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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Judiciary Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 for Judiciary Exams 2025 is part of Judiciary Exams preparation. The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Judiciary Exams exam syllabus.The Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 MCQs are made for Judiciary Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 below.
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Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 1

What type of crimes does BNS 2023 specifically address that were inadequately covered by the IPC?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 1
BNS 2023 addresses cybercrime, terrorism, and organized crime, which were inadequately covered by the IPC. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 2

A leased out his immovable property to B for manufacturing the spare parts of tractors. In the absence of any contract or local law or usage to the contrary, said lease is terminable by giving______ notice of:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 2

Under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease for manufacturing purposes (a non-agricultural purpose) is deemed a lease from year to year in the absence of a contract or local law to the contrary, terminable by six months’ notice. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 3

How is a lease for more than one year created?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 3
A lease for a term exceeding one year must be created by a registered document, ensuring legal formality. Option B is the accurate choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 4
What is a timeline set by the BNSS for informing victims?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 4
The BNSS requires victims to be informed of investigation progress within 90 days, among other procedural timelines. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 5
What is the definition of "fact" under BSA?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 5
BSA defines a "fact" as anything capable of being perceived by the senses or any mental condition a person is conscious of, not limited to physical objects, records, or judgments. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 6

Bona vacantia refers to

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 7
Definition of secondary evidence has been given under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 7
Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines secondary evidence, listing types such as certified copies, copies made from the original, or oral accounts of a document’s contents. Section 61 (Option A) deals with proof of documents, Section 62 (Option B) defines primary evidence, and Section 64 (Option D) mandates primary evidence as the default. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 8

A, B, C, D, E and F is a group of six persons in a family. Number of gents is same as the number of ladies.

A & E are sons of F.

D is the mother of two children of whom, one is a boy and the other is a girl.

B is the son of A.

There is only one pair of married people in the group.

Q.
Which of the following are the pair of children of D?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 8

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 9
Cristiano Ronaldo is the icon player of which game?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 9
Cristiano Ronaldo is a globally renowned professional footballer, known for his achievements in football (soccer), including multiple Ballon d’Or awards. He is not associated with hockey, cricket, or basketball. Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 10
What provision does the BNSS make for a proclaimed offender who has absconded?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 10
The BNSS allows the trial to proceed and judgment to be pronounced in the absence of a proclaimed offender who has absconded, if there’s no immediate prospect of arrest. Hence, Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 11
What is required for eviction if the tenant denies the landlord’s ownership?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 11
Eviction can be ordered if the tenant denies the landlord’s ownership and fails to prove the denial was made in good faith. Hence, Option A is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 12
Which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the High Court or District Court to transfer any suit from one Court to another subordinate to it?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 12
Section 24 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, empowers the High Court or District Court to transfer any suit, appeal, or proceeding from one court subordinate to it to another, either on application or suo motu, for reasons such as convenience or fairness. Sections 22, 23, and 25 deal with other aspects of jurisdiction and transfer. Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 13
What sets documentary evidence apart from oral evidence in legal contexts?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 13
Documentary evidence in legal contexts is based on written records or physical objects, providing a more reliable and permanent form of evidence compared to oral evidence. This tangible aspect of documentary evidence contributes to its objectivity and the weight it carries in legal proceedings, as it presents a more concrete representation of facts and events.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 14
Why is it essential for courts to verify the lawful admission of electronic evidence in legal proceedings?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 14
Courts must verify the lawful admission of electronic evidence in legal proceedings to prevent the misuse of electronic data. By confirming the authenticity and legality of electronic evidence, courts mitigate the risk of tampering, fabrication, or distortion of data, ensuring the reliability and credibility of digital information presented during legal proceedings.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 15
Which is the state animal of Karnataka?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 15
The Indian Elephant is the state animal of Karnataka, symbolizing strength and cultural significance.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 16
In what circumstances can secondary evidence be presented according to Section 65?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 16
Section 65 allows for the presentation of secondary evidence when the original document is unavailable due to certain circumstances outlined in the section. This provision safeguards the rights of individuals in situations where producing the original evidence is not feasible, ensuring fair access to legal processes.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 17
Which traditional silk saree is a specialty of Karnataka?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 17
Mysore Silk Sarees, known for their rich texture and gold zari work, are a traditional specialty of Karnataka.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 18
As per the Karnataka Amendment to Section 54 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, partition of estate or separation of share in executing a Partition Decree can be made by division by the:
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 18
The Karnataka Amendment to Section 54 of the C.P.C. provides that, for executing a partition decree, the partition of an estate or separation of a share is to be carried out by a gazetted subordinate to the Collector, as appointed by the State Government. This delegate handles the division, not the Tahasildar (Option A), Deputy Commissioner (Option B), or the Court directly (Option D). Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 19
What is a "reversion" in the context of property transfer?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 19
A reversion is the remaining interest in property that reverts to the grantor after granting a smaller estate, such as a lease, to another party. Option B correctly defines this term.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 20
What should the defendant address in the opening paragraph of a written statement?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 20
The defendant should commence the written statement with an opening paragraph that identifies the defendant, their address, and their role in the case. This introduction sets the stage for the document and provides crucial context for the reader by outlining the background of the case, including the plaintiff's claims and the events that led to the lawsuit.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 21
In legal proceedings, under what circumstances might a court decide to retain the plaintiff until the conclusion of the case?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 21
In legal proceedings, a court may decide to keep the plaintiff involved until the case is fully resolved if it deems it necessary for a just resolution. This decision is based on the court's discretion to ensure fairness and completeness in the legal process.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 22
Why is consideration considered a fundamental element in a contract?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 22
Consideration is deemed a fundamental element in a contract because it underscores the seriousness and intention of the parties involved in creating a legally binding agreement. It signifies that each party is giving something of value in exchange for the promise of the other, establishing a mutual obligation. This aspect of consideration helps differentiate between social promises and legally enforceable contracts, ensuring that agreements are based on a foundation of reciprocity and intention to be legally bound.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 23
When does a time instrument become payable?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 23
Time instruments are payable on a specific future date, distinguishing them from demand instruments, so Option B is correct.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 24

How many pairs of letters are there in the word BUCKET which has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 24

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 25

Where is the concept of invitation to offer explicitly defined according to the Indian Contract Act 1872?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 25

The Act does not include a separate definition for “invitation to offer.” Instead, it defines a “proposal” (or “offer”) in Section 2(a) of the Act, and judicial interpretations have clarified that an invitation to offer is not a proposal as defined therein. Given the options, the best answer is:

c) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act 1872.

Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 26
What characterizes a void agreement according to the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 26
A void agreement, as defined by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, lacks legal enforceability right from its inception. This means that such agreements are considered null and void without any legal effect. It is crucial to understand the reasons for an agreement being deemed void, which can include factors like illegality, immorality, opposition to public policy, fraud, misrepresentation, or impossibility of performance.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 27
What distinguishes guarantees from indemnity agreements in terms of cost and risk assumption?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 27
Guarantees typically incur lower costs compared to indemnity agreements since the surety assumes lesser risk. This makes guarantees a preferred option in various financial arrangements where the risk needs to be mitigated while keeping costs manageable.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 28
What is the primary purpose of granting ex-parte orders?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 28
Ex-parte orders are primarily granted to provide immediate relief in urgent situations where swift action is necessary. These orders aim to address pressing issues promptly, especially when the other party is unavailable or unresponsive. While temporary, they serve as a temporary solution until both parties can present their cases for a more comprehensive review.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 29
What kind of document should be included when Filing a caveat?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 29
When Filing a caveat, it is essential to include a copy of the caveat and proof of sending it to relevant parties. These documents serve as crucial evidence of the legal action taken and help ensure that all involved parties are properly notified and informed of the proceedings.
Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 30
Who is the Executive Head in India?
Detailed Solution for Karnataka Judicial Services Mock Test- 5 - Question 30
The Prime Minister is the executive head of India, leading the Council of Ministers and exercising real executive authority under Article 74 of the Constitution. The President (Option A) is the nominal head, with ceremonial and constitutional duties, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Options C and D are incorrect, as the Prime Minister solely holds this role. Hence, Option B is the correct choice.
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