option 3.

In News

• Indian Express: Nvidia’s Project GR00T, designed to create AI-powered humanoid robots

Key Points

Project GR00T:

• Recently, Nvidia has announced Project GR00T or Generalist Robot 00 Technology, which promises to revolutionize the evolution of humanoid robots. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The project aims to empower humanoid robots with human-like understanding and movement using Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• Project GR00T is essentially a general-purpose foundation model for humanoid robots. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is at the vanguard of Nvidia’s efforts to drive robotics and embodied AI breakthroughs.
• Robots built on this platform are designed to understand natural language and emulate movements by observing human actions, such as instantly learning coordination, dexterity, and other skills. This can help the robots navigate and engage with the real world around them.
• The model has been trained on NVIDIA GPU-accelerated simulation and enables the humanoids to learn from human demonstrations with imitation learning, and the robotics platform NVIDIA Isaac Lab for reinforcement learning.
• Project GR00T is a multimodal AI system that acts as the mind for humanoid robots, allowing them to learn new skills and interact with the real world.
• Leading names in robotics, such as Figure, Boston Dynamics, Apptronik, Agility Robotics, Sanctuary AI, and Unitree, are reported to have partnered with Nvidia to leverage GR00T.

Additional Information

• Nvidia also unveiled a new computer, Jetson Thor, to aid humanoid robots based on NVIDIA’s Thor system-on-chip (SoC).
• Thor is powering the intelligence of these robots, and the chip has been designed to handle complex tasks along with ensuring a safe and natural interaction between humans and robots.

In ancient India, the term 'satr' was used for a special class of spy who was an orphan trained from childhood for the work.

Key Points

• The term "satr" in ancient India refers to a special class of spy who was an orphan trained from childhood for the work.
• They were highly skilled in espionage and infiltration and were often used to gather intelligence on enemy forces or to carry out covert operations.
• The satr were typically recruited from among the poor and orphaned children, who were considered to be more expendable and less likely to be missed.
• They were then taken to a secret training facility, where they were taught the skills of espionage and warfare.
• The training was rigorous and demanding, and only the most capable students survived.
• Once they had completed their training, the satr were assigned to missions of varying importance.
• They might be tasked with gathering intelligence on enemy troop movements, assassinating enemy leaders, or sabotaging enemy infrastructure.
• The satr were often successful in their missions, and they played a vital role in the security of ancient India.
• The term "satr" is also used in a more general sense to refer to any spy or intelligence agent.
• However, the original meaning of the term refers specifically to the special class of orphan spies who were trained from childhood for the work.​

Additional Information​

• Here are some additional details about the satr:
  • They were often disguised as beggars, merchants, or holy men in order to blend in and gather information.
  • They were skilled in disguise, deception, and infiltration.
  • They were often used to carry out assassinations, sabotage, and other covert operations.
  • They were considered to be highly effective spies, and they played a vital role in the security of ancient India.
• The satr are a fascinating example of the ingenuity and creativity of ancient Indian intelligence agencies.
• They were highly skilled and effective spies who played a vital role in the security of their country.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

Footloose industries:

• A footloose industry is one which is not tied to any particular location or country.
• It can relocate to another place without effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital.
• The footloose industry is such a type of industry which doesn’t have a strong locational preference as the input resources and output markets can be found in many places.
• These are called footloose as these types of industries are prone to relocation.
• Therefore these industries enjoy a relatively free choice of location. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Although locational factors are not much important for footloose industries.
  • ​Those areas are preferred where input costs can be minimized and output realization can be maximized.
• Some prominent examples of the footloose industry are watch-making, diamond cutting, precision electronics etc.
• These industries are crucial for the development of areas which lack locational advantages with respect to heavy and small industries like port facilities, availability of raw materials, etc.
• Good development of the footloose industry can provide high-value employment opportunities and a competitive advantage in world trade.
• These are environment-friendly industries as the process involved in these industries has a negligible carbon footprint. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It prefers a location which is peaceful and cost-friendly to attract human capital.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• As per the Census of 2011, a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.
• According to the Census of 2011 literacy rate in the country are 74.04%, 82.14% for males, and 65.46% for females.
• There are wide regional disparities in literacy rates across the states of India.
• Bihar has the lowest (63.82%) literacy rate whereas Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 93.91%.
• According to the Census of 2011, Nagaland's population growth rate is negative which is (- 0.58%).
• GDP per capita is a measure of the country’s economic output that accounts for the population.
• It is not a complete measure of economic welfare and only addresses average income.
• It is not able to reflect on how most people live and who benefits from economic growth.
• Poverty, deprivation, malnutrition, illiteracy, and regional disparities fail to give a true impression of economic achievements.
• Therefore a growing GDP cannot be assumed to necessarily lead to sustainable development and poverty reduction. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The 2011 census of India was very disturbing, particularly in the case of the child sex ratio in the age group of 0-6 years.
• The child sex ratio has declined in all the states except Kerala and is most alarming in the developed states of Haryana, and Punjab.
• It is below the national average of 919. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi movement was a direct consequence of the British Indian government's decision to partition Bengal.
• The two main goals of this movement were the use of Swadeshi goods and the boycott of foreign-made goods.
• A Boycott Resolution was passed in Calcutta City Hall on August 7, 1905, where it was decided to boycott the use of Manchester cloth and salt from Liverpool.
• Vande Mataram became the boycott and Swadeshi movement theme song.
• However, the Indian National Congress under the Presidentship of G.K.Gokhale formally approved the Swadeshi Movement at Banaras session in December 1905. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Objectives:
  • Condemn the partition of Bengal,
  • Condemn the reactionary policies of Curzon, and
  • Support the anti-partition and Swadeshi Movement of Bengal.
• As the Moderate-Extremist disputes were there regarding the attitude towards the Swadeshi Movement, it increased with the pace of the movement, and techniques of struggle reached a deadlock, Hence, to resolve it, Dadabhai Nauroji attempted in the Calcutta Session.
• Under Swadeshi, Rabindranath Tagore founded Shanti Niketan and Satish Mukherjee founded Dawn Society to impart native education.
• Rabindranath Tagore gave a call for Rakhi Bandhan as a token of Hindu-Muslim unity and wrote articles under the title “ Atma Shakti “. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The original conception of Boycott was mainly an economic one. It had two distinct, but allied purposes in view.
  • To bring pressure upon the British public by the pecuniary loss they would suffer by the boycott of British goods, particularly the Manchester cotton goods for which Bengal provided the richest market in India.
  • It was regarded as essential for the revival of an indigenous industry which being at its infant stage could never grow in the face of free competition with foreign countries which had highly developed industries.
• Bal Gangadha Tilak described Swadeshi as Yoga of Bahiskar, a religious ritual of self-punishment.

The correct answer is None.

In News

• Down to Earth: 40 spotted deer translocated within Karnataka marking a new era in wildlife management.

Key Points

Spotted Deer:

• The Spotted Deer, also known as the chital or cheetal (Axis axis), is a distinct species from the sambar.
• The sambar deer (Rusa unicolor) is a larger deer species also native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
• The chital is easily identifiable by its beautiful golden-brown coat dotted with white spots, which remain throughout its life.
• The sambar, on the other hand, has a darker, uniform brown coat and is considerably larger than the chital. Therefore, mixing up these two species is a common mistake. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Spotted Deer is adaptable to various types of habitats but is primarily found in woodlands, dry deciduous forests, dense forests (which can include evergreen forests), and areas with thick vegetation that provide ample food and cover.
• They are also commonly seen in the vicinity of water sources.
• Their association is not limited to evergreen forests alone; they have a wide range of habitats including grasslands and lightly wooded areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Spotted Deer, or chital, was classified as Least Concern by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List .
• This classification implies that the species is not currently at risk of extinction in the wild.
• The designation reflects their widespread distribution and relatively stable population numbers, although they are susceptible to habitat loss, poaching, and predation. Unlike what is suggested in the statement, they are not categorized as Vulnerable. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

​

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Technopolis:

• High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities.
• It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
• High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised are called technopolis. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolis.
• Professional (white-collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce.
• These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (blue-collar) workers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Robotics on the assembly line, computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of high-tech industries.

White-Collar Workers:

• Quaternary services represent a special type of service work focussing on professional and administrative services.
• These activities include financial and health services, information processing, teaching and government services and entertainment services.
• Almost all activity related to quaternary services takes place in office building environments or specialised environments like those provided by schools, hospitals, hotels, theatres etc.
• People engaged in these activities are called white-collar workers.