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Aashi gupta

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Aashi gupta
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Discussed Questions
Aashi gupta upvoted   •  Jan 19, 2025

A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor’s property, the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the other party was deceived by the minor to hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that the minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.
Facts: Animesh convinces Kumud, a girl aged 18 that she would sell her land to him. Kumud’s mother Parineeti is her guardian. Nonetheless Kumud, without the permission of Parineeti, sells the land to Animesh for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Parineeti challenges this transaction claiming the Kumud is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Animesh. Thus Animesh is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Kumud.
Why is Parineeti justified in challenging the sale transaction?
a) Though Kumud is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Parineeti is her guardian.
b) Kumud is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational decisions.
c) Though Kumud is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the permission of her mother.
d) Though Kumud is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a person who has attained the age.
Correct answer is 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Notes Wala answered
The principle clearly states that A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor’s property, the age of majority is twenty-one and a  minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. 
In this case also kumud is a minor and parineeti is her guardian.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Dec 06, 2024

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India-European Free Trade Association signeda Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) today i.e. on 10th March 2024.
India has been working on a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA countries comprising Switzerland, Iceland, Norway & Liechtenstein. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister has approved signing of the TEPA with EFTA States. EFTA is an inter-governmental organization set up in 1960 for the promotion of free trade and economic integration for the benefit of its four Member States.
Speaking on the occasion, Shri Piyush Goyal, Minister of Commerce and Industry, Food and Consumer Affairs and Textiles said:
"TEPA is a modern and ambitious Trade Agreement. For the first time, India is signing FTA with four developed nations - an important economic bloc in Europe. For the first time in history of FTAs, binding commitment of $100 bn investment  and 1 million direct jobs in the next 15 years has been given. The agreement will give a boost to Make in India and provide opportunities to young & talented workforce. The FTA will provide a window to Indian exporters to access large European and global markets."
The agreement comprises of 14 chapters with main focus on market access related to goods, rules of origin, trade facilitation, trade remedies, sanitary and phytosanitary measures, technical barriers to trade, investment promotion, market access on services, intellectual property rights, trade and sustainable development and other legal and horizontal provisions.
EFTA is an important regional group, with several growing opportunities for enhancing international trade in goods and services.EFTA is one important economic block out of the three (other two - EU &UK) in Europe. Among EFTA countries, Switzerland is the largest trading partner of India followed by Norway.
The highlights of the agreement are:
  • EFTA has committed to promote investments with the aim to increase the stock of foreign direct investments by USD 100 billion in India in the next 15 years, and to facilitate the generation of 1 million direct employment in India, through such investments. The investments do not cover foreign portfolio investment.
  • For the first ever time in the history of FTAs, a legal commitment is being made about promoting target-oriented investment and creation of jobs.
  • EFTA is offering 92.2% of its tariff lines which covers 99.6% of India’s exports. The EFTA’s market access offer covers 100% of non-agri products and tariff concession on Processed Agricultural Products (PAP).
  • India is offering 82.7% of its tariff lines which covers 95.3% of EFTA exports of which more than 80% import is Gold. The effective duty on Gold remains untouched.Sensitivity related to PLI in sectors such as pharma, medical devices & processed food etc. have been taken while extending offers. Sectors such as dairy, soya, coal and sensitive agricultural products are kept in exclusion list.
  • India has offered 105 sub-sectors to the EFTA and secured commitments in 128 sub-sectors from Switzerland, 114 from Norway, 107 from Liechtenstein, and 110 from Iceland.
  • TEPA would stimulate our services exports in sectors of our key strength / interest such as IT services, business services, personal, cultural, sporting and recreational services, other education services, audio-visual services etc.
  • Services offers from EFTA include better access through digital delivery of Services (Mode 1), commercial presence (Mode 3) and improved commitments and certainty for entry and temporary stay of key personnel (Mode 4).
  • TEPA has provisions for Mutual Recognition Agreements in Professional Services like nursing, chartered accountants, architects etc.
  • Commitments related to Intellectual Property Rights in TEPA are at TRIPS level. The IPR chapter with Switzerland, which has high standard for IPR,shows our robust IPR regime.India’s interests in generic medicines and concerns related to evergreening of patents have been fully addressed. 
  • India signals its commitment to Sustainable development, inclusive growth, social development and environmental protection
  • Fosters transparency, efficiency, simplification, harmonization and consistency of trade procedures
  • TEPA will empower our exporters access to specialized inputs and create conducive trade and investment environment. This would boost exports of Indian made goods as well as provide opportunities for services sector to access more markets.
  • TEPA provides an opportunity to integrate into EU markets. Over 40% of Switzerland’s global services exports are to the EU. Indian companies can look to Switzerland as a base for extending its market reach to EU.
  • TEPA will give impetus to “Make in India” and Atmanirbhar Bharat by encouraging domestic manufacturing in sectors such as Infrastructure and Connectivity, Manufacturing, Machinery, Pharmaceuticals, Chemicals, Food Processing, Transport and Logistics, Banking and Financial Services and Insurance.
  • TEPA would accelerate creation of large number of direct jobs for India’s young aspirational workforce in next 15 years in India, including better facilities for vocational and technical training. TEPA also facilitates technology collaboration and access to world leading technologies in precision engineering, health sciences, renewable energy, Innovation and R&D.
[Excerpt from PIB "India and EFTA – Trade Agreement" Dated 26/11/24]
What is the name of the agreement signed between India and EFTA?
... more

Crafty Classes answered
The agreement is called the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

Which doctrine applies when a pre-constitutional law is inconsistent with fundamental rights, rendering the law temporarily dormant but not void, and can become active again if the inconsistency is removed?
  • a)
    Doctrine of Severability
  • b)
    Doctrine of Pith and Substance
  • c)
    Doctrine of Eclipse
  • d)
    Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Understanding the Doctrine of Eclipse
The Doctrine of Eclipse is a crucial legal principle in constitutional law, particularly in jurisdictions influenced by the Indian Constitution. It addresses the relationship between pre-constitutional laws and fundamental rights.
Key Features of the Doctrine of Eclipse:
- Temporary Dormancy: When a pre-constitutional law co... more

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Every person has a right, subject to the restrictions contained in section 99, to defend, first, his own body, and the body of any other person, against any offence affecting the human body; secondly. the property, whether movable or immovable, of himself or of any other person, against any act which is an offence falling under the definition of theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass, or which is an attempt to commit theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass.
When an act, which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the person doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence.
There is no right of private defence against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though that act may not be strictly justifiable by law. There is no right of private defence against an act which does not reasonably cause the apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, if done, or attempted to be done, by the direction of a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though that direction may not be strictly justifiable by law. There is no right of private defence in cases in which there is time to have recourse to protection of the public authorities.
The right of private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm than it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Readers' Blog by The Times of India]
Q. What are the restrictions on the right of private defence?
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Understanding the Right of Private Defence
The right of private defence is a legal provision that allows individuals to protect themselves and others from harm. However, this right is not absolute and comes with specific restrictions.
Restriction Explained
- The key restriction on the right of private defence is that it cannot be exercised in situations where there is ... more

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
In recent times, there has been a great euphoria about investing in cryptocurrencies. For any instrument to classify as a currency, it must have the following features: One, it is a promissory note wherein the issuer is promising the bearer or the holder a value. Two, it is backed by a sovereign nation and, therefore, there is never a question of any default in executing the promise. Three, the printing of currency in either physical or digital form is always based on some tangible asset, like gold or a basket of goods. From the above, it's clear that cryptocurrency can never be a currency. Can crypto then be considered an asset? An asset is something that has a tangible value. Even if its immediate utility is intangible, an asset should have some tangible benefits. The cryptocurrencies being promoted currently — bitcoin, litecoin, ethereum — are nothing but gaming points. Whenever a discussion on cryptos takes place, promoters talk of blockchain technology. This technology is just a technique to account for transactions.
Many frauds like multi-marketing schemes, chit funds or deposit frauds were disguised as timeshare schemes, gold and land investments, and promised hefty returns. These pyramid schemes were carried out over a long period to evade the law. Nevertheless, fraud could still be established, the trail of funds could be traced and the perpetrators identified. Crypto promoters have taken fraud to another level with little scope of their getting caught.
The recent aggressive promotion of cryptocurrencies on print and visual media would perhaps prove to be the undoing of their promoters. It is only a matter of time before financial fraud prevention enforcement agencies like the CBI and ED catch up with them. But millions may lose their hard-earned money by then.
[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express]
Q. What is the primary focus of the passage?
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Primary Focus of the Passage
The passage critically examines the nature of cryptocurrencies, asserting that they do not meet the criteria to be classified as a currency or a legitimate investment. The focus is on their lack of tangible backing and inherent risks.
Key Points Supporting Option C
- Definition of Currency: The passage outlines specific characteristi... more

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term 'state', under Article 12 of the Constitution of India, 1950, specifies that all the authorities which are functioning within or outside the territory of India will be considered to be 'the state' under Part III of the Constitution. This definition is not exhaustive but inclusive. The authorities which are included in Article 12 are: The government and Parliament of India, the state government and the legislature of each state, all local authorities (municipalities, District Boards, Panchayats, Improvement Trust, Mining Settlement Boards, etc.) and other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
Apart from the central, state and local authorities, the authority or institutions which exercise governmental or sovereign powers or functions can be counted under other authorities.
Article 13 of the Constitution speaks about laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights. This Article states that all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void and that the state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. In this Article, unless the context otherwise requires, law includes any ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force include laws passed or made by legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas. Last but not the least nothing in this Article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368.
Unlike the other legal rights which are created by the state that confers the right upon the individuals against one another, however the fundamental rights can be claimed only against the state. Therefore, it is generally assumed that fundamental rights are available only against the state which includes the actions of the state and against the officials of the state. Property right is a recognised right under Article 300A of the Constitution.
The provisions of the Constitution pertaining to fundamental rights have no retrospective effect. The word 'retrospective' means 'intending to take effect from the past date'. All the existing laws which are inconsistent, they will be void after the commencement of the Constitution.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Articles 12 and 13 as the basis of Fundamental Right, blog by Ipleaders]
Q. In the state of Kerala, a law was enacted, which specified that no individual could possess more than 20 acres of land under their own name. A saint named Keshav has contested this law, asserting that it contravenes Part III of the Constitution and infringes upon his fundamental rights. Determine the outcome.
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Understanding the Law in Question
The law enacted by the Kerala state limits individual land ownership to 20 acres. This raises the question of whether it infringes upon fundamental rights as outlined in Part III of the Constitution.
Fundamental Rights and Property Rights
- Article 300A of the Constitution states that no person shall be deprived of their property save ... more

Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 reads as follows:
Communication when complete - The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
The communication of an acceptance is complete, - as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer. 
Thus, the provision makes no difference in the position of the offeror. The offeror becomes bound when a properly addressed and adequately stamped letter of acceptance is posted. The acceptor does not become bound by merely posting his acceptance. He becomes bound only when his acceptance comes to the knowledge of the proposer. The contract is concluded at the place from where the proposal is accepted and communication of acceptance is dispatched, i.e., the address at which the proposal was sent. The court at that place would have jurisdiction to entertain a cause of action under the contract. This rule, that the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer when the letter is posted, is probably intended to apply only when the parties are at a distance and they communicate by post. “Where, however, the parties are in each other’s presence or, though separated in space”, they are in direct communication, as, for example, by telephone, no contract will arise until the offeror receives the notification of acceptance.
Q. ‘A’, who is in Mumbai, makes an offer for supply of goods to ‘B’, who is in Delhi, via a mobile phone call. During the same call, A’s offer is absolutely and unconditionally accepted by ‘B’. According to the terms agreed between ‘A’ and ‘B’, goods are to be supplied at Pune and payment is to be made electronically. In the given situation, where is the contract concluded? 
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Understanding the Contract Conclusion Location
In this scenario involving A and B, the contract is concluded in Mumbai. Here’s why:
1. Communication Method
- The offer was made by A via a mobile phone call.
- A mobile phone call allows for real-time communication, meaning both parties are effectively present during the conversation.
2. Acceptance Timing... more

Read the information given below carefully and answer the following question.
''The question is based on the reasoning and arguments, or facts and principles set out in the passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purpose. Please answer the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Do not rely on any principle of law other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering the question. Please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.''
The term 'state', under Article 12 of the Constitution of India, 1950, specifies that all the authorities which are functioning within or outside the territory of India will be considered to be 'the state' under Part III of the Constitution. This definition is not exhaustive but inclusive. The authorities which are included in Article 12 are: The government and Parliament of India, the state government and the legislature of each state, all local authorities (municipalities, District Boards, Panchayats, Improvement Trust, Mining Settlement Boards, etc.) and other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
Apart from the central, state and local authorities, the authority or institutions which exercise governmental or sovereign powers or functions can be counted under other authorities.
For the purpose of wider application of fundamental rights, state must be defined liberally, but not for other purposes. Therefore, an employee of the public corporation may challenge the violation of his fundamental by the corporation, but for that reason he does not become a state employee and cannot seek the protection.
Article 13 of the Constitution speaks about laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights. This Article states that all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void and that the state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. In this Article, unless the context otherwise requires, law includes any ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force include laws passed or made by legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas. Last but not the least nothing in this Article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368.
Unlike the other legal rights which are created by the state that confers the right upon the individuals against one another, however the fundamental rights can be claimed only against the state. Therefore, it is generally assumed that fundamental rights are available only against the state which includes the actions of the state and against the officials of the state. Property right is a recognised right under Article 300A of the Constitution.
The provisions of the Constitution pertaining to fundamental rights have no retrospective effect. The word 'retrospective' means 'intending to take effect from the past date'. All the existing laws which are inconsistent, they will be void after the commencement of the Constitution.
Q. The Parliament of India made a law in 1949 stating that all those who belong to the Kayastha community shall be given reservation in appointments for the post of HC judges. Praveen, a Brahman, had lost his seat to an appointment in 1948. After three years, he challenged this law passed in 1949 being in violation of his fundamental rights. Decide.
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Nov 15, 2024
Fundamental Rights and State Actions
Praveen's case revolves around the claim of fundamental rights against a law made by the Parliament of India. According to the principles established under the Constitution, particularly Article 13 and Article 12, the following points clarify why Praveen is not entitled to claim his fundamental rights:
1. Nature of Fundamental Rights
... more
Aashi gupta upvoted   •  Oct 26, 2024

The General assembly of UNO is the _______.
  • a)
    supplemental organ of United Nations
  • b)
    main deliberative organ of United Nations
  • c)
    not an organ of the United Nations
  • d)
    specialized agency of United Nations
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Khanna answered
The General Assembly (GA) is the main deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN. Decisions on important questions, such as those on peace and security, admission of new members and budgetary matters, require a two-thirds majority.

The meaning of decree in legal glossary?

Aashi gupta answered  •  Sep 29, 2024
Meaning of Decree in Legal Context
In legal terminology, a "decree" refers to an official order that has the force of law. It is commonly issued by a court or other legal authority and serves as a ruling on a matter brought before it.
Types of Decrees
- Preliminary Decree: This type of decree sets out the rights of the parties involved but does not resolve the m... more
Aashi gupta upvoted   •  Sep 17, 2024

Four legal approaches may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction: specific directives, market incentive modifications, criminal prohibitions, and changes in decision-making structures. Specific directives involve the government’s identifying factors controlling research, development, or implementation of a given technology. Market incentive modifications are deliberate alterations of the market within which private decisions regarding the development and implementation of technology are made. eg Imposing taxes to cover the costs to society, granting subsidies to pay for social benefits, or easing procedural rules to enable the recovery of damages to compensate for harm caused by destructive technological activity. Criminal prohibitions may modify technological activity in areas impinging on fundamental social values, or they may modify human behavior likely to result from technological applications. Alteration of decision-making structures includes all possible modifications in the authority, constitution, or responsibility of private and public entities deciding questions of technological development and implementation.
Effective use of these methods to control technology depends on whether or not the goal of regulation is the optimal allocation of resources. When the object is optimal resource allocation, that combination of legal methods should be used that most nearly yields the allocation that would exist if there were no external costs resulting from allocating resources through market activity. There are external costs when the price set by buyers and sellers of goods fails to include some costs, to anyone, that result from the production and use of the goods. Such costs are internalized when buyers pay them.
Air pollution from motor vehicles imposes external costs on all those exposed to it, in the form of soiling, materials damage, and disease: these externalities result from failure to place a price on air, thus making it a free good, common to all. Such externalities lead to nonoptimal resource allocation, because the private net product and the social net product of market activity are not often identical. If all externalities were internalized, transactions would occur until bargaining could no longer improve the situation, thus giving an optimal allocation of resources at a given time.
Q. The passage is primarily concerned with describing
... more

Anaya Patel answered
The passage talks about the four legal approaches that may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction.

Choose the word or phrase you think is the nearest in meaning to the key word given to questions below.
Rescind
  • a)
    send again
  • b)
    take back
  • c)
    rewrite
  • d)
    rescue
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashi gupta answered  •  Aug 18, 2024
Rescind
Rescind means to take back or cancel something. It is often used in legal or formal contexts to describe the act of revoking or reversing a decision, agreement, or law.

Explanation:
- Take back: Rescind is closest in meaning to "take back" because it involves retracting or withdrawing something that was previously stated or enacted.
- Examp... more The company decided to rescind its offer of employment after discovering the candidate's criminal record.
- Contrast: This term is different from "send again" (option A), "rewrite" (option C), and "rescue" (option D), as rescind specifically refers to the act of canceling or annulling something previously done or agreed upon.

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
Bigamy is marrying someone who has already been legally married to another living person. A person cannot legally marry someone with a living spouse who is still legally married to them. A second marriage will be declared void ab initio, which means that it is null and void from the start. Bigamy is against the law in India, and any Hindu who commits crime will be punished accordingly. When determining the penalty for bigamy, the provisions of Sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) shall apply. The Indian Penal Code Section 494 states that whoever having a husband or wife living, marries in any case in which such marriage is void by reason of its taking place during the life of such husband or wife, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. The provisions of IPC do not extend to any person whose marriage with such husband or wife has been declared void by a Court of competent jurisdiction, nor to any person who contracts a marriage during the life of a former husband or wife, if such husband or wife, at the time of the subsequent marriage, shall have been continually absent from such person for the space of seven years, and shall not have been heard of by such person as being alive within that time provided the person contracting such subsequent marriage shall, before such marriage takes place, inform the person with whom such marriage is contracted of the real state of facts so far as the same are within his or her knowledge.
Q. In which situation does the Indian Penal Code (IPC) not extend its provisions to a person who contracts a marriage during the life of a former husband or wife?
... more

Aashi gupta answered  •  Jun 26, 2024
Explanation:

Provisions of IPC not extending to a person contracting a marriage during the life of a former husband or wife:
- The Indian Penal Code (IPC) does not extend its provisions to a person who contracts a marriage during the life of a former husband or wife if the former spouse has been continually absent for seven years.
- This means that if the former ... more

Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:

Statement: A punishment is the imposition of an undesirable or unpleasant outcome upon a group or individual, meted out by an authority.
Conclusions:
1. Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.
2. Imposition of fine on someone who inflicted bodily injury on another is justified by the statement.
  • a)
    Only Conclusion 1 follows.
  • b)
    Only Conclusion 2 follows.
  • c)
    Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
  • d)
    Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashi gupta answered  •  May 17, 2024
Analysis:

Conclusion 1:
Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.
- This conclusion is supported by the statement as it refers to the concept of retributive justice, where the punishment is proportionate to the crime committed. It enforces the idea of reciprocity in punishment.

Conclusion 2:
Imposition of fine on som... more
Aashi gupta upvoted   •  May 04, 2024

There are at least 15 e-commerce sites that have ‘kart’ appended to their name.
Q. Which of the following is the most possible reason for this phenomenon?
  • a)
    Jabong, as everyone knows, has done pretty well for itself, despite having no ‘kart’ in its name.
  • b)
    What matters over time is service quality and not the name.
  • c)
    Along with the name, it is the business model, execution, and offers which make the brand difficult to be cloned or impacted.
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eshaan Kapoor answered
This is so perhaps because of the popularity of Flipkart.

Aashi gupta upvoted   •  Jan 24, 2024

30% of a number is 21 more than 15% of 120. What is the number?
  • a)
    95
  • b)
    110
  • c)
    125
  • d)
    130
Correct answer is option 'DR'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
Let the number be a.
30% of a = (15% of 120) + 21
⇒ 0.3a = 18+21
⇒ 0.3a = 39
⇒ a = 130
∴ The number is 130.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Aashi gupta asked   •  Jan 23, 2024

After their wedding, Riz and Rekha decide to move into a new apartment, which is unfurnished. So they decide to buy the necessary home appliances with the gift money that they received at their wedding. The total gift money received was Rs.1,23,000 out of which the amount spent on wooden furniture is Rs.24,000, which is double the amount spent on carpeting the drawing room floor. The remaining amount was spent on buying exactly three items namely TV, AC and Washing Machine, the prices of which are in the ratio 11 : 13 : 5 respectively.
Q. Which of the options below states the correct amounts paid by Riz and Rekha to buy their TV, AC and Washing Machine respectively?
  • a)
    Rs.33,000, Rs.30,000, Rs.27,000
  • b)
    Rs.39,000, Rs.30,000, Rs.9,000
  • c)
    Rs.33,000, Rs.39,000, Rs.15,000
  • d)
    Rs.11,000, Rs.13,000, Rs.5,000
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshay Nambiar answered
Calculation:

Given:
- Total gift money received: Rs.1,23,000
- Amount spent on wooden furniture: Rs.24,000
- Amount spent on carpeting the drawing room floor: Rs.12,000 (half of the amount spent on wooden furniture)

Remaining amount:
Rs.1,23,000 - Rs.24,000 - Rs.12,000 = Rs.87,000

Ratio of prices for TV, AC, and Washing M... more
TV : AC : Washing Machine = 11 : 13 : 5

Calculation of individual amounts:
- Total ratio parts = 11 + 13 + 5 = 29 parts
- Price of TV = (11/29) * Rs.87,000 = Rs.33,000
- Price of AC = (13/29) * Rs.87,000 = Rs.39,000
- Price of Washing Machine = (5/29) * Rs.87,000 = Rs.15,000
Therefore, the correct amounts paid by Riz and Rekha to buy their TV, AC, and Washing Machine respectively are Rs.33,000, Rs.39,000, and Rs.15,000. So, option (c) is correct.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Dec 08, 2023

Q is the sister of R. P is the father of Q. S is the son of T. R is the brother of S. How is T related to P?
  • a)
    Daughter in law
  • b)
    Daughter
  • c)
    Wife
  • d)
    More than one of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

S.S Career Academy answered
Family Chart:
Given: 
Q is the sister of R.
P is the father of Q.
S is the son of T.
R is the brother of S.

So, T is wife of P.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Nov 11, 2023

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
In the law of torts, one defence available to a defendant is the defence of 'volenti non-fit injuria' in which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to him.
In torts, there is a duty on every person to do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may occur due to their failure of taking such care. This is general, but there are certain exceptions which are allowed in these cases called defences to tort. Under these defences, a defendant can escape liability, and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such defence which is available for the defendant.
For the application of this defence, there are some essential elements or conditions which must be fulfilled to prevent liability. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk and that the plaintiff with this knowledge has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his liability.
But only having knowledge about the risk is not enough for the application of this defence, it is known as 'scienti non fit injuria', which means that mere knowledge does not mean consent to the risk. Thus, having knowledge is only a partial fulfillment of the conditions for the application of volenti non fit injuria.
In the cases where the defendant is taking the defence, the burden of proof is on him to show that the plaintiff had full knowledge of the act and consented to the risk involved in the act and the defendant has to show that the plaintiff was also aware of the extent of risk which was involved in the act. For such a defence, the consent of the defendant is not required to be expressly given and even by his conduct, his consent can be taken. When a plaintiff gives his consent for an act, such consent should be free from any coercion, fraud or any other such means by which the free consent can be affected. In case the consent of a person is not free, the defendant cannot claim this defence to escape liability and he will be held liable for damage caused.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from volenti non fit injuria, blog by lawtimesjournal]
Q. Diya, who has a heart condition, consults with Akash, a surgeon, and is informed that she requires surgery, to which she gives her consent. However, during the surgery, Akash removes one of Diya's kidneys without her knowledge. How should this situation be resolved?
... more

EduRev CLAT answered
In this situation, despite the successful completion of the surgery, the surgeon could be found legally responsible because Diya did not provide her consent for the removal of her kidney, but only for the surgery itself. This aligns with the information provided in the passage, which states that if the plaintiff's (Diya's) consent is not given freely, the defendant (Akash) cannot utilize this defense to avoid liability, and, as a result, the defendant may be held accountable for any harm caused.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Oct 19, 2023

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The legal framework for NRC is laid down in the Citizenship Act of 1955 as amended in 2004. This was done through the Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 brought by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the run up to 2004 Lok Sabha election.
The 2004 amendment to the Citizenship Act inserted section that provided for conducting headcount of Indian citizens and preparation of the NRC. The rules notified later under the 2004 amendment law provide for the procedures to be followed for the NRC preparation.
The Act provides for issue of National Identity cards to Indian citizens. An NRC is to be the base for the issue of National Identity Cards. And, the NRC under Citizenship Amendment Act 2003 may be a sub-part of the NPR.
The 2003 rules spell out how to operationalise registration of citizens and issue of National Identity Cards to them.
During the process of verification of NPR data of individuals for identification of citizens, the local registrar is required to identify those whose citizenship is doubtful and enter a comment recommending further inquiry.
Such doubtful citizens or their families will be informed about their citizenship status. They will have the opportunity of being heard.
Once the process at the registrar level completes, a final decision will be made for inclusion or exclusion of such individuals or families. The decision is to be made within 90 days.
However, the draft prepared by the local register is not the final list of Indian citizens. The draft NRC will be published to invite objections or claims for inclusion or corrections.
Thereafter, the entries in the Local Register will be transferred to the National Registrar.
Those excluded from the NRC draft can appeal to the district registrar. The district registrar is bound to dispose of the appeal within 90 days.
In case the appeal succeeds, the names of those concerned would be added to the NRIC.
Q. What is the purpose of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in relation to National Identity Cards?
... more

S.S Career Academy answered
The primary purpose of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in India, as outlined in the passage, is to serve as the base for the issuance of National Identity Cards to Indian citizens. It is meant to provide a reliable and official record of Indian citizens, making it the primary identification document for them.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Oct 07, 2023

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) will establish its first campus outside India in [1]. National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 focuses on internationalization and recommends that "High performing Indian universities will be encouraged to set up campuses in other countries”, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) said in a release. This historic step reflects India’s commitment to the Global South, S Jaishankar said in a tweet on Thursday.
Recognising the strategic partnership between the two countries, the relationship of educational partnership has been formalised by signing the document which provides the framework for the parties to detail the setting up of the proposed campus of [2] in [1], with plans to launch programs in Oct 2023, it added.
"This unique partnership will bring the top-ranked educational expertise of [2] to a prime destination in Africa and serve the imperative current needs of the region. The academic programs, curricula, student selection aspects, and pedagogical details will be by [2], whereas the capital and operating expenditure will be met by the government of [1]," the statement further read. [2] degrees will be awarded to the students enrolled in this campus. The setting up of the IIT Campus shall also enhance India’s reputation globally and its diplomatic relationships and expand the international footprint of [2], the MEA said.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “India to set up first IIT abroad in [1]; plans to launch programs in October 2023”, Business Today]
Q. Which of the top 150 universities in the world according to the 2024 edition of the QS World University Ranking has its greatest ranking ever come from an Indian educational institution?
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Ojasvi Mehta answered
In the 20th-anniversary edition of the 2024 rankings, the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay has achieved the top position among Indian institutions, securing the 149th rank. This marks a notable improvement compared to its 172nd position in the previous year's rankings.
Here are some key highlights:
  • IIT Delhi has secured the second position in the rankings, now at the 197th position, which is a slight increase from its previous rank of 174.
  • The Indian Institute of Science in Bangalore has seen a decline in its ranking, dropping to the 225th position from its previous rank of 155 in 2023.
  • Both the University of Delhi and Anna University have improved their rankings and are now among the top 500 universities in the world.
  • India is the seventh most represented country globally, with 45 universities making it to the rankings.
  • Globally, the top three positions are held by Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) in the United States, followed by the University of Cambridge and the University of Oxford in the United Kingdom.
  • A significant achievement is that the National University of Singapore has become the first Asian university to enter the top 10 in these rankings.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Sep 16, 2023

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
NASA has picked a longtime solar scientist who heads its heliophysics division to become the US space agency’s science chief - the first woman named to serve in the role, according to two people familiar with the decision. Nicola Fox, the former top scientist on the Parker Solar Probe mission studying the Sun, will be named this week as NASA’s associate administrator for the agency’s Science Mission Directorate.
Fox will lead NASA’s science directorate, a unit with an annual budget of roughly $7 billion that oversees some of the agency’s best-known programs from the robotic hunts for past life on Mars to exploring distant galaxies with the James Webb Space Telescope. She will also oversee a NASA study group formed in 2022 to help the US military detect and characterise UFOs, or so-called Unidentified Aerial Phenomena - mysterious objects that the White House and Pentagon officials see as threats to US airspace.
Fox will succeed Thomas Zurbuchen, a Swiss-American astrophysicist who had led the directorate since 2016 before his retirement in December. Sandra Connelly, formerly Zurbuchen’s deputy, has been leading the directorate in an acting capacity.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “NASA To Name 1st Woman As Agency’s Science Chief”, NDTV]
Q. Who currently holds the position of Chairman at the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) among the following options?
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Nilesh Patel answered
S. Somanath currently serves as the Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Key Highlights:
  • ISRO, initially known as the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), was established by the Government of India in 1962, following the vision of Dr. Vikram A. Sarabhai.
  • On August 15, 1969, ISRO was formally founded, taking over the role of INCOSPAR and expanding its responsibilities to harness space technology. The Department of Space (DOS) was created, and ISRO was placed under DOS in 1972.
  • ISRO functions as India's premier space agency and operates as a significant component of the Department of Space (DOS). The department spearheads the Indian Space Programme primarily through various centers and units within ISRO.
As a result, option A is the correct answer.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Jul 14, 2023

Where is the National Yoga Olympiad currently being organized in 2023?
  • a)
    New Delhi
  • b)
    Bhopal
  • c)
    Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh)
  • d)
    Mumbai
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Soha Kapoor answered
The National Yoga Olympiad is being organized in Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh in 2023.

Why is it being organized in Jabalpur?
Jabalpur has been chosen as the venue for the National Yoga Olympiad due to various factors. Here are some reasons:

1. Infrastructure: Jabalpur has adequate infrastructure to host such a prestigious event. It has well-equipped stadiums, sports... more

Aashi gupta asked   •  Dec 24, 2022

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.
Q. Russia shares maritime borders with __________ countries.
... more

Eshaan Kapoor answered
Russia, the largest country in the world, has international borders with 16 sovereign states, including two maritime boundaries with the United States and Japan, along with 4 borders that are not universally recognised but are recognised by Russia with the partially recognised states of Donetsk People's Republic, Lugansk People's Republic, South Ossetia and Abkhazia.

Aashi gupta asked   •  Dec 05, 2022

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.
Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.
Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.
Q. Which of the following is similar to Punjab Government's plan of introducing English in public schools?
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Aryan Khanna answered
The situation of Punjab Government is that it wants to make English compulsory in government schools; however, it does not have the staff for the same. This is illustrated by point 3 wherein a decision has been made by the municipal corporation; however, labour is not available to implement it.

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