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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Judiciary Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 for Judiciary Exams 2025 is part of Judiciary Exams preparation. The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Judiciary Exams exam syllabus.The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 MCQs are made for Judiciary Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 below.
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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 1
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Which of the following individuals cannot claim specific performance of a contract?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 1

A person who has become incapable of performing the contract cannot claim specific performance. This incapacity could arise from various factors, such as legal incompetence or physical inability to fulfill the terms of the contract. The law recognizes that specific performance requires the ability to execute the contractual obligations, and if one party is unable to do so, enforcing the contract through specific performance would be unjust and impractical.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 2
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T is the mother of I. I is the mother of H. H is the daughter of G. G is the brother of Q. Q is the mother of O. O is the daughter of J. J is the son of W.

Q. How is H related to Q?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 2

The correct answer is B as 
H is Q's brother(G's) daughter
Therefore H is the niece of Q.

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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 3
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An employer deducting the employee's contribution under the EPF & Miscellaneous Provisions Act from wages payable for credit to the fund, but not depositing the same with the fund, is guilty of committing an offence under:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 3
An employer who deducts the employee’s contribution under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, but fails to deposit it with the fund commits criminal breach of trust under Section 405 of the IPC. The deducted amount is held in trust for the employee, and non-deposit constitutes misappropriation. Section 378 (Option B) defines theft, which requires movable property taken without consent, not applicable here. Section 403 (Option C) deals with dishonest misappropriation but is less specific than Section 405. Option D is incorrect, as it is an offence. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 4
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For amendment of constitution, a bill may be introduced in
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 5
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Why is it crucial for individuals and businesses to understand the principles of contract discharge by operation of law in India?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 5
Understanding the principles of contract discharge by operation of law in India is essential for individuals and businesses to maintain clarity and legal compliance in their contractual agreements. It helps in ensuring that parties are aware of the circumstances under which contracts can be automatically terminated, thus avoiding misunderstandings and legal disputes.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 6
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Right to privacy is included under which fundamental right in the Indian Constitution?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 6

The Right to Privacy is safeguarded as an inherent component of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21, along with the other fundamental freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution. The Supreme Court, in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, formally recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right. This landmark judgment overturned earlier rulings in the M.P. Sharma case (1958) and the Kharak Singh case (1961), both of which had held that privacy was not protected under the Indian Constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 7
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In an interpleader suit, what does Order XXXV Rule 4 allow the court to do at the first hearing?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 7
Order XXXV Rule 4 grants the court the authority, during the initial hearing of an interpleader suit, to absolve the plaintiff from all liabilities and responsibilities. If the court determines that the plaintiff is not at fault or involved in the dispute, they can release the plaintiff from the case, award them their costs, and dismiss the lawsuit. This provision ensures that the plaintiff is not wrongfully burdened with ongoing legal proceedings when they are not implicated in the conflict.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 8
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Three men (Tej, Partha, and Jeeva) and three women (Eleena, Anita and Kavita) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There is nobody else staying in the same row of houses.

1) Anita, Tej and Jeeva do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.

2) Anita is unwilling to stay beside any occupied cottage.

3) Kavita is next to Partha and Jeeva.

4) Between Anita and Jeeva’s cottage-there is just one vacant house.

5) None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.

6) The house occupied by Tej is next to an end cottage.

Q.
How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 8

B is the correct option. According to the question - Jeeva ..Anita..tej..eleena are all occupying cottages next to vacant one..
acc to the question..the respected positions are..
1. Kavita 2.partha 3.jeeva 4. Vacant  5.anita 6. Vacant 7.tej 8. Vacant 9. eleena

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 9
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In the context of minors entering into agreements, which of the following statements is true regarding their liability in contract and tort situations?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 9
When a minor enters into an agreement, it is important to consider the circumstances surrounding their liability in both contract and tort situations. If a tort is directly connected to the contract, the minor can be held liable, as seen in specific legal cases. This distinction is crucial in understanding the legal implications of a minor's actions within the context of agreements.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 10
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Order XXI Rule 72 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 relates to the following subject:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 10
Order XXI Rule 72 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides that a decree-holder can apply to the court for permission to bid for or purchase the property being sold in execution of a decree. This rule governs the decree-holder’s right to participate in a court sale. Therefore, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 11
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What is a concern with the BNSS’s detention powers?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 11
The BNSS allows detention until the “occasion is past” for preventing cognizable offenses, but this phrase lacks a clear definition, raising concerns. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 12
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In the context of offers and invitations to offer, what distinguishes an invitation to offer from an offer?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 12
An invitation to offer is characterized by being extended to a group of people, allowing them to express their interest or make an offer based on the terms provided. On the other hand, an offer is typically directed towards a specific individual or party, outlining specific terms and conditions that, when accepted, form a legally binding contract. This distinction is crucial in understanding the initial stages of contract formation in business transactions.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 13
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Which Article of the Constitution of India was amended to provide reservation in promotions?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 13
Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which deals with equality of opportunity in public employment, was amended (e.g., by the 77th Amendment Act, 1995) to provide for reservations in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 14
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As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the said Act is _________
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 14
Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, states that every offence under the Act, such as dishonour of cheques under Section 138, is compoundable, meaning the complainant and accused can settle the matter without court permission. This was clarified by the Supreme Court in cases like *Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayed Babalal H.* (2010). Options A and B are incorrect, as no court permission is required, and Option D is invalid, as compoundability is specified. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 15
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Which one of the following is the correct combination as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 15
The correct provisions under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, are:
- Section 13: Defines consent.
- Section 14: Defines free consent, not coercion (coercion is under Section 15).
- Section 15: Defines coercion, not undue influence (undue influence is under Section 16).
- Section 16: Defines undue influence, not fraud (fraud is under Section 17).
Only Option A correctly matches Section 13 with consent. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 16
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Under which circumstance can disclosures made to legal professionals be safeguarded according to Section 126?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 16
Section 126 deals with safeguarding professional communications, stating that exceptions to confidentiality include situations where the client consents to the disclosure. This provision underscores the significance of client confidentiality in legal engagements while allowing for certain exceptions with the client's permission.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 17
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As per Section 58 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in the case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal,______
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 17

Section 58 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that in the case of an alternative promise, where one branch is legal and the other illegal, only the legal branch is enforceable, provided it can be separated from the illegal branch. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 18
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Why should the relief sought by the plaintiff be clearly mentioned in a plaint?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 18
The relief sought by the plaintiff should be clearly mentioned in a plaint to clarify the desired outcome of the legal proceedings. This clarity helps all parties involved understand what the plaintiff is seeking from the court, streamlining the legal process and facilitating a smoother resolution of the case.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 19
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Who was the First President of the Republic of India?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 19
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of the Republic of India, serving from January 26, 1950, to May 13, 1962. Dr. Radhakrishnan (Option C) was the second President, Zakir Hussain (Option B) the third, and V. V. Giri (Option A) the fourth. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 20
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Under what circumstances can the court dismiss a suit for declaration?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 20

The court can dismiss a suit for declaration if a necessary party is absent. This is crucial because the presence of all relevant parties ensures that the court can make informed decisions regarding the rights and obligations involved in the case.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 21
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When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of ___________:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 21
A writ of *Certiorari* is issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal to quash its order or decision when it has acted beyond its jurisdiction or violated the principles of natural justice (e.g., not providing a fair hearing). *Mandamus* (Option B) compels a public authority to perform its duty, *Quo Warranto* (Option C) challenges the authority of a person holding public office, and *Habeas Corpus* (Option D) is for unlawful detention. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 22
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In a certain code language, ' first of all' is written as 'kan dan san', who is first' is written as 'zan kan ven', and 'this is pale' is written as 'ven gen len'. How will 'who' be written in that language?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 22

To determine how 'who' is written in the code language:

1. Identify common words and corresponding codes:
- 'first' = 'kan' (common in both 'first of all' and 'who is first')
- 'is' = 'ven' (common in 'who is first' and 'this is pale')

2. Compare phrases:
- 'first of all' = 'kan dan san'
- 'who is first' = 'zan kan ven'

The remaining code 'zan' must represent 'who'.

Therefore, 'who' is written as 'zan'.Clearly. a 'bag' is used to carry the books but a 'bag' is called 'dictionary'. So, a dictionary will be used to carry the books.
Hence, option A is correct.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 23
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What is the purpose of obtaining the plaintiff's signature and verification at the end of a plaint in a legal document?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 23
Obtaining the plaintiff's signature and verification at the conclusion of a legal document like a plaint serves to add credibility to the allegations made. The signature signifies that the plaintiff attests to the accuracy of the facts presented and verifies the claims made in the document, enhancing the overall credibility of the case.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 24
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A negotiable instrument must be:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 24
A negotiable instrument must be in writing and freely transferable to establish payment rights and obligations, making Option B the correct answer.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 25
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The expression "died intestate" means:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 25
The term "died intestate" refers to a situation where a person dies without making a valid will. In such cases, the distribution of the deceased’s property is governed by the laws of intestate succession under the relevant personal laws. Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 26
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Who was the First Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 26
Justice Nittor Srinivas Rao was the first Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court (then Mysore High Court), serving from 1957 to 1958. The other justices served later or in different capacities. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 27
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How many sections are there in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 27
BSA contains a total of 170 sections, compared to 167 sections in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 28
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Which of the following is excluded from the scope of the Transfer of Property Act?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 28
The Transfer of Property Act does not cover transfers by operation of law, such as inheritance, forfeiture, or insolvency. It applies to voluntary transfers like sales, mortgages, and leases, making Option C correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 29
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What was a key recommendation not included in the BNSS?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 29
High-level committee recommendations, such as codifying the rights of the accused, were not incorporated into the BNSS. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 30
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Who can be a holder in due course?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 3 - Question 30
A holder in due course acquires the instrument for consideration, in good faith, and before maturity, so Option B is correct.
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