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All questions of Day 30 for GMAT Exam

If f(x) = -2x + 8 & f(p) = 16, find the value of p?
  • a)
    -12
  • b)
    -8
  • c)
    -4
  • d)
    4
  • e)
    12
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Saha answered
Given, f(x) = -2x + 8 and f(p) = 16

To find: The value of p

Solution:

Substitute f(p) = 16 in the equation f(x) = -2x + 8

f(p) = -2p + 8 = 16

-2p = 16 - 8

-2p = 8

Divide both sides by -2

p = 8/-2

p = -4

Therefore, the value of p is -4.

Hence, the correct option is (c) -4.

If g(x) = -2x2 + 8 and g (-q) = -24, which of the following could be the value of q?
  • a)
    -4
  • b)
    -2
  • c)
    -1
  • d)
    1
  • e)
    2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Parth Singh answered
Given:
- g(x) = -2x^2 + 8
- g(-q) = -24

To find:
- Possible values of q

Solution:

Substitute -q in place of x in g(x) to get g(-q)

g(-q) = -2(-q)^2 + 8
g(-q) = -2q^2 + 8

Given that g(-q) = -24, we can set up the equation:

-2q^2 + 8 = -24

Simplifying, we get:

-2q^2 = -32

Dividing by -2, we get:

q^2 = 16

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

q = ±4

Therefore, the possible values of q are -4 and 4.

Option A (-4) is the correct answer.

A polynomial function P(x) is defined as,
P(x) = 4x3 – 2x2
If P (z -2) =0 & z ≠ 2, find the value of z?
  • a)
    -3/2
  • b)
    +1/2
  • c)
    1
  • d)
    +5/2
  • e)
    +7/2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Solution:

Given, P(x) = 4x3 - 2x2

Let z-2 = k

P(z-2) = P(k) = 4k3 - 2k2

We know that P(k) = 0

Therefore, 4k3 - 2k2 = 0

2k2(2k - 1) = 0

k = 0 or k = 1/2

Now, z-2 = k

So, z = k+2

For k = 0, z = 2

For k = 1/2, z = 5/2

Therefore, the possible values of z are 2 and 5/2, but since z ≤ 2, the only possible value of z is 5/2.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 5/2.

$x = 6x +4 and £x = 8x – 2
Find the value of x for which $x = £x?
  • a)
    -3
  • b)
    -2
  • c)
    1
  • d)
    2
  • e)
    3
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Solution:

Given, $x = 6x + 4$ and $x = 8x - 2$

Simplifying the above equations, we get

$5x = -4$ and $7x = 2$

Solving for x, we get

$x = -\frac{4}{5}$ and $x = \frac{2}{7}$

Since both values of x are not equal, we cannot find the value of x for which $x = x$ from the given equations.

Therefore, the answer is none of the given options.

If f(x) = 3x + 6, then what is the value of f (2) + f(7)? 
  • a)
    f(8)
  • b)
    f(9)
  • c)
    f(10)
  • d)
    f(11)
  • e)
    f(12)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Arjun Iyer answered
Solution:

Given: f(x) = 3x - 6

We need to find f(2) + f(7)

Substituting x = 2 and x = 7 in the given equation, we get:

f(2) = 3(2) - 6 = 0

f(7) = 3(7) - 6 = 15

Therefore, f(2) + f(7) = 0 + 15 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about African American slaves in the late 1700s?
  • a)
    They could not own land without consent of local white landowners.
  • b)
    They were barred from practicing certain trades.
  • c)
    They could buy their freedom from their owners.
  • d)
    They sometimes had children with white women even while enslaved.
  • e)
    There were none in colonial New York or New Jersey
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Khanna answered
The eighteenth century is mentioned in the second paragraph, primarily to discuss the fact that “white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.” What this paragraph suggests about African American slaves at that time will be the correct answer. 
(A) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans, not whether they were permitted to own land. (B) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans, not what trades they were or were not allowed to practice.
(C) In the first paragraph, the passage states that in the 1600s, “some of these first African slaves became free, either through escape or through emancipation.” The passage did not discuss how slaves could become free in the late 1700s, or whether they could buy their freedom from their owners. In fact, the last sentence in the second paragraph states that “slaves could not be freed without legislative approval,” so even if slaves could buy freedom, additional legislative approval would have been required. 
(D) CORRECT. The end of the second paragraph states that "it is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations." This implies that the African American men were not free when they fathered children with these white women.
(E) The statement that there were no African American slaves in colonial New York or New Jersey is too extreme; it cannot be supported by the passage. In the third paragraph, the passage discusses free African Americans in New York and New Jersey, but we cannot say with certainty that there were no enslaved African Americans in these states in the late 1700s. 

If f(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 9 and g(x) = 4x – 5, then find the value of g( f(x)) at x = 3. 
  • a)
    7
  • b)
    51
  • c)
    56
  • d)
    79
  • e)
    121
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Nambiar answered
The information provided in the question is:
f(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 9
g(x) = 4x – 5
We have to find out the value of g( f(x)) at x = 3.  
f(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 9 
f(3) = 3*(3)2 – 5*3 + 9 
        = 27 – 15 + 9 
        = 21 
 
g(x) = 4x – 5
g(f(x)) = 4f(x) -5
g( f(3)) = 4f(3) – 5
= 4*21 – 5
               = 84 – 5
               = 79   
 
Answer: Option (D)  

For which of the following functions is f(ab) = f(a) * f(b)?
  1. f(x) = x2
  2. f (x) = √x
  3. f (x) = 2x
  • a)
    I only
  • b)
    I, II and III
  • c)
    III only
  • d)
    I and II
Correct answer is 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Srestha Basu answered
Ex

The function f(x) = ex satisfies the property f(ab) = f(a) * f(b) because:

f(ab) = eab = ea * eb = f(a) * f(b)

Using the laws of exponents, we can see that eab = ea * eb, which means that f(ab) = f(a) * f(b) for this function.

If f(x) = x + x2, is f(a+1) – f(a) divisible by 4, where a is an integer > 0
(1) f(a) is divisible by 4
(2)  (-1)a < (-1)a+1
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
  • c)
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Mehta answered
Steps 1 & 2: Understand Question and Draw Inferences
The question wants us to know whether f(a+1) – f(a) is divisible by 4. Let’s simplify the expression given to us.
f(a+1) – f(a) = (a+1) + (a+1)2 – (a + a2)
Simplifying we get f(a+1) – f(a) = (a + 1 –a) + ((a+1)2 -a2))
  • 1 + (a + 1 –a)(a+1+a) = 2 + 2a = 2(1+a)           … (using a2 – b2 = (a-b)(a+b))
  • From the statement above we can conclude that the given expression is always divisible by 2.
Hence, for f(a+1) – f(a) to be divisible by 4, (1+a) must be divisible by 2, which means that a must be odd.
Step 3: Analyze Statement 1
Statement 1 says that f(a) is divisible by 4.
f(a) = a(1+a)
a(1+a) is the product of two consecutive integers. Therefore, one term out of a and 1+a will be even and the other will be odd. The product of these two terms will be even and will always be divisible by 2.
But, we are given that a(1+a) is divisible by 4 also.
This can happen only if
a)      a is divisible by 4 or
b)      1+a is divisible by 4 or
c)       Both a and 1+a are divisible by 2
Case c) is ruled out since a and 1+a are consecutive terms. Therefore, they cannot be both even.
If a is divisible by 4, then a is even.
If 1+a is divisible by 4, then a is odd.
Thus, we cannot determine with confidence whether a is odd or not.
Since Statement 1 does not give us a unique answer, it is not sufficient.
Step 4: Analyze Statement 2
Statement 2 says that (-1)a < (-1)a+1
This is only possible if a is odd, implying that a+1 is even. 
Thus, a is indeed odd.
Since statement 2 gives us a unique answer, it is sufficient to arrive at the conclusion.
 Step 5: Analyze Both Statements Together (if needed)
Since statement 2 gave us a unique answer, this step is not needed.
Correct Answer: B

The function {x} is defined as the lowest odd integer greater than x. What is the value of {x}?
(1) -3.1 < x < -2.5
(2) x2 < 9
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
  • c)
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Steps 1 & 2: Understand Question and Draw Inferences
Let’s understand the meaning of {x}. If x = 2, then the odd integers greater than 2 are 3, 5, etc. The lowest among them is 3. Therefore {2} = 3.
Step 3: Analyze Statement 1
If x is between -3.1 and -3, then {x} = -3. If x is between -3 and -2.5, then {x} = -1.
INSUFFICIENT.
Step 4: Analyze Statement 2
x2 < 9 only for values of x between -3 and 3.
If x = is between -3 and – 1, {x} = -1, if x is between -1 and 1, {x} = 1 and if x is between 1 and 3, {x} = 3.
 Therefore, {x} can be -1, 1 or 3.
INSUFFICIENT.
Step 5: Analyze Both Statements Together (if needed)
When we combine statements (1) and (2),
We know that
-3.1 < x < -2.5
AND
-3 < x < 3
The common solution is: -3 < x < -2.5
For this set of values, {x} = -1.
SUFFICIENT.
 Answer: Option (C)

If x ≠ 0, for which of following functions is  , for all values of x?
  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)
  • e)
Correct answer is 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Step 1: Question statement and Inferences
We have to pick the only option for which  , Since the option will have to be true for all the values of x, substituting numbers is not the best approach. We shall try to replace x with 1/x in each option.
Step 2 & 3: Finding required values and finding the final answer
Let’s check each option one by one.
 
A. .
Not equal to f(x)
 B.  
Not equal to f(x)
C. .  Not equal to f(x)
D.  Not equal to f(x)
In the exam, you need not evaluate option (E) – since we already know that Option D is the answer- but here for practice, let’s evaluate it.
Not equal to f(x).

One often hears that biographies are autobiographies, that the biographer is always writing about himself. On the contrary, serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar, however troublesome to account for. Ron Chernow, the author of rich biographies of the American businessmen J.P. Morgan and John D. Rockefeller, remarks that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, uncomfortable facts strewn in their paths.” Such encounters with the unaccountable are opportunities for breaking out and breaking through, in new directions, to fresh understanding.
One also often hears that biographers must like their subjects. That would of course rule out such vastly important subjects as Hitler or Stalin. In practice, the biographer must like the subject not as a person but as a subject. Some are good subjects for the author, some bad. And what makes one subject better than another for any particular biographer varies dramatically. Some of the reasons are purely practical. Does the subject need a biography? Are the materials available? How much time is needed? A biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice. Great scientists are great subjects, but can one write about their achievements with insight and authority? Personal idiosyncrasies matter, too.
Biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits, whether they be ambition, cruelty, ingenuity, or any other characteristic that separates a potential subject from the multitudes.
In choosing a subject, the biographer’s main question should be, “Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?” Day after day for years, the biographer will try to untangle chronology, compress relationships without distorting them, and keep the main narrative clear while carrying forward several intricate strands of the subject’s life. What pushes most biographers on in this endeavor is not necessarily affection for the subject but the feeling that they are writing a good book.
Q.
The author mentions Ron Chernow most probably in order to
  • a)
    provide a counterexample to a general claim about biography
  • b)
    illustrate a questionable assertion regarding biography
  • c)
    establish a favorable comparison with an established biographer
  • d)
    underscore the importance of research in biography
  • e)
     challenge a new approach to biography
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

This question concerns the context in which the author cites Ron Chernow in the first paragraph. The paragraph begins with the claim that “biographies are autobiographies.” However, that statement is followed by the phrase “on the contrary,” signaling that the subsequent mention of Chernow is intended to provide a counterexample to this claim.
(A) CORRECT. Chernow is cited as a counterexample to the general claim that “biographies are autobiographies.”
(B) The questionable assertion in the first paragraph is that “biographies are autobiographies.” However, the signal words “on the contrary” indicate that Chernow is not intended as an illustration of this assertion, but rather a counterexample.
(C) Chernow is the only biographer named in the passage, so the author never attempted to make a comparison between Chernow and any other established biographer.  
(D) The importance of research in biography is discussed in the second paragraph, while Chernow is cited in the first paragraph. Thus, it is likely that Chernow is cited for some other reason.
(E) The author is not challenging a new approach to biography; if anything, he is arguing that certain attitudes about biography are inaccurate. Chernow is cited to counter one such prevailing attitude.  

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the use of pay-per-click search engines ads?
  • a)
    Most consumers that respond to these ads translate directly into paying customers.
  • b)
    Companies will incur relatively little cost for ads that attract minimal interest from consumers.
  • c)
    Companies with the most impressive websites will draw the most attention to their ads.
  • d)
    Companies with the best brands benefit the most from the ads.
  • e)
    Companies that use these ads always have webanalytic technology on their websites.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Sen answered
Explanation:

Cost Incurred for Ads with Minimal Interest:
- The passage states that companies are charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website.
- This means that companies will only incur costs when there is genuine interest from consumers who click on the ad.
Therefore, it can be inferred from the passage that companies will incur relatively little cost for ads that attract minimal interest from consumers.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg?
  • a)
    Attempts to cultivate nutmeg trees outside of the Banda Islands had failed.
  • b)
    Few people lived in New Amsterdam before it was ceded to the British.
  • c)
    The British controlled trade in other valuable spices, such as cloves.
  • d)
    New Amsterdam served as a trading center for furs exported to Europe.
  • e)
    The Netherlands controlled no North American territories other than New Amsterdam
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Yadav answered
The question asks us to strengthen the claim that New Amsterdam would not have become a British possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg. We do not have to find an answer choice that proves that New Amsterdam would not have become a British territory, simply one that shows that New Amsterdam had attributes that the Dutch valued.
(A) This choice tells us that the nutmeg trade was limited to the Banda Islands, but it does not give us any information concerning New Amsterdam.
(B) The fact that New Amsterdam had a small population is not suggestive of anything relevant to the question.
(C) The fact that the British controlled trade in other spices does not give a reason to believe that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg. 
(D) CORRECT. The passage tells us that The Netherlands ceded New Amsterdam in order to gain control of the valuable spice trade. This choice suggests that New Amsterdam was already a source of wealth for The Netherlands. So perhaps The Netherlands would have held on to New Amsterdam if they had not been offered something they perceived to be even more valuable (e.g., nutmeg).
(E) The fact that The Netherlands controlled no other North American territories is not relevant unless we have information suggesting that The Netherlands felt compelled to maintain a presence in North America. Since we do not have any such information, this choice is not relevant.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Banda Islands?
  • a)
    Increased economic competition with Britain
  • b)
    Disappointment with the economic development of New Amsterdam
  • c)
    Frustration with the practices of Venetian spice merchants
  • d)
    Failure to cultivate nutmeg in other locations
  • e)
    Desire to restrict access to a commodity
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Reason for Initial Interest of the Netherlands in the Banda Islands:

Desire to restrict access to a commodity:
- The passage mentions that the Dutch were eager to establish a monopoly over the valuable nutmeg trade.
- They sought to control the production and distribution of nutmeg by gaining control of the Banda Islands, where the nutmeg tree grew exclusively.
Therefore, the reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Banda Islands was their desire to restrict access to the commodity of nutmeg and establish a monopoly in the spice trade.

New research by Paul Fildes and K. Whitaker challenges the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate by withholding a metabolite necessary for their regular function. In particular, they consider the case of bacteria typhosum, which needs tryptophan in order to reproduce. Earlier researchers had grown the bacteria in a medium somewhat deficient in tryptophan and observed the growth of mutant strains of the bacteria which did not need tryptophan in order to reproduce.
Fildes and Whitaker argue that the withholding of tryptophan did not induce these mutant strains of bacteria.
Rather, these mutants were already present in the original sample of bacteria typhosum, albeit in a concentration too small to detect. In experimenting with the bacteria grown in agar cultures, they found that by plating out huge quantities of the bacteria, one could locate mutant strains. Because of the possibility that the lack of uniformity of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant strains, they conducted similar experiments with liquid cultures and again found that mutant strains of the bacteria were present in the original sampling. From these experiments, Fildes and Whitaker conclude that the mutants are of genetic origin and are not induced by environmental training. They asserted that the concentration of tryptophan is unrelated to the appearance of these mutants in the bacteria.
To confirm these results, Fildes and Whitaker used an innovative plating technique using pile fabrics, such as velvet or velveteen, to accurately imprint the growth found on an original agar plate to a series of replica agar plates.
The process entails taking the original agar plate, inverting it onto the velvet while using light finger pressure to transfer growth, and then imprinting the fabric, with its pattern of growth, on the new agar plates. By using this replica plating method, Fildes and Whitaker demonstrated that the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted, as the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate.
Q.
It can be inferred from the passage that the replica plating method is effective for which of the following reasons?
  • a)
    It allows researchers to determine the relative sizes of different populations of bacteria.
  • b)
    It shows that no new mutant strains developed after transfer from the original agar plate.
  • c)
    It eliminates the possibility that the agar culture was contaminated by a different type of bacteria.
  • d)
    It demonstrates that no tryptophan was present in the original agar culture.
  • e)
    It establishes that the original agar culture contained the necessary metabolites for bacterial reproduction.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
The replica plating method is discussed in the third paragraph. The first two sentences describe the process, while the third sentence explains what was learned by using this method. The correct inference about the effectiveness of the replica plating method will be a virtual rephrasing of the facts presented in the third paragraph.  
(A) We cannot infer that the replica plating method allows researchers to determine the relative sizes of different populations of bacteria. The population sizes of various bacteria populations were never discussed.
(B) CORRECT. The last sentence of the passage states that “the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate,” citing this as proof that “the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted.” In other words, the mutant strains did not develop after transfer from the original agar plate.
(C) The only type of bacteria mentioned in the passage was bacteria typhosum, so we cannot infer that the replica plating method eliminates the possibility that the agar culture was contaminated by a different type of bacteria.
(D) The role of tryptophan is discussed in the first and second paragraphs. This answer choice goes too far by asserting that “no tryptophan was present in the original agar culture.” We do not have enough information to make that inference.
(E) According to the first paragraph, “the necessary metabolites for bacterial reproduction” are defined as the substances “necessary for their (bacteria’s) regular function.” In the case of bacteria typhosum, that substance is tryptophan. We do not have enough information to infer that the replica plating method establishes that the original agar culture contained tryptophan. If fact, the presence of mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates would contradict this statement rather than support it.  

One often hears that biographies are autobiographies, that the biographer is always writing about himself. On the contrary, serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar, however troublesome to account for. Ron Chernow, the author of rich biographies of the American businessmen J.P. Morgan and John D. Rockefeller, remarks that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, uncomfortable facts strewn in their paths.” Such encounters with the unaccountable are opportunities for breaking out and breaking through, in new directions, to fresh understanding.
One also often hears that biographers must like their subjects. That would of course rule out such vastly important subjects as Hitler or Stalin. In practice, the biographer must like the subject not as a person but as a subject. Some are good subjects for the author, some bad. And what makes one subject better than another for any particular biographer varies dramatically. Some of the reasons are purely practical. Does the subject need a biography? Are the materials available? How much time is needed? A biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice. Great scientists are great subjects, but can one write about their achievements with insight and authority? Personal idiosyncrasies matter, too.
Biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits, whether they be ambition, cruelty, ingenuity, or any other characteristic that separates a potential subject from the multitudes.
In choosing a subject, the biographer’s main question should be, “Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?” Day after day for years, the biographer will try to untangle chronology, compress relationships without distorting them, and keep the main narrative clear while carrying forward several intricate strands of the subject’s life. What pushes most biographers on in this endeavor is not necessarily affection for the subject but the feeling that they are writing a good book.
Q.
It can be inferred that the author makes which of the following assumptions about biographies?
  • a)
    Their main purpose is to inform readers about key aspects of the subjects’ personalities.
  • b)
    Only subjects who share traits with biographers make good subjects for biographies.
  • c)
    Compelling biographies cannot be written about ordinary citizens.
  • d)
    The biographer’s credibility with readers is a factor in the critical success of a biography.
  • e)
    Practical considerations are most important in the selection of a subject for a biography.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Khanna answered
The question asks us to identify an assumption that the author makes about biographies. The best approach to this question is simply to evaluate the choices one-by-one. Since an assumption is an unstated piece of evidence that is necessary to complete the logic of an argument, we are looking for an answer choice that completes the logic of the passage.
(A) While the author mentions in the second paragraph that “biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits,” informing readers of these traits is never implied to be the “main” purpose of biographies.
(B) In the first paragraph, the author writes that “serious biographers seek and welcome the unfamiliar.” The author states in the second paragraph that “the biographer must like the subject not as a person, but as a subject.” Thus, the author probably disagrees with this answer choice. (C) The author concludes in the third paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the biographer’s main question should be, ‘Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?’” The author most likely believes the opposite of this answer choice: that compelling biographies can be written about ordinary citizens.
(D) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the author discusses the elements of a good biography, stating that “a biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine the choice” of subject. If the author did not assume that the biographer's credibility with readers is a factor in the critical success of a biography, then this part of the second paragraph would be meaningless.
(E) In the second paragraph, the author discusses the practical considerations a biographer faces when selecting a subject, though such considerations are never presented as “most” important. In addition, the author goes on to add in the third paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the biographer’s main question should be, ‘Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?’” An adequate answer to this suggested question goes beyond practical considerations.  

If v* = (1/v), find the value of
v* + (v*)* + ((v*)*)* if v = 1/2.
  • a)
    3
  • b)
    7/2
  • c)
    4
  • d)
    9/2
  • e)
    5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Step 1: Question statement and Inferences
A function has been defined called v* such that v* = 1v
 
Step 2 & 3: Finding required values and calculating the final answer
 v = 1/2
=> v*=1v=2
 
=> (v*)* = (2)* = 1/2
=> ((v*)*)* = (1/2)* = 2
=> v* + (v*)* + ((v*)*)* = 2 + 1/2 + 2 = 9/2.
 
Answer: Option (D)

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
The second paragraph perfo rms which of the following functions in the passage?
 
  • a)
    It offers specific information to complete the logic of the author’s claims.
  • b)
    It summarizes and evaluates the evidence given thus far.
  • c)
    It presents the author’s main point to explain a unique situation.
  • d)
    It cites a particular case to demonstrate the importance of historical change
  • e)
    It discusses the necessary outcome of the author’s assertions.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

We are asked to determine the role that the second paragraph plays in the passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, the author introduces his main point -- that commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development -- and begins a discussion about nutmeg. However, this discussion is incomplete at the end of the first paragraph. It is not until the second paragraph that we learn how nutmeg affected world development.
(A) CORRECT. The second paragraph offers specific information -- namely, the role that nutmeg played in the history of New York -- to support the claim that commonplace items play surprising roles in world history.
(B) The second paragraph does not summarize the evidence.
(C) The second paragraph does not present the author's main point - that commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. Also, the author's main point does not explain the importance of nutmeg as discussed in the second paragraph; rather, the importance of nutmeg is used as an example to illustrate the author's main point.
(D) The second paragraph demonstrates the relative importance of nutmeg in an event of historical significance, but it does not demonstrate the importance of historical change itself.
(E) The second paragraph does not discuss the outcomes, necessary or otherwise, of the author's claims. Instead, it offers evidence to support those claims. 

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about the Banda Islands?
  • a)
    The British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
  • b)
    Nutmeg was the only spice that grew on the islands.
  • c)
    Natives of the islands produced nutmeg from the nuts of the nutmeg tree.
  • d)
    The Banda Islands are still in the possession of the Dutch.
  • e)
    The local economy of the islands depended completely on nutmeg.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Background on the Banda Islands:
The passage provides information about the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific, and their significance in the nutmeg trade.

Explanation of the Correct Answer - Option A:
- The passage mentions that one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British, indicating that the British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
- The conflict between the Netherlands and England over control of the islands further supports the idea that the British were present in the Banda Islands prior to the Dutch.
Therefore, based on the information provided in the passage, option A is the correct answer as it is supported by the historical context presented.

Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly renamed New York.
Q.
In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
  • a)
    tracing the history of a major city
  • b)
    discussing the role of spices in world development
  • c)
    offering a specific example to support a general claim
  • d)
    arguing for continued research into political history
  • e)
    presenting an innovative view of a commonplace item
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
Focus of the Author:
The author is primarily interested in offering a specific example to support a general claim.

Explanation:
- The passage discusses the historical significance of nutmeg and how it played a surprising role in world development.
- The author uses the example of nutmeg to illustrate how this commonplace item had a significant impact on political history, specifically in the conflict between the Dutch and the British over control of the spice trade.
- By detailing the events surrounding the control of the Banda Islands and the exchange of New Amsterdam for the nutmeg trade, the author supports the general claim that commonplace items can have unexpected implications on global events.
- Through this specific example, the author highlights the broader idea that seemingly ordinary items can influence major historical developments.

The function SCI is defined as SCI(x, y) = z, where z is the sum of y consecutive positive integers starting from positive integer x. If a and n are positive integers, is SCI(a,n) divisible by n?
(1) 3n +2a  is not divisible by 2
(2) 3a +2n  is divisible by 2
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • c)
    BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Nambiar answered
Steps 1 & 2: Understand Question and Draw Inferences
  • SCI(x, y) = z, where z = x+ x+1 +x+2…….x+y-1 and x, y, z are integers > 0
  • a, n are integers > 0
     
To Find: Is SCI(a, n) = nb, where quotient b is an integer?
  • SCI(a, n) = a+ a+1….a+n -1
  • The terms a, a + 1, a + 2…. a + n -1 are in arithmetic sequence with common difference  = 1
  • SCI(a, n) = Sum of an arithmetic sequence = 
  • For SCI  to be divisible by n,   should be an integer.
    • That is  should be an integer
    • That is,  should be an integer, i.e. n -1 should be divisible by 2.
  • For n -1 to be divisible by 2, n-1 = even, i.e. n = odd.
  • Thus, if n is odd SCI(a, n) is divisible by n, else it is not. Hence, we need to find the even-odd nature of n.
     
    Step 3: Analyze Statement 1 independently
    (1) 3n +2a  is not divisible by 2
  • As 3n + 2a is not divisible by 2, 3n + 2a is odd
  • 3n +2a = odd
    • 3n + even = odd
    • 3n = odd
    • n = odd
  • Since we know the even-odd nature of n, the statement is sufficient to answer.
     
    Step 4: Analyze Statement 2 independently
    (2) 3a +2n  is divisible by 2
  • As 3a + 2n is divisible by 2, 3a + 2n is even
  • 3a + 2n = even
    • 3a + even = even
    • 3a = even
  • Does not tell us anything about the even-odd nature of n.
    Insufficient to answer.
     
    Step 5: Analyze Both Statements Together (if needed)
    As we have a unique answer from step-3, this step is not required.
    Answer: A

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
The third paragraph of the passage serves to
  • a)
    point out possible disadvantages of Internet advertising
  • b)
    demonstrate the cost-effectiveness of Internet advertising
  • c)
    argue against proponents of print media
  • d)
    Provide further detail on the specific example mentioned in the second paragraph
  • e)
    contrast newspaper ads with television commercials
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Navya Yadav answered
Disadvantages of Internet Advertising
The third paragraph of the passage highlights the potential downsides of Internet advertising, making it clear that while it has benefits, it is not without its flaws.
Key Points on Limitations
- Print Media Advocacy: Proponents of print media argue that newspaper advertisements can effectively promote brand awareness, which they believe adds greater value than Internet ads.
- Issues of Fraud: The paragraph mentions fraud as a significant concern in Internet marketing, indicating that companies may face deceptive practices that undermine their advertising efforts.
- Intense Competition: The competitive nature of online marketing can lead to increased costs as companies vie for the same audience, which can diminish the perceived cost-effectiveness of Internet advertising.
- Complexity of Web Tools: The rise of ancillary services, which companies must hire to navigate intricate web-tracking tools, adds additional costs that may not be immediately apparent to businesses using Internet marketing.
Conclusion
The third paragraph serves to point out these disadvantages, illustrating that while Internet advertising offers targeted outreach and measurable outcomes, it also brings challenges that can complicate its effectiveness and cost efficiency. Thus, the correct answer is option 'A', as it emphasizes the potential drawbacks rather than advocating for the merits of Internet advertising.

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.
Q.
According to the author, which of the following is the principal reason that German reunification could
succeed?
  • a)
    The additional population from East Germany gave the reunified Germany an economic advantage over other European nations.
  • b)
    East Germany had not been as impoverished as other Eastern Bloc countries.
  • c)
    West Germany did not plan to control internal migration from East Germany.
  • d)
    West Germany patterned its economic plan after a successful Italian model.
  • e)
    West Germany was a materially stable country
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
The question asks us to identify the author's reason for believing that German reunification could succeed. According to the last sentence of the passage, "[reunification] would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task." In other words, West Germany was prosperous enough to afford this major undertaking. (A) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East Germany
(B) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East Germany.
(C) Although this point is made in the passage, it is not the reason given for reunification's success. (D) This is not the reason given in the last sentence for reunification's success.
(E) CORRECT.  This choice reflects the information we were looking for: the country was "materially stable," or prosperous enough, to succeed. 

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
According to the passage, which of the following is a difference between free African Americans in colonial New York and New Jersey and free African Americans in the colonial South?
  • a)
    Those in New York and New Jersey were primarily descended from freed slaves while those in the South were primarily descended from white women.
  • b)
    Those in New York and New Jersey were primarily descended from white women while those in the South were primarily descended from freed slaves
  • c)
    Both groups of African Americans were primarily descended from freed slaves, but those in the North had been freed earlier.
  • d)
    Both groups of African Americans were primarily descended from freed slaves, but those in the South had been freed earlier.
  • e)
    Those in the South could be freed only with legislative permission.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Datta answered
The correct answer is A. The last paragraph states: "The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners." The first paragraph states: "However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women." Taken together, these excepts support choice A. 

Lyric Poetry 
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
Lyric Poets 
For each of the following statements about the newly discovered manuscripts, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
  • a)
    Yes, Yes, Yes
  • b)
     Yes, No, Yes
  • c)
    No, No, No
  • d)
    Yes, No No
  • e)
    No, No, Yes
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Statement 1: The statement is inferable: lyric poetry was composed in the 7th century BCE or later, so it comes after the year 700 BCE.
Answer: Yes
Statement 2: The statement is not inferable. Though concerned with the present, lyric poems did at times use Greece’s mythical past as their backdrop. Thus, a poem referring to Greece’s mythical past could have been composed by one of the major lyric poets.
Answer: No
Statement 3: The given information tells you that love poems were mainly (if not exclusively) written as solo songs. The table of poets does not list any poet who wrote solo songs after the 6th century. Thus, the newly discovered love songs were probably not composed in the 5th century.
Answer: Yes
 


In 2010, there were four used-car dealers in City Z. The graphic shows the monthly sales data for 2010 for two of those dealers as well as the citywide average for used-car dealers for those months.
Based on the given information, use the drop-down menus to most accurately complete the following statements.

1. ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive accounted for ____half of all used-car sales in City Z for 2010.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly _____ cars.
  • a)
    Less than, 23
  • b)
    Exactly, 52
  • c)
    More than, 46
  • d)
    Less than, 58
  • e)
    Exactly, 46
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
1. ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive accounted for_______half of all used-car sales in City Z for 2010.
Since the white circles (connected by blue lines) and the filled squares (connected by black lines) in the graph are consistently at or above the empty squares (connected by dotted lines), it follows that both ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive were at or above the citywide average for every single month in 2010. Thus their combined sales must have been greater than the combined sales of the two dealers not included in the graph. Therefore ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive must have accounted for more than half of all used-car sales in City Z in 2010.
The correct answer is more than.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly______________cars.
In June 2010, the citywide average was 26 cars. This means that the four dealers sold a combined 4(26) = 104 cars. Of those 104 cars, ABC Cars sold 30 and XYZ Automotive sold 28. This implies that the other two dealers sold 104 − 30 − 28 = 46 cars.
The correct answer is 46.
 

New research by Paul Fildes and K. Whitaker challenges the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate by withholding a metabolite necessary for their regular function. In particular, they consider the case of bacteria typhosum, which needs tryptophan in order to reproduce. Earlier researchers had grown the bacteria in a medium somewhat deficient in tryptophan and observed the growth of mutant strains of the bacteria which did not need tryptophan in order to reproduce.
Fildes and Whitaker argue that the withholding of tryptophan did not induce these mutant strains of bacteria.
Rather, these mutants were already present in the original sample of bacteria typhosum, albeit in a concentration too small to detect. In experimenting with the bacteria grown in agar cultures, they found that by plating out huge quantities of the bacteria, one could locate mutant strains. Because of the possibility that the lack of uniformity of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant strains, they conducted similar experiments with liquid cultures and again found that mutant strains of the bacteria were present in the original sampling. From these experiments, Fildes and Whitaker conclude that the mutants are of genetic origin and are not induced by environmental training. They asserted that the concentration of tryptophan is unrelated to the appearance of these mutants in the bacteria.
To confirm these results, Fildes and Whitaker used an innovative plating technique using pile fabrics, such as velvet or velveteen, to accurately imprint the growth found on an original agar plate to a series of replica agar plates.
The process entails taking the original agar plate, inverting it onto the velvet while using light finger pressure to transfer growth, and then imprinting the fabric, with its pattern of growth, on the new agar plates. By using this replica plating method, Fildes and Whitaker demonstrated that the mutants were in fact genetically present or preadapted, as the locations of the mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the mutant strains on the original agar plate.
Q.
Which of the following most accurately states the purpose of the passage?
  • a)
    To defend a scientific hypothesis from attack by an innovative technique
  • b)
    To describe a process by which bacteria can be trained to mutate
  • c)
    To present the results of an experiment designed to test an established theory
  • d)
    To argue against an established protocol on the grounds that it is outdated
  • e)
    To challenge a scientific technique used to prove a questionable theory
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The question asks for the purpose of the passage. The passage focuses on an experiment designed to challenge an existing theory about bacteria. The correct answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus.  
(A) The “innovative technique” is the replica plating method discussed in the third paragraph. This technique was used to support the scientific hypothesis of Fildes and Whitaker. Thus, the passage did not need to “defend [Fildes and Whitaker’s] scientific hypothesis from attack by [the] innovative technique.” In addition, the passage did not even defend the theory that Fildes and Whitaker were challenging.
(B) The first sentence of the passage makes it clear that the focus will be to “challenge the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate,” not to describe a process by which such training was accomplished.
(C) CORRECT. The second and third paragraphs discuss the experiments performed by Fildes and Whitaker that were designed to test the established theory, mentioned in the first paragraph, that “strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate.” This answer choice summarizes the entire passage.
(D) Fildes and Whitaker argue against a theory, not an established protocol. There is no mention in the passage that a particular protocol is outdated.
(E) The passage does not state that either Fildes and Whitaker’s theory, or the theory they were challenging was questionable. The passage describes, but does not “challenge,” several scientific techniques. 

Before the age of space exploration, the size and composition of the moon’s core were astronomical mysteries. Astronomers assumed that the moon’s core was smaller than that of the Earth, in both relative and absolute terms — the radius of the Earth’s core is 55 percent of the overall radius of the Earth and the core’s mass is 32 percent of the Earth’s overall mass — but they had no way to verify their assumption. However, data gathered by Lunar Prospector have now given astronomers the ability to determine that the moon’s core accounts for 20 percent of the moon’s radius and for a mere 2 percent of its overall mass.
The data have been used in two ways. In the first method, scientists measured minute variations in radio signals from Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth. These variations allowed scientists to detect even the slightest changes in the craft’s velocity while the craft orbited the moon. These changes resulted from inconsistency in the gravitational pull of the moon on the craft, and permitted scientists to create a “gravity map” of both near and far sides of the moon. This map, in turn, revealed to scientists the distribution of the moon’s internal mass. Scientists were then able to determine that the moon has a small, metallic core, which, if composed mostly of iron, has a radius of approximately 350 kilometers. The second method involved examining the faint magnetic field generated within the moon itself by the moon’s monthly passage through the tail of the Earth’s magnetosphere. This approach confirmed the results obtained through examination of the gravity map.
The size and composition of the moon’s core are not academic concerns; they have serious implications for our understanding of the moon’s origins. For example, if the moon and Earth developed as distinct entities, the sizes of their cores should be more comparable. In actuality, it seems that the moon was once part of the Earth and broke away at an early stage in the Earth’s evolution, perhaps as the result of a major asteroid impact. The impact could have loosened iron that had not already sunk to the core of the Earth, allowing it to form the core around which the moon eventually coalesced.
Q.
It can be inferred from the passage that
  • a)
    the earth’s core contributes a higher proportion of both the earth’s total radius and its total mass than the core of the moon contributes to its own total radius and mass
  • b)
    a comparison of the earth’s and moon’s cores suggests that the earth did break away from the moon
  • c)
    scientists will eventually be able to use the gravity map to further the proof that a major asteroid impact caused the earth and moon to separate
  • d)
    because the earth and moon were once joined, it is probable that scientists will eventually discover fossils and other evidence on the moon that indicates that a major asteroid impact caused the extinction of the dinosaurs
  • e)
    the moon’s core has a higher ratio of iron in its composition than does the earth’s
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nayanika Bajaj answered
Because the question is open-ended, the best approach is to evaluate the choices.
(A) CORRECT. The information contained in A can be proven from the information in the passage. The ratios that it discusses can be found in the first paragraph: the earth's core contributes 55% of the earth's radius and 32% of its mass, compared to the moon's core contributing 20% of the moon's radius and 2% of its mass.  Like many correct answers to inferences, the inference is very small.
(B) This choice reverses the relationship suggested in the passage--that the moon might have broken away from the earth. (C) This choice does not have to be true both because said proof is not certain and because it is even less clear that the gravity map could be used for that purpose. (D) This choice is a typical GMAT flight of fancy that sometimes is given as a wrong choice; as dinosaurs are not mentioned at all, this answer is impossible.
(E) This choice does not have to follow from the information provided. The passage does not give any information about the percentage of iron in the earth's core nor does it compare that aspect of the two cores. 

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
The passage suggests which of the following about African American families in colonial New York and New Jersey?
  • a)
    They were not descended from white servant women and African American men.
  • b)
    They were less numerous than African American families in the colonial South.
  • c)
    Most of them were started between 1644 and 166
  • d)
    They began with an initial group of fourteen families.
  • e)
    Some of them may have descended from white servant women.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

African American families in colonial New York and New Jersey are discussed in the last paragraph of the passage. The correct answer will be the one that can be supported by the facts presented in that paragraph.
(A) This statement is contradicted by the last sentence of the passage: “However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples [white servant women and African American men] had children baptized."
(B) The topic sentence of the third paragraph states that “the history of free African American families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South.” The focus is on the different histories of the two groups, but there is no discussion of their relative numbers.
(C) The dates 1644 and 1664 are mentioned in the paragraph as the years when the Dutch West India Company freed slaves in the area. This does not suggest that the families were started between 1644 and 1664.
(D) According to the last paragraph, researchers have studied fourteen families of free African Americans in New York and New Jersey, but the passage does not suggest that those fourteen families were the “initial group” from which the others grew.
(E) CORRECT. The last two sentences of the passage read: "None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records in the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized." The last sentence especially suggests that although none of the fourteen families studied by researchers descended from white servant women, church records indicate that some such families seem to have existed at that time. 

Before the age of space exploration, the size and composition of the moon’s core were astronomical mysteries. Astronomers assumed that the moon’s core was smaller than that of the Earth, in both relative and absolute terms — the radius of the Earth’s core is 55 percent of the overall radius of the Earth and the core’s mass is 32 percent of the Earth’s overall mass — but they had no way to verify their assumption. However, data gathered by Lunar Prospector have now given astronomers the ability to determine that the moon’s core accounts for 20 percent of the moon’s radius and for a mere 2 percent of its overall mass.
The data have been used in two ways. In the first method, scientists measured minute variations in radio signals from Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth. These variations allowed scientists to detect even the slightest changes in the craft’s velocity while the craft orbited the moon. These changes resulted from inconsistency in the gravitational pull of the moon on the craft, and permitted scientists to create a “gravity map” of both near and far sides of the moon. This map, in turn, revealed to scientists the distribution of the moon’s internal mass. Scientists were then able to determine that the moon has a small, metallic core, which, if composed mostly of iron, has a radius of approximately 350 kilometers. The second method involved examining the faint magnetic field generated within the moon itself by the moon’s monthly passage through the tail of the Earth’s magnetosphere. This approach confirmed the results obtained through examination of the gravity map.
The size and composition of the moon’s core are not academic concerns; they have serious implications for our understanding of the moon’s origins. For example, if the moon and Earth developed as distinct entities, the sizes of their cores should be more comparable. In actuality, it seems that the moon was once part of the Earth and broke away at an early stage in the Earth’s evolution, perhaps as the result of a major asteroid impact. The impact could have loosened iron that had not already sunk to the core of the Earth, allowing it to form the core around which the moon eventually coalesced.
Q.
According to the passage, scientists employed one research method that measured
  • a)
    changes in a spacecraft’s velocity as it returned to Earth
  • b)
    changes in the gravitational pull on the Lunar Prospector as it orbited the moon
  • c)
    changes in the moon’s gravity as it orbited the earth
  • d)
    changes in a spacecraft’s radio signals as it changed position relative to the earth
  • e)
    changes in the moon’s gravitational pull over time
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
The information to answer this question must come from the second or third paragraph. As it turns out, the choices all relate to the second one. The second sentence of that paragraph reads "measured minute variations in radio signals from Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth."  (A) Changes in the craft's velocity were measured while the craft orbited the moon, not as A states as the craft "returned to Earth."
(B) Although measurements of the Lunar Prospector 's velocity allowed scientists to create a "gravity map," the scientists did not measure directly the gravitational pull on the craft. 
(C) This choice is incorrect because the passage does not discuss changes in the moon's gravity. 
(D) CORRECT. The phrase "changed position relative to the earth" is a fair equivalent of "moved towards or away from the Earth." 
(E) This choice is incorrect because the passage does not discuss changes in the moon's gravitational pull over time.  

The movement for women’s rights traces its origin to the first half of the nineteenth century. The Seneca Falls Convention, held in Seneca Falls, New York in July of 1848, is commonly regarded as the beginning of the women’s rights movement in the United States. This conference was preceded by a series of ground-breaking events that made possible this seminal milestone in the history of American women.
The idea for the convention emerged during the 1840 World Anti-Slavery Convention in London, a conference that precluded its female delegates from participation in discussions. Lucretia Mott, a famous women’s rights activist, wrote in her diary that calling the 1840 convention a “world” convention “was a mere poetical license.” She had accompanied her husband to London but had to sit behind a partition with other women activists, including Elizabeth Cady Stanton, who later became one of the main forces behind the Seneca Falls Convention.
During the early 1840s, Elizabeth Cady Stanton composed the Declaration of Sentiments, a document modeled after the Declaration of Independence, declaring the rights of women. At the time of its composition, the Declaration of Sentiments was so bold that when Elizabeth Stanton showed the draft to her husband, he stated that if she read it at the Seneca Falls Convention, he would have to leave town. The Declaration contained several new resolutions. It proclaimed that all men and women are born equal and stated that no man could withhold a woman’s rights, take her property, or preclude her from the right to vote. This Declaration also became the foundation for the Seneca Falls Convention.
On July 19-20, 1848, the Seneca Falls Convention brought together 240 delegates between ages 22 and 60, including forty men, who spent the two days at the conference debating, refining and voting on the Declaration of Sentiments. Most of the declaration’s resolutions received unanimous support and were officially endorsed. Later in 1848, the Seneca Falls convention was followed by an even larger meeting in Rochester, New York. Thereafter, national women’s conventions were held annually, contributing to the growing momentum in the movement for women’s rights.
Q. 
Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
  • a)
    Most of the delegates of the Seneca Falls Convention subsequently attended the 1848 convention in Rochester, New York.
  • b)
    The Declaration of Sentiments stated that women must not be confined to housekeeping occupations.
  • c)
    The Seneca Falls Convention gathered more than 190 women, none of whom were younger than 20 years old.
  • d)
    The husband of Elizabeth Cady Stanton left town after she read the Declaration of Sentiments at the Seneca Falls Convention.
  • e)
    Most delegates at the 1840 World Anti-Slavery Convention were men.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Since this is an inference question, we will be looking for an answer that can be inferred strictly based on the information given in the passage and without making any additional assumptions. Typically, the correct answer must be very closely connected to the actual text of the passage and directly supported by one or two sentences. 
(A) The concluding paragraph of the passage states that “the Seneca Falls Convention was followed by an even larger meeting in Rochester, New York,” but mentions nothing about the breakdown of the delegates for that convention.
(B) The third paragraph describes the rights proclaimed by the Declaration of Sentiments. While the declaration stated that “… all men and women are born equal and that no man could withhold a woman's rights, take her property, or preclude her from the right to vote,” it did not address occupational issues, according to the passage. 
(C) CORRECT. The opening sentence of the last paragraph states that “… the Seneca Falls Convention brought together 240 delegates between ages 22 and 60, including 40 men…” Since 40 of the 240 delegates were men, we can infer that the remaining 200 delegates must have been women. Further, since all the delegates were between ages 22 and 60, none of the delegates could have been younger than 22 years old. Therefore, we can infer that the convention gathered more than 190 women, none of whom were younger than 20.
(D) While the passage mentions that the husband of Elizabeth Cady Stanton stated that he would leave town of she read the Declaration of Sentiments at the Seneca Falls Convention, nothing in the passage implies that he actually did so.
(E) The opening sentence of the second paragraph states that “… the 1840 World Anti-Slavery Convention in London … precluded its female delegates from participation in discussions.” However, the passage provides no information regarding the number of either male or female delegates at that conference. 

Lyric Poetry
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
Lyric Poets
For each of the following statements about a newly discovered poem that was composed in the choliambic meter, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
  • a)
    No, Yes, No
  • b)
    Yes, No, Yes
  • c)
    Yes, Yes, Yes
  • d)
    No, No, No
  • e)
    Yes, Yes, No
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Statement 1: Hipponax is mentioned as perhaps the only composer of choliambics, and he was a composer of iambic poetry, which is not love poetry. Thus, this statement can be inferred.
Answer: Yes
Statement 2: This statement is inferable: Hipponax lived in the 6th century.
Answer: Yes
Statement 3: This statement cannot be inferred. The given information says that iambic poetry may or may not have been performed to music, and since this choliambic poem was probably by Hipponax, who was a composer of iambic poetry, this poem may or may not have been performed to music.
Answer: No

Before the age of space exploration, the size and composition of the moon’s core were astronomical mysteries. Astronomers assumed that the moon’s core was smaller than that of the Earth, in both relative and absolute terms — the radius of the Earth’s core is 55 percent of the overall radius of the Earth and the core’s mass is 32 percent of the Earth’s overall mass — but they had no way to verify their assumption. However, data gathered by Lunar Prospector have now given astronomers the ability to determine that the moon’s core accounts for 20 percent of the moon’s radius and for a mere 2 percent of its overall mass.
The data have been used in two ways. In the first method, scientists measured minute variations in radio signals from Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth. These variations allowed scientists to detect even the slightest changes in the craft’s velocity while the craft orbited the moon. These changes resulted from inconsistency in the gravitational pull of the moon on the craft, and permitted scientists to create a “gravity map” of both near and far sides of the moon. This map, in turn, revealed to scientists the distribution of the moon’s internal mass. Scientists were then able to determine that the moon has a small, metallic core, which, if composed mostly of iron, has a radius of approximately 350 kilometers. The second method involved examining the faint magnetic field generated within the moon itself by the moon’s monthly passage through the tail of the Earth’s magnetosphere. This approach confirmed the results obtained through examination of the gravity map.
The size and composition of the moon’s core are not academic concerns; they have serious implications for our understanding of the moon’s origins. For example, if the moon and Earth developed as distinct entities, the sizes of their cores should be more comparable. In actuality, it seems that the moon was once part of the Earth and broke away at an early stage in the Earth’s evolution, perhaps as the result of a major asteroid impact. The impact could have loosened iron that had not already sunk to the core of the Earth, allowing it to form the core around which the moon eventually coalesced.
Q.
The author mentioned “gravity map” in the second paragraph in order to
  • a)
    illustrate the method used to correct the Lunar Prospector’s velocity
  • b)
    confirm the results obtained by examining the moon’s magnetic field
  • c)
    detail a step in the investigation of the composition of a specific orbiting body
  • d)
    detail a step in the investigation of the effects of gravity on the moon and earth
  • e)
    explain a step in the process of confirming a new hypothesis and discarding an older theory
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Mehta answered
This question asks why the author included this detail. The "gravity map" was a step in the determination of the size of the moon's core.  We must find a choice that reflects this.
(A) This choice is a distortion—the method was not used in this way.
(B) This choice not only comes from the third paragraph but also reverses the relationship--the magnetic field work confirmed the map.
(C) CORRECT. The author put in the detail to show a step in the investigation of the core ("composition") of the moon ("orbiting body").
(D) This choice contains the false word "earth"; in fact, the "moon" is the sole focus of the investigation of gravity's effects.
(E) This choice incorrectly states that an older theory was discarded; in fact the old assumption was confirmed.

Managing Director 
Message from the Managing Director of a theater company to the Artistic Director
I have information about six theaters that could be suitable for our upcoming production. Their capacities range from 142 seats to 199 seats, and their rental rates range from $6000 per week to $12,000 per week. Location ac-counts for much of the difference in prices: Theaters in Center City are pricier than the others. On the other hand, we are likely to sell more tickets in a centrally located theater than in one of the others. Judging by our recent productions, I think that we should be able to achieve 50% of our weckly box office potential (that is, 50% of what we would earn in a weck if we sold all tickets to all performances at the maximum price) in Center City. Otherwise, 40% is a more reasonable expectation.
Take a look at the attached table for more details.
For each of the following theaters, select Yes if the managing director believes it is reasonable that each week the theater company will be able to earn more than $13,000 above the weekly rental price at that theater. Otherwise, select No.
  • a)
    The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic No
  • b)
    The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
  • c)
    The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic No
  • d)
    The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
  • e)
    The Lark Yes, The Tulip Yes, The Attic Yes
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
The Lark
Weekly Rental = $6500
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Amount abover weekly Rental = 18900-6500 = $12400 < $13000 ie. NO
The Tulip
Weekly Rental = $11,000
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Amount abover weekly Rental = 18900-11000 = $7900 < $13000 ie. NO
The Attic
Weekly Rental = $10,000
Revenue @50% as it's at center = $23,625
Amount abover weekly Rental = 23625-10000 = $13625 > $13000 ie. YES

Chris has the option to order parts from either of two suppliers. Supplier A offers free shipping but prices items an average of 3.5% higher than Supplier B. Supplier B offers the lower prices but will add a shipping charge to all orders. The shipping charge is $7.50 on orders less than $200, $12.50 on orders from $200 to $500, and $15 on orders over $500. Chris finds Supplier A to be more economical for small purchases but wonders if there is an order size for which Supplier B would be cheaper.
Find the smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which an identical order from Supplier B would be cheaper. If an order costs $401.50 from Supplier A, what will the same order cost from Supplier B?
  • a)
    $401.50 , $400.42
  • b)
    $357.14 , $414.00
  • c)
    $357.14 , $400.42
  • d)
    $369.64 , $400.42
  • e)
    $369.64 , $388.00
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) Smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which Supplier B would be cheaper
All values are in the range excess of $350; so, the shipping cost (Supplier B) will be $12.50
The smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which Supplier B would be cheaper;
implies 3.5 % excess value (in case of Supplier A) = Shipping charge (Supplier )
ie, 3.5 % of item price = $12.50
Item price = $12.50 / 0.0350
= $357.14
Hence, Order value = $357.14 + 12.50
= $369.64
(B) Supplier B’s charge for a $401.50 order from Supplier A
If Supplier A charges $401.50 for the order; then
Item price = $401.50 / 1.0350 (since, the order cost will be 3.5% excess for Supplier A)
= $387.92
Hence,
Order Cost for Supplier B = $387.92 + $12.50 (ie, Shipping charge)
= $400.42
 

A function is defined as f (n) = the number of factors of n. If f (p*q*r) = 8, where p, q and r are prime numbers, what is the value of p?
(1) p + q + r is an even number    
(2) q < p < r   
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
  • c)
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Kirti Roy answered
Steps 1 & 2: Understand Question and Draw Inferences
We are given that:
 f(n) = the number of factors of n and 
f(p*q*r) = 8
This means,
Number of factors of pqr = 8
We have learnt that in order to find the total number of factors of any number X, we should write it in terms of its prime factors:
X = P1m * P2n * P3r . . . where P1, P2, P3 . . .  are the prime factors of X and m, n, r . . . are non-negative integers
The total number of prime factors of X = (m+1)(n+1)(r+1) . . .
Here, it is given that:
Total number of factors of pqr = 8
Now, 8 = 23 = (1+1)(1+1)(1+1)
Thus, total number of factors of pqr = (1+1)(1+1)(1+1)
Comparing this with the above formula, we can deduce that p, q and r are distinct prime numbers.
[Note: We can deduce that p, q and r are distinct prime numbers because if say, p was equal to r, in that case, we could write:
pqr = p2q
The total number of factors in this case would be = (2+1)(1+1) = 3*2 = 6.
Since we are given the total number of factors is not 6, we can say confidently that no two prime numbers are equal to one another]
We know that except 2, all the prime numbers are odd. 2 is the only even prime number.
Step 3: Analyze Statement 1
Statement (1) says:
p + q + r = even number.
 Now, the sum of three integers can be an even number only if:
  1. Either all the integers are even numbers.                     (Think 2 + 4 + 6 = 12)
  2. Or one of them is even and two are odd numbers.     (Think 2 + 3 + 5 = 10)
 
Since p, q, and r are distinct prime numbers, all three of them can’t be even because there is only one even prime number.
 So, the only possible condition is that one of p, q, and r is even number and the other two are odd numbers.
 So, this statement tells us that the value of one of the numbers p, q, and r is 2. However, it does not tell us what the value of p is. 
To conclude
One of p, q, or r is equal to 2.
So, statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question “what is the value of p”.
Step 4: Analyze Statement 2
Statement (2) tells us that q < p < r. So, we know that the prime number p is greater than q and smaller than r. 
However, since there are infinite number of prime numbers possible, we still cannot determine the value of p.
To conclude
q < p < r  
Thus, statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question “what is the value of p”. 
 
Step 5: Analyze Both Statements Together (if needed)
Since the individual analysis of the choices does not tell us the value of p, let’s analyse both the statements together.
From statement (1): One of p, q, or r is equal to 2.
From statement (2): q < p < r
Now, since 2 is the smallest prime number, the value of q is 2. So, p is a prime number greater than 2, but we still don’t know the value of p.
So, analyzing both the statements together is not enough to determine the value of p.  
Answer: Option (E)

If # and $ are mathematical operations such that p # q = (p+ q)2 and p $ q = (p – q)2, what is the value of  (2 # 2) + (3 $ 3) – (5 # 5) + (6 $ 6)? 
  • a)
    -84
  • b)
    -48
  • c)
    48
  • d)
    84
  • e)
    96
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Das answered
We are given that
p # q = (p+ q)2 and
p $ q = (p – q)2
 
To calculate the value of the whole expression, we need to calculate the values of the individual expressions:
(2 # 2) = (2 + 2)2 = 42 = 16
(3 $ 3)  = (3 – 3)2 = 0
(5 # 5) = (5 + 5)2 = 100
(6 $ 6) = (6 – 6)2 = 0
So,
(2 # 2) + (3 $ 3) – (5 # 5) + (6 $ 6) = 16 – 0 – 100 – 0 = -84  
Answer: Option (A)

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
Each of the following can be inferred from the passage as a possible consequence of the rise of
Internet marketing EXCEPT
  • a)
    a decrease in the percentage of marketing dollarsspent on television advertising
  • b)
    an increased emphasis on measuring the specific outcomes of ad campaigns
  • c)
    the appearance of new marketing-related service firms
  • d)
    a decreased emphasis on “brand awareness” as a major marketing goal
  • e)
    the emergence of “pay-per-click” search engines
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Chauhan answered
A GMAT inference is one that can be clearly gleaned from the actual text. Since this questions asks for something that CANNOT be inferred from the passage, the correct answer will most likely go well beyond the statements in the passage.
(A) The passage states that “many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns.” Since the passage mentions “television advertising” as a traditional advertising outlet, it can reasonably be inferred that the percentage of overall marketing dollars spent on television advertising has decreased, while the percentage of dollars spent on internet ads has increased.
(B) The passage directly states that the rise of Internet marketing has sparked a “more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns.”  (C) In the final paragraph, the passage mentions “the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex web-tracking tools.” These clearly qualify as new marketing-related service firms. (D) CORRECT. According to the passage, “proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value” than Internet ads. However, even if true, this does not mean that companies have devalued “brand awareness” as a marketing goal. Just because, according to some critics, companies might not be achieving that goal as effectively as in the past, does not mean that companies do not think that the goal is still important.  
(E) Pay-per-click search engines are described as a newly popular type of Internet marketing. Clearly, then, these search engines emerged as a direct consequence of the rise of Internet marketing. 

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.
Q.
The author mentions the United States most probably in order to
  • a)
    argue against a commonly held belief about marketeconomies
  • b)
    provide an example of a situation seen as undesirable
  • c)
    suggest an advantageous solution to an economic problem
  • d)
    illustrate an economic principle called into question
  • e)
    demonstrate the positive consequences of economic freedom
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Srestha Basu answered
The question asks us to identify the reason that the author mentions the United States in the passage. In the third paragraph, the author asks whether West Germany was "up to the task" of re-unification. This is followed by the example of Italy as a government that does spend the necessary resources to help its underperforming regions. Then, the author mentions the United States as a counterexample with negative overtones: "In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation." [Emphasis added.] The use of the word "allowed" suggests that the author does not approve of the situation in the United States. Further, the very next paragraph begins . . ."Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair . . . " as if to further contrast the German government with that of the United States.
(A) The passage in general does not argue against any commonly held beliefs, including the specific example about the United States.
(B) CORRECT.  This choice echoes our above analysis: the author views the situation cited as "undesirable."
(C) The author disapproves of the cited example, so he would not offer it as a possible advantageous solution to Germany's reunification.
(D) The passage does not call the principle into question; rather, the author indicates disapproval of this particular approach.
(E) The author disapproves of the cited example; he would not offer it as a positive lesson. 

As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, advertisers were content to pay for television commercials whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use viewership ratings to get general data about the size and demographics of the audience for its commercials, there was no way to measure the extent to which these commercials translated into actual sales.
In contrast, many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that are displayed only when users search for specific words relevant to the products and services sold by that company.
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic technology, companies can track a consumer’s online behavior and determine the exact amount of any online purchases made.
Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex webtracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than some companies realize.
Q.
The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements?
  • a)
    Companies should invest their marketing dollars only in campaigns that can target very specific consumer groups.
  • b)
    Traditional advertising outlets are usually not worth the cost for large companies.
  • c)
    Companies can significantly decrease their overall marketing expenditures by shifting to the use of payper- click search engines
  • d)
    For companies that place a premium on precisely measuring the return on their advertising investment, Internet ads will likely be more effective than traditional outlets.
  • e)
    Contrary to popular belief, advertising in traditional outlets is actually less expensive than advertising on the Internet.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandita Yadav answered
The author of the passage presents the information in a fairly objective manner. In the first paragraph, the author describes recent advertising trends. Then the author uses the second paragraph to detail some benefits of these trends before using the final paragraph to specify some disadvantages. Since the author’s tone in the passage is descriptive rather than prescriptive (that is, the author never offers her opinion about the trends), the correct answer should shy away from strong opinions.
(A) The word “only” renders this choice incorrect. The author, while clearly aware of the benefits of advertising to targeted consumer groups, never states that companies should invest “only” in this type of advertising. In fact, the author references “brand awareness” as one of the potential benefits of less directly targeted advertising
(B) The author never discusses whether traditional advertising outlets, in and of themselves, are worth the cost for large companies. The passage focuses on comparing traditional outlets to Internet advertising but it never stakes a claim about the intrinsic cost-benefit of traditional advertising.
(C) The total actual marketing dollars spent by companies is not mentioned in the passage. The author never discusses how pay-per-click advertising will effect a companies total expenditures; instead, the author focuses on the benefits and disadvantages of different types of advertising.
(D) CORRECT. The passage states that “many companies are now moving their marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing investments.” Thus, the author clearly views effective measurement as one of the key advantages that Internet-based campaigns have over traditional advertising outlets.
(E) The passage never compares the actual costs of Internet vs. traditional ads. While the author discusses relative value and cost-effectiveness, a strict comparison of actual cost is never made.  

Before the age of space exploration, the size and composition of the moon’s core were astronomical mysteries. Astronomers assumed that the moon’s core was smaller than that of the Earth, in both relative and absolute terms — the radius of the Earth’s core is 55 percent of the overall radius of the Earth and the core’s mass is 32 percent of the Earth’s overall mass — but they had no way to verify their assumption. However, data gathered by Lunar Prospector have now given astronomers the ability to determine that the moon’s core accounts for 20 percent of the moon’s radius and for a mere 2 percent of its overall mass.
The data have been used in two ways. In the first method, scientists measured minute variations in radio signals from Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth. These variations allowed scientists to detect even the slightest changes in the craft’s velocity while the craft orbited the moon. These changes resulted from inconsistency in the gravitational pull of the moon on the craft, and permitted scientists to create a “gravity map” of both near and far sides of the moon. This map, in turn, revealed to scientists the distribution of the moon’s internal mass. Scientists were then able to determine that the moon has a small, metallic core, which, if composed mostly of iron, has a radius of approximately 350 kilometers. The second method involved examining the faint magnetic field generated within the moon itself by the moon’s monthly passage through the tail of the Earth’s magnetosphere. This approach confirmed the results obtained through examination of the gravity map.
The size and composition of the moon’s core are not academic concerns; they have serious implications for our understanding of the moon’s origins. For example, if the moon and Earth developed as distinct entities, the sizes of their cores should be more comparable. In actuality, it seems that the moon was once part of the Earth and broke away at an early stage in the Earth’s evolution, perhaps as the result of a major asteroid impact. The impact could have loosened iron that had not already sunk to the core of the Earth, allowing it to form the core around which the moon eventually coalesced.
Q.
The primary purpose of the passage is best expressed as
  • a)
    The author discusses the method of data utilization that proved that the moon was once part of the earth.
  • b)
    The author discusses the methods of data utilization that changed scientists’ opinions about the relative sizes of the earth’s and moon’s cores.
  • c)
    The passage studies the method that, using data about radii and core mass, led to importantimplications about the origin of the planets.
  • d)
    The passage studies the use of scientific methods to analyze data and confirm a hypothesis and references possible deductions.
  • e)
    The passage discusses the implications following from the size of the Earth’s core.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The passage first talks about astronomers' assumptions regarding the earth's and moon's radii and core mass. The next two paragraphs detail the two methods astronomers employed to analyze their assumptions by using data collected by Lunar Prospector. The last paragraph discusses the implications of this data.  (A) This choice founders over the use of the  singular word "method" and the word "proved." There were two methods, and "proved" is too extreme.
(B) This choice uses the word "changed," which is factually wrong because the passage says that it confirmed an assumption.
(C) This choice fails because of the use of the singular "method," and because "planets" is too general for a passage only concerning the Earth and its moon.
(D) CORRECT. It is acceptable to equate "implications" and "deductions," as well as "hypothesis" and "assumption."  (E) This choice ignores the entire passage except for the last paragraph, and thus by definition can not be the passage's sum. 

If  and  then for positive integers (a, b) the maximum value of  
 is
  • a)
    less than 1
  • b)
    0
  • c)
    -1
  • d)
    Occurs at a = b
  • e)
    cannot be estimated
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Das answered
To find the maximum value, let’s first create a consolidated expression:
Simplifying we get,
The maximum value of the above expressions happens when a is much larger than b. Let’s say that a is 100 times larger than b, and b = 1 (the smallest allowed value for a positive integer);
hence a = 100.
The first term on right hand side is very close to 1, while the second time is very close to 0. Hence, we can say that the maximum value of the expression is close to but less than 1.
As the difference between a and b increases even further, the first term on the Right Hand Side of (1) will get still closer to 1, and the second term will approach zero, but the sum will still be lesser than 1.
Therefore, the correct answer choice is A

A newly launched small and medium enterprise (SME) company is seeking a loan to support its new project. The company has received loan proposals from two different banks. As per the proposal from Bank A, the company will be provided with an amount of $250,000 at a simple interest rate of 5% per year. The repayment will be made in 12 equal monthly installments, which will include both the principal amount and the interest.
On the other hand, Bank B has offered to provide 125% of the amount proposed by Bank A, with a simple interest rate of 4%. The repayment will also be made in 12 equal monthly installments, including both the principal and the interest.
In the table below, select in column 1 the remaining amount to be paid after six payments, as per the proposal of Bank A, and in column 2 the remaining amount to be paid after nine payments, as per the proposal of Bank B:
  • a)
    $ 131,250, $ 81,250
  • b)
    $ 162,500, $ 81,250
  • c)
    $ 243,750 $ 130, 800
  • d)
    $ 131,250, $196,875
  • e)
    $ 131,250, $243,750
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Proposal of Bank A
Principal amount: 250,000
Annual interest rate: 5%
Annual interest amount: (5/100)*250,000=12,500
Total amount to repay: 250,000+12,500 = 262,500
Installment = 262,500/12 = 21,875
Amount to repay after six months = 262,500-131,250= 131,250
Proposal of Bank B
Principal amount: 125% of the amount proposed by the bank A = 250,000*125%= 312,500
Annual interest rate: 4%
Annual interest amount: (4/100)*312,500=12,500
Total amount to repay: 312,500+12,500 = 325,000
Installment = 325,000/12 = 27,083.33
Amount to repay after nine months = 325,000-243,750= 81,250


The table gives information on 12 new home addition and renovation projects, in competition for inclusion in a television program featuring innovative styles. The producers of the program intend to make a selection based on one or more of the following criteria: city section (among a total of four), size in square feet of the project, cost of the project in dollars, and rating of innovativeness.
The following statements pertain to various possible selection criteria. Select Yes if the statement must be true on the basis of the given information; otherwise select No.
  • a)
    No, Yes, No
  • b)
    Yes, No, No
  • c)
    No, No, No
  • d)
    Yes, Yes, Yes
  • e)
    No, Yes, Yes
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Sorting the table by the "Rating" column, we see that there is one builder (Bildrite) with no project among the five highest-rated projects. But all four sections of the city are represented among these five projects, so all four sections would be featured in a program that included those five projects.
The correct answer is No.
Sorting the table by the "Price" column, we see that the two least expensive projects were both done by Bildrite in the SW section, whereas the two most expensive were both done by Pitts in the NE section. So selecting the top two and bottom two projects by price would include exactly two builders and two city sections. Since the whole table includes exactly four builders and four city sections, this selection leaves out exactly half the builders and half the city sections.
The correct answer is Yes.
Sorting the table by the "Size (square ft)" column, we see that exactly one builder (Bildrite) had no project among the top three or bottom three by square footage.
The correct answer is Yes.
 

The movement for women’s rights traces its origin to the first half of the nineteenth century. The Seneca Falls Convention, held in Seneca Falls, New York in July of 1848, is commonly regarded as the beginning of the women’s rights movement in the United States. This conference was preceded by a series of ground-breaking events that made possible this seminal milestone in the history of American women.
The idea for the convention emerged during the 1840 World Anti-Slavery Convention in London, a conference that precluded its female delegates from participation in discussions. Lucretia Mott, a famous women’s rights activist, wrote in her diary that calling the 1840 convention a “world” convention “was a mere poetical license.” She had accompanied her husband to London but had to sit behind a partition with other women activists, including Elizabeth Cady Stanton, who later became one of the main forces behind the Seneca Falls Convention.
During the early 1840s, Elizabeth Cady Stanton composed the Declaration of Sentiments, a document modeled after the Declaration of Independence, declaring the rights of women. At the time of its composition, the Declaration of Sentiments was so bold that when Elizabeth Stanton showed the draft to her husband, he stated that if she read it at the Seneca Falls Convention, he would have to leave town. The Declaration contained several new resolutions. It proclaimed that all men and women are born equal and stated that no man could withhold a woman’s rights, take her property, or preclude her from the right to vote. This Declaration also became the foundation for the Seneca Falls Convention.
On July 19-20, 1848, the Seneca Falls Convention brought together 240 delegates between ages 22 and 60, including forty men, who spent the two days at the conference debating, refining and voting on the Declaration of Sentiments. Most of the declaration’s resolutions received unanimous support and were officially endorsed. Later in 1848, the Seneca Falls convention was followed by an even larger meeting in Rochester, New York. Thereafter, national women’s conventions were held annually, contributing to the growing momentum in the movement for women’s rights.
Q. 
The second paragraph of the passage plays which of the following roles?
  • a)
    Provides details about the Declaration of Sentiments.
  • b)
     Discusses the events leading to the World Anti-Slavery Convention.
  • c)
    Describes the position of Lucretia Mott’s husband towards her attendance of the World Anti-SlaveryConvention.
  • d)
    Demonstrates how the World Anti-Slavery Convention may have contributed to the momentum behind the movement for women’s rights.
  • e)
    Explains the reasons for the limited participation of women in the World Anti-Slavery Convention.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sonal Banerjee answered
This question asks us to summarize the role of the second paragraph. On this type of question, it is helpful to re-read the topic sentence of the paragraph at issue. The topic sentence is typically the first or second sentence of the paragraph.
(A) The Declaration of Sentiments is discussed in the third rather than the second paragraph.  
(B) While the second paragraph discusses the World Anti-Slavery Convention, nothing is mentioned about the events leading up to this convention.
(C) While the second paragraph mentions that Lucretia Mott accompanied her husband to the convention, it provides no information about his attitude towards her attendance.  
(D) CORRECT. The second paragraph discusses how the restrictions on women’s participation in the World-Antislavery Convention escalated their growing discontent with the limitations of women’s rights. Note that this idea is mimicked in the opening sentence of the paragraph: “The idea for the convention emerged during the 1840 World Anti-Slavery Convention in London, a conference that precluded its female delegates from participation in discussions.”
(E) While the passage states that women were precluded from active participation in the discussions at the World Anti-Slavery Convention, the text provides no information regarding the reasons for these restrictions.

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
The author of the passage is primarily interested in
  • a)
    defending an accepted position on colonial history
  • b)
    analyzing an unproven hypothesis regarding slavery
  • c)
    presenting an alternate view of a historical period
  • d)
    critiquing an outdated theory of colonial development
  • e)
    describing the culmination of a historical trend
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Joshi answered
When answering any question about the author’s primary interest, purpose, or intent, we must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. Typically, the opening paragraph and the topic sentences of each paragraph will reveal the focus of the passage. In the opening paragraph of this passage, the author discusses some misconceptions and assumptions about African Americans in the colonial and pre-Civil War periods, ending the paragraph with the statement that “most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.” The subsequent paragraphs are dedicated to discussing these descendants. (A) The author does not defend an accepted position, but instead provides evidence that contradicts some misconceptions and assumptions about colonial history.
(B) The author presents historical facts about African Americans. The author does not present or analyze an unproven hypothesis.
(C) CORRECT. The author presents facts, and the alternate view that can be drawn from them, of a historical period.
(D) The author does not critique an outdated theory, but instead presents facts that are contradictory to some stated misconceptions and assumptions. Also, the passage does not focus on “colonial development,” but rather a certain segment of the population in colonial times.
(E) The author does not discuss a “trend,” or describe its “culmination.”  

When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts of the South, some of these first African slaves became free either through escape or through emancipation by their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many researchers have also assumed that these free African Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who took advantage of their female slaves. However, these cases represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.
It appears that such births were the primary source of the increase in the free African American population for this period. Over two hundred African American families in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had children by free African American women. It is likely that the majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for their emancipations.
The history of free African Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual owners. Researchers have studied these families, especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have traced through at least three generations. None of the fourteen families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African American man. However, Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples had children baptized.
Q.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
  • a)
    No free African Americans in the American colonies were the offspring of white slave owners.
  • b)
    Some colonial legislatures passed laws to prevent interbreeding between white colonists and African Americans.
  • c)
    White servants were not as numerous as African American slaves in early America.
  • d)
    Most African Americans in the South were born into slavery.
  • e)
    Records exist to document all births of free African Americans in colonial America.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

On the GMAT, a correct inference is not a guess about what might be true, but rather a statement of what must be true based on the facts presented in the passage. Be careful to justify your answer with proof from the passage.
(A) This statement is too extreme; we cannot infer that no free African Americans in the American colonies were the offspring of white slave owners. In fact, the first paragraph states that “these cases [offspring of white slave owners] represent only a small minority of free African Americans in the South,” and a small minority is certainly more than none. 
(B) CORRECT. The second paragraph begins with "despite the efforts of the various colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century." This implies that the legislatures took action to prevent these births.
(C) The first sentence of the passage states that “Africans joined a society that was divided between master and white servants brought from Europe,” but the number of people in each group was never discussed.
(D) The second paragraph focuses on the history of a number of free African American families in the South. However, the passage did not provide any information about the number of African American in the South who had been born into slavery. 
(E) This statement is too extreme; we cannot infer that all births of free African Americans in colonial America were documented, or that all such records still exist. The passage mentions some court records in the second paragraph, and some Lutheran church records in the third paragraph, but these references do not provide enough information to allow us to make this inference. 

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