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All questions of Day 31 for GMAT Exam

Linda has the choice to buy raw materials from one of two vendors. Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but includes a handling fee with each purchase. Vendor Y doesn't offer a discount but doesn't charge any additional fees. The handling fee Vendor X charges is $10 for orders under $250, $20 for orders from $250 to $600, and $25 for orders above $600. Linda calculates that for very small orders, Vendor Y is more cost-effective, but she suspects that for larger orders, Vendor X might be cheaper.
I. Determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive. 
II. If an order costs $500 from Vendor Y, how much would the same order cost from Vendor X?
  • a)
    $500, $475
  • b)
    $400, $485
  • c)
    $210, $475
  • d)
    $400, $380
  • e)
    $210, $200
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Das answered
Analysis:
Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but charges a handling fee, while Vendor Y does not offer a discount but does not charge any additional fees.

I. Smallest Value of an Order:
To determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive, we need to calculate the crossover point where the total cost from each vendor is the same.

II. Calculation for a $500 Order:
For an order costing $500 from Vendor Y:
- Vendor X's cost would be $500 - 5% discount + handling fee
- Cost of order from Vendor X = $500 - 5% of $500 + handling fee
To find the exact crossover point where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y, we need to compare the total cost for both vendors at different order values.

Calculation:
- For orders under $250, Vendor Y is cheaper
- For orders from $250 to $600, we need to find the exact crossover point
- For orders above $600, Vendor X is cheaper

Answer Explanation:
- The correct answer is option D: $400 from Vendor Y would cost $380 from Vendor X.
- For an order of $500, Vendor X would not be cheaper than Vendor Y.
- By comparing the costs at different order values, we find that the crossover point is at $400, where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y.

Article 1
From a local Southern California newspaper.

Typically, fewer people vote in local elections that in national ones, but participation can vary widely by state. A new poll has found that more people in California vote in local elections than do people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico combined. This has been attributed to the high number of independent voters in our state, as well as the high enthusiasm for local elections. City councilman Brad Zellman was pleased to see such a high turnout at the recent city council election. “It’s a unique opportunity for local citizens’ votes to carry more weight than they would in big national elections, and it’s great to have so much participation in these smaller campaigns state-wide.”
 
Article 2
Editorial from the Opinion section of a competing newspaper.

The recent city council election has seen many a politico claim that the increased voter turnout is due to local citizens wanting to be a part of an election where their vote is proportionally more important. However, it is incorrect to suggest that voting in local elections somehow means your vote “counts more.” True, local politicians make decisions that affect day-to-day operations of our cities, but national politicians make decisions that ultimately affect the outcomes of our lives. When you vote for national figures in larger elections, your vote matters more because you are voting for people who will ultimately have a bigger impact on your life long-term.
 
Article 3
Results from recent California elections.

City councilman elections: 13,000 local votes cast (22% of the eligible population voted), 80% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results. District representative elections: 1.9 million votes cast (19% of the eligible population voted), 67% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results.
Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the articles support the inference as stated?
Californians are more concerned with politics than are people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico.
The “weight” Zellman describes refers to the scale of political decision-making.
 
  • a)
    Yes, Yes
  • b)
    No, No
  • c)
    Yes, No
  • d)
    No, Yes
  • e)
    Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Question 1 Explanation: The answer is No. This argument assumes that the percentage of people who vote in California is higher than the percentage of people who vote in the other three states put together, based on the fact that the number of people who vote is greater in California. We cannot infer anything about the percentage of people who vote based only on actual numbers of people who vote.
Question 2 Explanation: The answer is No. Zellman likely means that your vote carries “more weight” in local elections since “typically fewer people vote in local elections” according to Article 1. This is further established by Article 2, which begins with a refutation of Zellman and the idea that a vote in a local election “counts more.”
 

Scientific advances in the latter half of the twentieth century have allowed researchers to study the chemical activities taking place in the human brain during the sleep cycle in more detail. In the 1970s, Jacobs employed these advances to postulate that dreams and hallucinations share a common neurochemical mechanism with respect to the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine that accounts for the observable similarities between the two states of mind. To test the theory, researchers attempted to elucidate the role of these transmitters in the normal sleep cycle and the effect of hallucinogenic drugs on them.
Serotonin appears important for managing sleep, mood, and appetite, among other functions, while norepinephrine facilitates alertness and mental focus. Both neurotransmitters are discharged in high quantities only during waking states. At the onset of sleep, the neurons that release these neurotransmitters become less active, allowing the brain to enter the three non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) stages of sleep. The non-REM stages typically are not associated with normal dreaming, though parasomnias, such as sleepwalking and confusional arousals, are most common during stage 3. When the brain is ready to enter the fourth stage, REM, which is strongly associated with dreaming, the levels of these two chemicals drop virtually to zero. The Jacobs hypothesis held that the absence of norepinephrine was required to enable the brain to remain asleep, while the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur
Lysergic acid diethylamide, or LSD, is a semi-synthetic psychedelic drug which causes significant alteration of the senses, memories and awareness; at doses higher than 20 micrograms, it can have a hallucinogenic effect. LSD mimics serotonin well enough to be able to bind at most of the neurotransmitter’s receptor sites, largely inhibiting normal transmission. In addition, the drug causes the locus ceruleus, a cluster of neurons containing norepinephrine, to greatly accelerate activity. If the drug stimulates norepinephrine, thereby precluding sleep, and inhibits serotonin, which Jacobs had postulated was a necessary condition for dreaming, then the resulting hallucinations could merely be “dreaming while awake.” The research thus far is promising but inconclusive; future scientific advances should allow this theory to be tested more rigorously.
According to the passage, which of the following is true of the drug lysergic acid diethlyamide?
  • a)
    Research into the drug is promising but inconclusive.
  • b)
    The neuron receptor sites that normally bind serotonin will also bind the drug.
  • c)
    The locus ceruleus causes the drug to affect bodily systems more rapidly than normal.
  • d)
    The drug stimulates norepinephrine and serotonin.
  • e)
    A person who ingests more than 20 micrograms of the drug will have hallucinations.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditya Sharma answered
Understanding the Correct Answer: Option B
The statement "The neuron receptor sites that normally bind serotonin will also bind the drug" is true regarding lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Here’s a detailed explanation:
Binding Mechanism
- LSD is a semi-synthetic psychedelic drug that closely mimics serotonin.
- It is capable of binding to most of the serotonin neurotransmitter’s receptor sites.
Inhibition of Normal Transmission
- By binding to these receptor sites, LSD inhibits normal serotonin transmission.
- This action alters the sensory perception, memories, and awareness in individuals, leading to hallucinations.
Comparison with Other Options
- Option A: "Research into the drug is promising but inconclusive."
- This is correct, but it is not the primary focus of the question regarding the drug’s binding properties.
- Option C: "The locus ceruleus causes the drug to affect bodily systems more rapidly than normal."
- This is misleading; the locus ceruleus accelerates norepinephrine activity but does not directly indicate a rapid effect on bodily systems.
- Option D: "The drug stimulates norepinephrine and serotonin."
- This is incorrect because LSD inhibits serotonin and stimulates norepinephrine.
- Option E: "A person who ingests more than 20 micrograms of the drug will have hallucinations."
- While this statement is generally accurate, it does not directly pertain to the binding mechanism of the drug.
Conclusion
Thus, the most accurate statement regarding LSD in the context of its interaction with serotonin is found in option B, highlighting its ability to bind to receptor sites normally occupied by serotonin.

Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application. Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer. As you know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them. Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants.
Which of the following can be inferred from the letter?
  • a)
    The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office exceeded the number of summer jobs available.
  • b)
    The applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified.
  • c)
    Very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government office.
  • d)
    The application of the person who received the letter was considered carefully before being rejected.
  • e)
    Most of those who applied for summer jobs were considered qualified for the available positions.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
P1: Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer.
P2: As you know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them.
P3: Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants.
The conclusion that can be drawn from the above letter to the Applicant is that the number of applicants who have applied for a summer job in the local government office exceeds the number of available summer jobs. This is exactly what is stated in option A.
Option B states that the Applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified. This is not necessarily true based on the information provided above. It could be that the Applicant is among the many that are considered as highly qualified or the applicant could as well not be considered as highly qualified. what is, however, true from what is stated in the letter is that the Applicant is rejected because the number of jobs available is less than the number of applications received. It could be that the job offer is based on first come first served basis or it might be based on how highly qualified an applicant is, but such details have not been provided in the letter.
Option C states that very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government office. While this is true, this is not the main conclusion that can be drawn from the argument. Little funding would have had no bearing on the letter if the number of applicants for a summer job is less than the available jobs in the government office. This can therefore not be the main inference or conclusion from the information provided above.
Option D states that the application of the person who received the letter was considered carefully before being rejected. This may not be necessarily true based on the argument. No information is provided about whether the application of the applicant has been considered carefully. Whether his application was considered carefully or not, there was no vacancy for him for a summer position at the government office. Hence D cannot be be an inference from the information provided above.
Option E states that most of those who applied for the summer jobs were considered qualified for the available positions. The information above states that many which is less than most. Option E cannot be true based on the information provided.

­The number of cats in Libby’s house is twice the number of dogs and one third the number of fish. If cats, dogs and fish are the only pets in Libby’s house, what is the probability of randomly selecting two cats?
(1) The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12.
(2) The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • c)
    BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Roy answered
Statement 1: The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12.
- Since the number of cats is given, we can determine the total number of pets in Libby's house.
- However, we still don't have information about the number of dogs and fish to calculate the probability of randomly selecting two cats.

Statement 2: The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
- With this statement alone, we can determine the total number of cats, dogs, and fish in Libby's house.
- But we still don't have specific numbers for each type of pet to calculate the probability of randomly selecting two cats.

Both Statements Together:
- By combining the information from both statements, we know that there are 12 cats and a total of 54 pets in Libby's house.
- From this, we can calculate the number of dogs and fish as well.
- With this complete information, we can determine the probability of randomly selecting two cats from the total number of pets.
- Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question asked.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' as both statements together are needed to determine the probability of randomly selecting two cats from Libby's house.

Techniques
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direction after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
Personnel
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required; however, only 25 members can partake in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.
Price
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs between $40 and $75 per session, depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session. Individual direction costs $15 per visit.
Based on the given information, determine whether each of the statements is justified.
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.
  • a)
    Justified, Not justified, Not justified
  • b)
    Not justified, Justified, Justified
  • c)
    Justified, Justified, Not justified
  • d)
    Not justified, Justified, Not justified
  • e)
    Justified, Not justified, Justified
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direct after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
Therefore, statement I. is not justified.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs any where between $40 and $75 per session depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session and individual direction costs $15 per visit.
8 classes a month×$20=$160
Therefore, statement II. is justified.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required however, only 25 members can part take in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers. 
Therefore, statement III. is not justified.

Western analytical philosophy has contributed two major elements to the theory of the political good. It is unfortunate that the value of the first element, personalism, has been diluted by its close association with the second element, valuational solipsism.
Personalism was developed in response to the belief that nations, states, religions, or any other corporate entity have interests that transcend the interests of the individuals that comprise them. The central tenet of personalism, therefore, is that institutions are good or bad insofar as they are good or bad for the individuals that are affected by them. Institutions are not good, for example, because they preserve the nation’s culture or because they protect the natural world, unless preserving the nation’s culture or protecting the natural world is good for the individual. As a philosophical assumption, personalism is most useful in countering arguments for practices that harm individuals in the name of “the greater good,” or the “society at large.” The personalist credo basically states that when it comes to interests, there are no interests but human interests.
However, an excessive devotion to the theory of personalism may lead one to fall into the trap of valuational solipsism. The word solipsism derives from the Latin for “lone self” and the theory of valuational solipsism takes the isolated individual as the sole judge of value. The problem with this viewpoint is obvious. By using the individual as the measure of the good, valuational solipsism neglects to consider the whole range of social values that are part of the political experience. These values include citizenship, status, and community, none of which can exist without reference to other individuals. Instead, political theories are based entirely on non-social values such as happiness, material welfare, and utility, which are not dependent on interactions with others. Such a view obscures a fundamental quality of the political good.
The primary purpose of the passage is to
  • a)
    compare and contrast two important theories of the good in political philosophy
  • b)
    defend a theory of the political good based on personalism from the attacks of valuational solipsists
  • c)
    argue that an acceptance of personalism necessarily leads to an endorsement of valuational solipsism as well
  • d)
    evaluate the impact that two major ideas have on the theory of good in political philosophy
  • e)
    reject the theory of valuational solipsism as an appropriate way to arrive at the definition of the political good
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
The primary purpose of the passage is to
  • compare and contrast two significant theories of the good in political philosophy
  • defend a theory of the political good based on personalism against criticisms from valuational solipsists
  • argue that accepting personalism leads to valuational solipsism
  • evaluate the effects of two major ideas on the theory of the good in political philosophy
  • reject valuational solipsism as a valid method for defining the political good

If r and s are positive integers, what is the remainder when r + s is divided by 3?
(1) rs is divisible by 9
(2) s is divisible by 3
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • c)
    BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
E should be the option
First of all, if we divide some number by 3, we can have only 3 remainders which are 0,1,2; i.e, either the number is of the form 3k or 3k+1 or 3k+2.
Now we have to find the remainder of r+s and we are provided with 2 statements.
Statement 1: rs is divisible by 9.
r=4 s=9
rs=36
r+s=13 ; remainder 1 when divided by 3
r=3 s=6 rs=18
r+s = 9; remiander 0 when divided by 3
Multiple possibilities. Not sufficient

Statement 2: s is divisible by 3
s=3 r=1
r+s=4; remainder 1 when divided by 3
s=3 r=2
r+s=5; remainder 2 when divided by 3
Again multiple possibilities. Not sufficient
If both statements are clubbed together:
rs is divisible by 9 and s is of the form 3k
r=3, s=6, rs=18=9*2, r+s=9; remainder 0
r=4, s=18, rs=72=9*8, r+s=22; remainder 1
So again doesn't give specific answer.
Not sufficient
So Neither of them individually or together is sufficient.
Hence, option E should be correct


Which year had the total number of workers equal to the total number of workers the factory had in the year 2007?
  • a)
    2008
  • b)
    2003
  • c)
    2006
  • d)
    2005
  • e)
    2004
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Total no. of employee the factory had in 2008 = 505 + 75 + 36 + 130 + 75 = 821. 
In 2007 the total no. employees = 500 + 80 + 35 + 132 + 74 = 821. This satisfies the given condition.

Email #1
Email from wedding coordinator to bride and groom
February 12, at 10:13am
"The final headcount for booking the pavilion for the reception is today. Right now we have a rough estimate of 425 people. Is this still true and if so, do we know how many people will be having the chicken dinner?"
Email #2
Email from the bride to the wedding coordinator
February 12, at 10:27am
"We are still waiting on 40 invitations to RSVP; we gave a deadline of February 15. Is there a possibility for an extension to the 15th? Of the current 425 guests 375 have opted for the chicken dinner."
Email #3
Email from the wedding coordinator to the bride
February 12, at 11:02am
"I will reach out to the pavilion to see if an extension is possible and get back to you this afternoon. We can always assume for more since the pavilion does offer a refund if any changes are made at least one week prior to the wedding."
Based on the given information in the emails, determine whether the statements are justified.
I. The wedding coordinator is not willing to extend the guest headcount deadline.
II. The bride does not have a specific, expected date to receive RSVPs.
III. The wedding coordinator gives additional options to the bride in case the pavilion will not give an extension.
 
  • a)
    Justified, Not justified, Justified
  • b)
    Not justified, Not justified, Justified
  • c)
    Not justified, Not justified, Not justified
  • d)
    Justified, Justified, Not justified
  • e)
    Justified, Justified, Justified
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
To determine which statements are justified, look at the information given in the emails.
For statement I. The wedding coordinator is not willing to extend the guest headcount deadline. Look at the bold statement in email #3,
Email from the wedding coordinator to the bride
February 12, at 11:02am
I will reach out to the pavilion to see if an extension is possible and get back to you this afternoon. We can always assume for more since the pavilion does offer a refund if any chances are made at least one week prior to the wedding.
Therefore, the wedding coordinator is willing to extend the guest count if at all possible. Thus, this statement is not justified.
For statement II. The bride does not have a specific, expected date to receive RSVPs. Look at the bold statement in email #2,
Email from the bride to the wedding coordinator
February 12, at 10:27am
We are still waiting on 40 invitations to RSVP; we gave a deadline of February 15. Is there a possibility for an extension to the 15th? Of the current 425 guests 375 have opted for the chicken dinner.
Therefore, the bride does give a deadline for the RSVPs. Thus, this statement is not justified.
For statement III. The wedding coordinator gives additional options to the bride in case the pavilion will not give an extension. Look at the bold statement in email #3,
Email from the wedding coordinator to the bride
February 12, at 11:02am
I will reach out to the pavilion to see if an extension is possible and get back to you this afternoon. We can always assume for more since the pavilion does offer a refund if any changes are made at least one week prior to the wedding.
Since the wedding coordinator gives additional options to the bride, the statement is justified. 
 

The following graph shows the results of a survey taken in 14 markets that inquired about subjects’ habit of reading the print version of a daily newspaper. Each point represents the percent of men and the percent of women in a particular market who indicated that they read the daily paper. The solid line is the line of best fit. The equation of this line is shown on the graph.

The line of best fit suggests that a 1% increase in the number of men who read the daily paper corresponds to a_________ in the number of women who read the daily paper.
Based upon these data, in a market in which approximately 40% of men read the daily paper, we would expect about_________ of women to read the daily paper.
  • a)
    Less than 1% increase , 5%
  • b)
    Less than 1% decrease , 15%
  • c)
    1.1% increase , 25%
  • d)
    1.1% decrease , 35%
  • e)
    1.7% increase , 45%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
The line of best fit suggests that a 1% increase in the number of men who read the daily paper corresponds to a ________ in the number of women who read the daily paper.
The slope of the line of best fit is slightly more than 1. A positive slope represents a positive association, so as the percent of men who read the daily paper increases, the percent of women who do so increases as well. A slope of 1.1 indicates that each 1% increase in the percent of men will correspond to an increase of 1.1% of women.
Answer: C
Based upon these data, in a market in which approximately 40% of men read the daily paper, we would expect about ________ of women to read the daily paper.
Calculation using the equation of the line is possible, but reading the value directly from the line will allow a quicker estimate. From 40% on the horizontal axis, trace up to the line and then horizontally back to the vertical axis to a value between 20% and 30%. If you prefer to calculate, 1.1352 × 40% – 17.692% = 45.408% – 17.692% = 27.716%. Of the answer choices, the closest value is 25%.
Answer: C
 

­There are three times as many hot dogs as pizzas and five times as many brownies as hot dogs in "Junk Food 'R' Us" restaurant. The restaurant sells only whole products (you cannot buy half a pizza, for example). How many brownies are there in the restaurant?
(1) There are at least 10 pizzas in the restaurant
(2) There are 32 hot dogs at most in the restaurant
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • c)
    BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Let's say there's p pizzas => there's 3p hot dogs => there's 15p brownies
So, if we get to know any one of these values, we can calculate the rest 2 values.
Statement 1:
There are at least 10 pizzas in the restaurant
So,
that simply means number of brownies = 
Nothing conclusive. Because the number can 150 or 165 or 180 and so on.
Insufficient.
Statement 2:
There are 32 hot dogs at most in the restaurant
So,
but p can only be an integer so 
So, number of brownies = => 15p can be 150 or 135 or 120 and so on.
Again, nothing conclusive.
Hence, Insufficient.
If we club them together:
we have 
So, and gives us p=10
i.e, number of brownies = 15p =150
Hence, both statements together are sufficient.
Hence, option C

­The students in a certain college class took a midterm exam and a final exam, both of which were scored out of a total of 100 points. What percent of the students earned a higher score on the final than on the midterm?
(1) Of the students in the class, 28% scored at least 6 points higher on the final than on the midterm.
(2) Of the students who scored higher on the final than on the midterm, 40% scored at least 6 points higher on the final.
  • a)
    Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • b)
    Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • c)
    BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
  • d)
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
  • e)
    Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Say, x be the total number of students and y be the number of students scoring higher in final term.
Asked: 
St-1:
Of the students in the class, 28% scored at least 6 points higher on the final than on the midterm.
­­­­No. of students scoring atleast six points higher = 0.28x
No information of students other with 1 to 5 points higher. Thus y can't be determined.
Insufficient
St-2:
Of the students who scored higher on the final than on the midterm, 40% scored at least 6 points higher on the final.
No. of students scoring atleast six points higher = 0.4y
We do not have any info about x
Insufficient
(1) + (2)


Sufficient
 



Management predicts that earnings will decline by 5% from August to September. How many shares does the company need to buy back so that the earnings per share ratio does not change?
  • a)
    3,000
  • b)
    4,000
  • c)
    5,500
  • d)
    6,000
  • e)
    7,500
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Earnings per share in August:
3,000,000 / 150,000 = 300 / 15 = 15 × 20 / 15= 20
The expected earnings in September are 5% less than August, which means the earnings will be 95% of the August earnings.
Let x be the number of outstanding shares in September.
So the earnings per share ratio in September will be:
2,850,000/x = 20
20x = 2,850,000
x = 142,500
The number of shares in August is 150,000. The number of shares in September needs to be 142,500.
150,000 – 142,500 = 7,500
The company has to buy back 7,500 shares.
The correct answer is choice (E).


During the years 2006 through 2008, what were the arithmetic mean earnings per year?
  • a)
    $6 million
  • b)
    $7.5 million
  • c)
    $9 million
  • d)
    $10 million
  • e)
    $27 million
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
You can make a quick table to organize the data from the graph.
Year   Earnings
2006   $5 million
2007   $10 million
2008   $12 million
5 + 10 + 12/3 = 27/3 = 9
The mean earnings were $9 million per year.
The correct answer is choice (C).

If A, then B.
If B, then C.
If C, then D.
If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
  • a)
    If D, then A.
  • b)
    If not B, then not C.
  • c)
    If not D, then not A.
  • d)
    If D, then E.
  • e)
    If not A, then not D.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
If A, then B. If B, then C. If C, then D. If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
To determine which statements must be true, consider the implications of the original statements:
  • If A is true, then B must also be true.
  • If B is true, then C follows.
  • If C is true, then D is also true.
From this chain of reasoning, we can conclude:
  • If D is true, it does not imply A is true (so A: If D, then A is not necessarily true).
  • The statement B: If not B, then not C is true (this is an example of contrapositive).
  • C: If not D, then not A is not necessarily true based on the given information.
  • D: If D, then E does not follow from the initial statements.
  • E: If not A, then not D is true based on the chain of implications.
In summary, the statements that must be true are:
  • B: If not B, then not C.
  • E: If not A, then not D.

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