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SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2

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SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

In the sentence, certain words are in underline and numbered from A to E, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words which need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The only thing (A) utilization the (B) prohibiting of such (C) precious and valuable (D) manpower is a lack of planning and strategic (E) foresight.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is option 2) A-B.

Let us look at the sentence in the following way-

The only thing (A) _________ the (B) _________ of such (C) _________ and valuable (D) _________ is a lack of planning and strategic (E) _________.

  • Meanings of the words given in underline are:
    • Utilization means the action of making practical and effective use of something.
    • Prohibiting means formally forbidding (something) by law, rule, or other authority.
    • Precious means of great value; not to be wasted or treated carelessly.
    • Manpower means the number of people working or available for work or service.
    • Foresight means the ability to predict what will happen or be needed in the future.
  • It is clear that C and D are correct. Also, E justifies the underline word.
  • A requires a verb that means 'denying something'. B requires a noun. Prohibiting is a verb. Utilization is a noun. Hence, we need to interchange A and B to make the sentence correct.

Corrected sentence - The only thing (A) prohibiting the (B) utilization of such (C) precious and valuable (D) manpower is a lack of planning and strategic (E) foresight.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with certain words in underline. Choose the pair of such words which need to be interchanged so as to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The (A) dampener on terrorism in the joint statement was something of a (B) language for those who would have (C) hoped there would have been a stronger (D) condemnation of the terror attack in Pulwama.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Words A and B have to be interchanged.

(A) here language is the correct word. The meaning of language here is referred to as the impact of terrorism.
(B) here dampener is the correct word. Dampener means to have a restraining or subduing effect. It forms a suitable phrase here according to the context of the sentence.

Other words are placed correctly.
(D) here condemnation means strong disapproval or criticism.

Correct sentence – The language on terrorism in the joint statement was something of a dampener for those who would have hoped there would be a stronger condemnation of the terror attack in Pulwama.

Hence, option 4 is the correct choice.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
A. the government’s latest advice
B. the drug
C. doctors worry that
D. optimistic perception of
E. will create an overly

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. CAEDB.

  • First is C as it establishes the subject i.e. what doctors are worried about. C is the only opener that can form a meaningful sentence.
  • Next is A as it contextually follows C.
  • E follows A as it tells what the advice will create.
  • Next is D as 'overly' is an adjective and it requires a noun(optimistic) following it.
  • Last is B as it contextually follows 'of'.

Correct sentence- Doctors worry that the government’s latest advice will create an overly optimistic perception of the drug.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The question below comprises four scattered segments of a paragraph. Identify from among the four choices the sequences that correctly assemble the segments and complete the paragraph.

A. The profession helps to encourage development and facilitate recovery.
B. Physiotherapists help people affected by injury, illness or disability through movement and exercise, manual therapy, education and advice.
C. Thus, it enables people to stay in work while helping them to remain independent for as long as possible.
D. They maintain health for people of all ages, helping patients to manage pain and prevent disease.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

We can tell that B is the first sentence since the subject and the topic is introduced here. Also, sentences starting with ‘thus’ are usually concluding sentences. Hence, B is the first and C is the last. In D, ‘they’ is given which refers to the physiotherapists hence, D is the second sentence.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following sentences is TRUE according to the passage?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To this question, let's examine each sentence given as an option:

  • Option 1: Children with chronic health conditions, such as asthma or obesity, are less susceptible to heat-related illnesses.
    • This statement is false. The passage clearly mentions that children and adolescents with chronic health conditions, such as asthma, obesity, or diabetes, are even more susceptible to heat-related illnesses.
  • Option 2: The paper suggests that humans have fully adapted and acclimatized to climate variations.
    • This statement is false. The passage does not suggest that humans have fully adapted and acclimatized to climate variations. It highlights the limits to which our bodies can process climate changes.
  • Option 3: The correlation between health outcomes and environmental conditions has been extensively studied.
    • This statement is false. The passage mentions that the correlation between health outcomes and environmental conditions has been broadly hinted at but not studied in detail.
  • Option 4: Extreme heat during pregnancy and early childhood can impact learning, sleep, and health.
    • This statement is true. The passage explicitly states that extreme heat during pregnancy and early childhood can impact learning, sleep quality, and mental and behavioural health.
  • Option 5: Children and adolescents with chronic health conditions are less susceptible to heat-related illnesses.
    • This statement is false. The passage clearly states that children and adolescents with chronic health conditions are even more susceptible to heat-related illnesses.
  • So, out of the given sentences, only option 4 is true, while all the other options are false based on the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Extreme heat during pregnancy and early childhood can impact learning, sleep, and health."
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

What is the overall tone of the passage?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, read the passage carefully and examine the overall tone of the passage:
  • The passage discusses the impact of global warming on temperatures worldwide, emphasizing the increasing frequency and duration of heat waves. It highlights the declaration by the World Meteorological Organisation that 2023 was the hottest year on record. The passage also introduces a working paper from Harvard University, discussing how extreme heat affects early childhood development and health, as well as providing practical solutions to mitigate climate change.
  • So, upon close examination, the passage conveys a "Concerned and urgent" tone. It addresses the significant disruptions caused by global warming, emphasizes the potential adverse effects on early childhood development, and urgently calls for a detailed study of the correlation between health outcomes and environmental conditions. The tone is more inclined towards expressing concern and urgency about the impacts of climate change, indicating the need for immediate attention and action.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Concerned and urgent."
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

What does the passage suggest as a potential reason for 2023 being declared the hottest year on record by the World Meteorological Organisation?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's refer to the following information from the passage regarding the reason for 2023 being declared the hottest year on record by the World Meteorological Organisation:
  • "Heat waves are occurring with greater frequency and are lasting longer than ever before, with the World Meteorological Organisation declaring that 2023 was the hottest year on record."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the passage suggests the rise in the frequency and duration of heat waves as the potential reason for 2023 being declared the hottest year on record. The information explicitly mentions that heat waves are occurring more frequently and lasting longer, leading to the declaration by the World Meteorological Organisation.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Rise in the frequency and duration of heat waves."
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (1)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (1):

This ___(1)___ calls for a conducive learning environment, highlighting the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering these reforms.

  • This sentence emphasizes the need for a conducive learning environment and stresses the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in implementing educational reforms.
  • Blank (1) should be filled with a word related to a guiding principle or belief system that guides the creation of a conducive learning environment, such as "philosophy."

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:

  • Routine - a sequence of actions regularly followed; a fixed program
    • For Example:
    • Her morning routine included jogging in the park and preparing a healthy breakfast.
  • Philosophy - the study of fundamental nature, knowledge, reality, existence, values, reason, mind, and language
    • For Example:
    • Eastern philosophy often emphasizes mindfulness and the interconnectedness of all things.
  • Hypothesis - a supposition or proposed explanation made based on limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation (परिकल्पना)
    • For Example:
    • Before experimenting, the scientist formulated a hypothesis to guide the research.
  • Foundation - the basis or groundwork of anything (आधार)
    • For Example:
    • Education is the foundation for personal and societal development.
  • Nostalgia - a sentimental longing or wistful affection for the past, typically for a period or place with happy personal associations (विरह)
    • For Example:
    • Looking at old photographs filled him with nostalgia for the carefree days of his youth.
  • So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (1) is "philosophy." It aligns with the idea that a guiding principle or belief system is needed to create a conducive learning environment, emphasizing the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering educational reforms.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "philosophy."
  • The complete sentence would be: "This philosophy calls for a conducive learning environment, highlighting the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering these reforms."
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (2)?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (2):
Educational campuses, with ___(2)___ room for student interaction, play a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies.

  • This sentence emphasizes the importance of educational campuses providing sufficient space for student interaction to shape behavioural tendencies positively.
  • Blank (2) should be filled with a word suggesting an abundance or adequacy of space, like "sufficient" or "ample," to convey the idea of a spacious environment promoting student interaction.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:

  • Juggle - manage (multiple tasks or responsibilities) skillfully, especially simultaneously (बहुकार्य करना)
    • For Example:
    • She had to juggle her job, family, and personal commitments to maintain a balanced life.
  • Stagnate - cease to flow or move; become stagnant (स्थिर)
    • For Example:
    • Without innovation and new ideas, a business may stagnate and lose its competitive edge.
  • Ample - enough or more than enough; plentiful (प्रचुर)
    • For Example:
    • The buffet offered ample choices for both vegetarians and non-vegetarians.
  • Scarce - insufficient for the demand; not plentiful (कम)
    • For Example:
    • During the drought, water became scarce, causing hardship for the local residents.
  • Wiggle - move or cause to move up and down or from side to side with small, quick movements
    • For Example:
    • The toddler started to wiggle in excitement as soon as she saw the colourful balloons.
  • So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (2) is "ample." It aligns with the idea that educational campuses should have sufficient room for student interaction, playing a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies positively.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "ample."
  • The complete sentence would be: "Educational campuses, with ample room for student interaction, play a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies."
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is BCEDA.
    • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces a person whose name is 'Sheetal Devi' who was noticed by the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan in the youth event organized by the Indian army.
    • Sentence C will come after B as it gives further information about Sheetal Devi; she was born with Phocomelia, and she had no arms.
    • Sentence E will come after C, as it says after knowing the condition, the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics (the branch of surgery concerned with the making and fitting of artificial body parts) but prosthetics were not possible in her case.
    • Sentence D will come after E, as it was a challenge to face; the coaches had never trained a person for archery who has no arms.
    • The sentence 'A' is the concluding or last sentence, as it says the coaches did some research about the possibility of training her, and eventually, they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: In the youth event organized by the Indian army, the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan noticed Sheetal Devi's confidence and decided to train her. As she was born with Phocomelia, she had no arms. So firstly the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics but the medics said that prosthetics were not possible in her case. Now coaches had one more challenge to face, they had never trained a person for archery who has no arms. But coaches did some research about whether it was possible to train her, and eventually they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is BCEDA.
    • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces a person whose name is 'Sheetal Devi' who was noticed by the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan in the youth event organized by the Indian army.
    • Sentence C will come after B as it gives further information about Sheetal Devi; she was born with Phocomelia, and she had no arms.
    • Sentence E will come after C, as it says after knowing the condition, the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics (the branch of surgery concerned with the making and fitting of artificial body parts), but prosthetics were not possible in her case.
    • Sentence D will come after E, as it was a challenge to face; the coaches had never trained a person for archery who has no arms.
    • The sentence 'A' is the concluding or last sentence, as it says the coaches did some research about the possibility of training her, and eventually, they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: In the youth event organized by the Indian army, the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan noticed Sheetal Devi's confidence and decided to train her. As she was born with Phocomelia, she had no arms. So firstly the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics but the medics said that prosthetics were not possible in her case. Now coaches had one more challenge to face, they had never trained a person for archery who has no arms. But coaches did some research about whether it was possible to train her, and eventually they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

  • The correct sequence or order of the segments after rearrangement is BCEDA.
    • The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it introduces a person whose name is 'Sheetal Devi' who was noticed by the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan in the youth event organized by the Indian army.
    • Sentence C will come after B as it gives further information about Sheetal Devi; she was born with Phocomelia, and she had no arms.
    • Sentence E will come after C, as it says after knowing the condition, the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics (the branch of surgery concerned with the making and fitting of artificial body parts), but prosthetics were not possible in her case.
    • Sentence D will come after E, as it was a challenge to face; the coaches had never trained a person for archery who has no arms.
    • The sentence 'A' is the concluding or last sentence, as it says the coaches did some research about the possibility of training her, and eventually, they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences: In the youth event organized by the Indian army, the army coaches Abhilasha Chaudhary and Kuldeep Wadhwan noticed Sheetal Devi's confidence and decided to train her. As she was born with Phocomelia, she had no arms. So firstly the coaches decided to help her with prosthetics but the medics said that prosthetics were not possible in her case. Now coaches had one more challenge to face, they had never trained a person for archery who has no arms. But coaches did some research about whether it was possible to train her, and eventually they came to know about Matt Stutzman, who was armless and used his legs for archery.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Direction: Read the following sentence and determine whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in two parts of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, then select ‘No Error’ as your answer.

But during the first nineteen month (A) of my life, I had catched glimpses of broad, green fields, (B) a luminous sky, trees, and flowers which (C) the darkness that followed could not wholly blot out. (D)

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

The correct answer is A and B​- the error lies in these parts only.

Key Points

The partsBut during the first nineteen month' and 'of my life, I had catched glimpses of' are grammatically incorrect.

The corrected form of the erroneous parts are:
A: In part A ''But during the first nineteen month'' is grammatically incorrect. Here the word 'month' should be replaced with 'months' to rectify the mistake. Thus, the correct part will be "But during the first nineteen months".
B: In part B ''of my life, I had catched glimpses of'' is grammatically incorrect. According to the structure of Past Perfect Tense had is followed by the third form of the verb (V3). But here had is followed by catched which is incorrect, so it should be replaced with caught(V3) for making the sentence grammatically correct. Thus, the correct part will be "of my life, I had caught glimpses of''.
Therefore, option 1) is the correct answer.
Thus, the correct sentence is: But during the first nineteen months of my life, I had caught glimpses of broad, green fields, a luminous sky, trees, and flowers which the darkness that followed could not wholly blot out.

Additional Information

Past Perfect Tense: The structure of sentence with had(Past Perfect Tense): Subject + had + v3 + object + other words
​For e.g.,- John had baked a cake before you arrived.
Plural noun: When you use the number one to modify a noun, it is clear that the noun is singular. Other numbers, including zero, usually require a plural noun (two windows, 144 chairs). A plural number can be used with certain singular nouns that often act as adjectives (99 percent pure, four-minute mile).
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Read the following sentence and determine whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, then select ‘No Error’ as your answer.

Yet beneath the (A)/ostensibly innocuous exchanges, (B)/ a very subtle form of power play (C)/ is often under the way. (D)

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

The correct answer is -is often under the way - the error lies in this part only.

Key Points

In the given sentence, the error is in part C where under the way is an incorrect expression.

  • Underway is an adverb that means in progress. It can also be an adjective, where it has the same meaning, except that it modifies nouns instead of verbs.
  • Hence the article ‘the’ should be removed to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Thus, the correct sentence is: Yet beneath the ostensibly innocuous exchanges, a very subtle form of power play is often underway.

Additional Information

When used as an adjective, underway is used after the sentence’s verb. This part of the sentence is called its predicate, so underway is technically a predicate adjective. It still functions the same as any other adjective. The only difference is the part of the sentence where it appears.

  • For e.g.- “The matinee is already underway,” said the usher, refusing to open the doors until the end of the scene.
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Directions: Directions: In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to H, which are the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of the words that need(s) to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

a. It's tenderly (A) that the chimneys of those plants (B) in the city eject (C) a lot of smoke (D) every day.
b. She embraced (E) her son annoying (F) when he came (G) home after ten years' absence (H).

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

The correct answer is option 5) i.e. A-F.

Key Points

  • Let us look at the sentences in the following way:
    1. It's ______(A) that the chimneys of those _______(B) in the city ______(C) a lot of _______(D) every day.
    2. She _______(E) her son _______(F) when he _________(G) home after ten years' _______(H).
  • In sentence 1, from the remaining words left, we get to know that it talks about the effects of something's chimneys on a city.
  • In sentence 2, from the remaining words left, we get to know that it talks about a mother, and her son who returned home after ten years.

Additional Information

  • Let us look into the meanings of the words:
    • Tenderly - with gentleness, kindness, and affection.
    • Plants - buildings for carrying on industrial labour.
    • Eject - emit; give off.
    • Smoke - a visible suspension of carbon or other particles in the air, typically one emitted from a burning substance
    • Embraced - held (someone) closely in one's arms, especially as a sign of affection.
    • Annoying - causing irritation or annoyance.
    • Came - moved or travelled towards or into a place thought of as near or familiar to the speaker.
    • Absence - the state of being away from a place or person.
  • In Blank A, the word 'tenderly' is incorrect as it is out of context because a chimney cannot be tender. An adjective has to be used here instead of the adverb 'tenderly'.
  • In Blank F, the word 'annoying' is incorrect as it is out of context and grammatically incorrect. An adverb has to be used here.
  • Therefore, we need to interchange A with F to make the sentences correct.

The correct sentences are:
a. It's annoying(A) that the chimneys of those plants(B) in the city eject(C) a lot of smoke(D) every day.
b. She embraced(E) her son tenderly(F) when he came(G) home after ten years' absence(H).

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

In the following sentence, four words are given in underline out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

As you practise (A) the exercise, (B) your mind and body relaxs, (C) which can help you focus and think more clearly. (D)

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The correct answer is 'relaxs '.

Key Points

  • The word 'relaxs' has been incorrectly spelled in the given sentence.
  • The correct spelling and its meaning has been listed below -
    • relaxes - to rest while you are doing something enjoyable, especially after work or effort.
  • Example - It could be where mom relaxes with a book after a hard day or where dad reads the Sunday paper every week.

Additional Information

The following are the meanings of the other highlighted words in the given sentence -

  • practise - verb meaning perform (an activity) or exercise (a skill) repeatedly or regularly in order to acquire, improve or maintain proficiency in it
  • exercise - an activity carried out for a specific purpose.
  • clearly - in a clear manner; with clarity.
SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
The given table chart shows the total number of rooms booked (online and offline) on five different days i.e. Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday.

 

Note: Number of rooms booked online in all five days is 204 and number of rooms booked offline in all five days is 176.

If the ratio of number of rooms booked online on Saturday and Wednesday is 6:5 respectively. 75% of rooms booked online on Saturday are males which is 45% of total number of rooms booked on Saturday, then find the number of rooms booked offline on Saturday.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Monday:
Total rooms booked: 75
Online > Offline & Online – Offline = 15
So, online booked = x
Offline booked = x – 15
⇒ x + x - 15 = 75
⇒ x = 45
Online booked = 45
Offline booked = 30

Tuesday:
Total rooms booked: 60
Offline > Online & Offline – Online = 12
So, offline booked = x
Online booked = x – 12
⇒ x + x - 12 = 60
⇒ x = 36
Offline booked = 36
Online booked = 24

Wednesday:
Total rooms booked: 80
Online > Offline & Online – Offline = 40
So, online booked = x
Offline booked = x – 40
⇒ x + x - 40 = 80
⇒ x = 60
Online booked = 60
Offline booked = 20

Thursday:
Total rooms booked: 45
Offline > Online & Offline – Online = 27
So, offline booked = x
Online booked = x – 27
⇒ x + x - 27 = 45
⇒ x = 36
Offline booked = 36
Online booked = 9

Friday:
Total rooms booked: 120
Online > Offline & Online – Offline = 12
So, online booked = x
Offline booked = x – 12
⇒ x + x - 12 = 120
⇒ x = 66
Online booked = 66
Offline booked = 54

Number of rooms booked online on Saturday 
Number of rooms booked online on Saturday are males 
Total number of rooms booked on Saturday 
Number of rooms booked offline on Saturday = 120 - 72 = 48

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

What is the ratio of total number of men and children, who visited zoo on Monday to the total number of women and children, who visited zoo on Wednesday ?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

The total number of people, who visited the zoo on all three days of the week is 10000
On Monday 1000 children visited the zoo

The ratio of children, who visited the zoo on Monday and Wednesday is 2 : 1 respectively.
Then 2 unit = 1000
⇒ 1 unit = 500 hence 500 children visited the zoo on Wednesday.

The total number of children, who visited the zoo on all three days is 2500
Then, the number of children, who visited the zoo on Tuesday = 2500 -(1000+500)
⇒ 2500 - 1500 = 1000

The number of men, who visited the zoo on Tuesday is 50% more than the number of children, who visited the zoo on Wednesday
⇒ 500 × 150/ 100 = 750

2000 women visited on Wednesday
Men, who visited the zoo on Monday, and women, who visited the zoo on Wednesday are 5 : 4 respectively.

Then 4 unit = 2000 so 5 unit = 2500
The number of men visited on Monday is 2500

The Total number of men, who visited on all three days is 70% more than the total number of children, who visited on all three days
⇒ 2500 × 170 / 100
⇒ 4250

Then, the number of men visited on Wednesday is = 4250- (2500+750)
⇒ 4250 - 3250 = 1000

The number of men, who visited the zoo on Wednesday is 500 more than the number of women, who visited the zoo on Monday.
⇒ 1000 - 500 = 500

Total number of women visited on all three days
⇒ 10000 -(4250+2500) = 3250

Then, the number of women, who visited on Tuesday
⇒ 3250-(2000+500) = 750

The number of men and women, who visited the zoo on Monday is 2500 and 1000 respectively 
⇒ 2500 + 1000 = 3500
The number of women and children, who visited the zoo on Wednesday is 2000 and 500 respectively 
⇒ 2000 + 500 = 2500
Then, the respective ratio is 3500 : 2500
⇒ 7 : 5 
Hence, 7 : 5 is the correct answer.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
23, 30, 56, 118, 243, 458

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

The pattern of the given series is:
⇒ 23
⇒ 23 + (23 – 1) = 30
⇒ 30 + (33 – 1) = 56
⇒ 56 + (43 – 1) = 119
⇒ 119 + (53 – 1) = 243
⇒ 243 + (63 – 1) = 458
∴ The wrong term is 118.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Find the value of ‘?’ in the following question

55 × 65 + 67 × 73 + 84 × 86 – 99 × 101 = ?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Shortcut Trick

Since the options have different unit digits, by looking at the unit digit of the terms, we can arrive at the possible solution without calculation.
Taking the unit digit: 5 × 5 + 7 × 3 + 4 × 6 – 9 × 1 = 25 + 21 + 24 - 9
Again taking only the unit place, 5 + 1 + 4 – 9 = 1
So, the possible answer for the given question is 5691.

Detailed Solution:

Concept used:
Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:
Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,
Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,
Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,
Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.
Now,

Calculations:
Considering the given equation
55 × 65 + 67 × 73 + 84 × 86 – 99 × 101 = ?
⇒ 3575 + 4891 + 7224 – 9999
⇒ 5691
∴ ? = 5691

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Difference between the number of marbles in box F and box T is ___.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Six boxes: F, G, H, U, T, and Q
Number of marbles: 6, 25, 36, 60, 49 and 52
i) Box Q is placed at the top.
ii) Two boxes are placed between the boxes Q and U.
iii) The box which has 52 marbles is placed just above box U.
iv) Number of marbles in the box Q is a perfect square number but not 49.

Following are the possibilities we get,

v) Only two boxes are placed below the box which has 16 marbles.
This condition is not satisfied in case 3. So, it is eliminated.

vi) Box F is placed above the box T, which is placed just above box H.
vii) Box G is placed just below the box which has the maximum number of marbles.

viii) Difference between the number of marbles in box T and box Q is 13.
The above statement is satisfied only in case 1.
So the final arrangement is,

Number of marbles in the box F - Number of marbles in the box T = 60 - 49 = 11
Hence, the difference between the number of marbles in box F and box T is '11'.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Who went to Andaman on September 11?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Given:
12 peopleA, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
2 dates11 and 24
1. C went in the first month of the year.
2. P went before C.
3. 4 people went to Andaman between P and F.


4. 2 people went between S and E, who went on the 11th of September.
5. A went to Andaman immediately after F but before S.
6. B went to Andaman in the month with 30 days.


7. D went to Andaman immediately before R and after immediately U.
8. T went to Andaman before Q on the same date but in different months.


(Case 1a will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 8.)
Final arrangement:


Hence, E went to Andaman on September 11.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Who went to Andaman immediately before the one who went there 2 people before Q?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Given:
12 peopleA, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
2 dates11 and 24
1. C went in the first month of the year.
2. P went before C.
3. 4 people went to Andaman between P and F.


4. 2 people went between S and E, who went on the 11th of September.
5. A went to Andaman immediately after F but before S.
6. B went to Andaman in the month with 30 days.


7. D went to Andaman immediately before R and after immediately U.
8. T went to Andaman before Q on the same date but in different months.

(Case 1a will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 8.)
Final arrangement:

T went to Andaman with 2 people before Q.
Hence, A went to Andaman immediately before T.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Who went to Andaman in March?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Given:
12 peopleA, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
2 dates 11 and 24
1. C went in the first month of the year.
2. P went before C.
3. 4 people went to Andaman between P and F.


4. 2 people went between S and E, who went on the 11th of September.
5. A went to Andaman immediately after F but before S.
6. B went to Andaman in the month with 30 days.

7. D went to Andaman immediately before R and after immediately U.
8. T went to Andaman before Q on the same date but in different months.

(Case 1a will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 8.)
Final arrangement:

Hence, U and D went to Andaman in March.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

How many people went to Andaman between B and F?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Given:
12 peopleA, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
2 dates11 and 24
1. C went in the first month of the year.
2. P went before C.
3. 4 people went to Andaman between P and F.


4. 2 people went between S and E, who went on the 11th of September.
5. A went to Andaman immediately after F but before S.
6. B went to Andaman in the month with 30 days.


7. D went to Andaman immediately before R and after immediately U.
8. T went to Andaman before Q on the same date but in different months.


(Case 1a will not be possible as it will not satisfy point 8.)
Final arrangement:

F went to Andaman on May 24.
B went to Andaman on October 11.
Hence, 4 people went to Andaman between B and F.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

____ lives in Flat 2 of 2nd floor.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

1) In the same flat number, the one who likes Apple lives immediately above the one who likes Samsung. T lives above the floor of the one who likes Apple.

2) The one who likes Apple lives on a different floor from R. Q lives below R, who likes Sony. It is given that Q lives below R which confirms that R does not live on Floor 1 and the one who likes Apple lives on Floor 2, so R does not live on Floor 2. It means that R lives on Floor 3.

3) S likes Philips and lives in a different flat number from T. Case 3 and Case 4 are eliminated as they do not satisfy the given conditions.

4) The one who likes Dell lives above the floor of the one who likes Adidas.

5) U does not like Apple and Samsung.

6) Q does not live in Flat 1. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated as they do not satisfy the given conditions.

7) At least one floor is below P. Q and U live on different floors. Case 2(a) is eliminated as it does not satisfy the given conditions.
The final arrangement is:

Hence, P lives in Flat 2 of the 2nd floor.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

If the sum of the weight of S, Q and U is 242 Kg, then find the weight of U.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Persons - P, Q, R, S, T and U.
1. P is heavier than Q but lighter than S.
S > P > Q

2. Only two persons are lighter than T.
_ > _ > _ > T > _ > _

3. Weight of S is 95 kg and that of Q is 50 kg.
S – 95 Kg and Q – 50 Kg

4. Both S and P are heavier than R but lighter than U.
U > S and P > R

5. R is not the person whose weight is least.
_ > _ > _ > T > _ > R

On combining all the points, we get:
U > S > P > T > R > Q
S + Q + U = 242 Kg
Q = 50 Kg and S = 95 kg

95 + 50 + U = 242 Kg
Or, U = (242 – 145) Kg
Therefore, U = 97 Kg
Hence, the weight of U is 97 Kg.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Who sits to the immediate right of the one who sits 11th to the left of N?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Given:
1. A sits 5th to the right of R, who sits 7th to the right of D.
2. 6 people sit between A and O, who sits 2nd to the left of D.
3. T, who sits immediately between O and D, sits 2nd to the right of J, who sits beside E.

4. I, who sits beside D, has 4 people sitting between him and M.
5. P sits to the immediate right of K, who sits 6th to the right of B, who sits beside R.
6. C sits beside H, who sits beside M.

7. S sits to the immediate right of N, who sits 3rd to the left of H.
8. F sits 3rd to the left of U, who does not sit near A.
9. Q sits beside A
10. L sits between Q and G.

A sits 11th to the left of N.
Hence, F sits to the immediate right of A.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Who sits immediately between M and B?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Given:
1. A sits 5th to the right of R, who sits 7th to the right of D.
2. 6 people sit between A and O, who sits 2nd to the left of D.
3. T, who sits immediately between O and D, sits 2nd to the right of J, who sits beside E.

4. I, who sits beside D, has 4 people sitting between him and M.
5. P sits to the immediate right of K, who sits 6th to the right of B, who sits beside R.
6. C sits beside H, who sits beside M.

7. S sits to the immediate right of N, who sits 3rd to the left of H.
8. F sits 3rd to the left of U, who does not sit near A.
9. Q sits beside A
10. L sits between Q and G.

Hence, R sits between M and B.

SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: R ≤ D ≤ X; K > V ≥ I; R = O ≥ K
Conclusions:
I. D ≤ V
II. X > K
III. I < O

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Prelims Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Given statements: R ≤ D ≤ X; K > V ≥ I; R = O ≥ K
On combining: X ≥ D ≥ R = O ≥ K > V ≥ I

Conclusions:
I. D ≤ V → False (D > R = O ≥ K > V → D > V)
II. X > K → False (X ≥ D > R = O ≥ K → X > K)
III. I < O → True (O ≥ K > V ≥ I → O > I)
Thus, Only III is True.

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