All questions of NCERT Based Test for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

's purchasing power to the future without the use of money

4. Money allows for the transfer of purchasing power from one person to another.

Which of the statements are true?

1 is a cause for global warming
2 is a definition for global warming

A

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 is a social security scheme that aims to provide employment and livelihood security to rural households in India. The act has several provisions to achieve its objectives, and the given statements correctly highlight some of the key features of the act.

Statement 1: It aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas.
This statement is correct. The primary objective of MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This provision ensures that rural households have access to a minimum level of income and livelihood security.

Statement 2: It also aimed at sustainable development to address the cause of drought, deforestation, and soil erosion.
This statement is correct. MGNREGA is not only focused on providing employment but also aims at sustainable development. The act includes provisions for the creation of durable assets such as water conservation structures, afforestation, and land development to address issues like drought, deforestation, and soil erosion. This helps in promoting environmental sustainability and improving the overall quality of life in rural areas.

Statement 3: One-third of the proposed jobs have been reserved for women.
This statement is correct. MGNREGA recognizes the importance of women's empowerment and participation in rural development. As per the act, at least one-third of the total proposed jobs or work opportunities should be reserved for women. This provision ensures gender equality and provides women with equal opportunities for employment and economic empowerment.

Therefore, all the given statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct. MGNREGA aims to provide 100 days of wage employment, address issues of sustainable development, and reserves one-third of the proposed jobs for women.

Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. Let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: NDP at Factor Cost measure allows policy-makers to estimate how much the country has to spend just to maintain their current GDP.

This statement is incorrect. NDP at Factor Cost is a measure used to estimate the net value of national income generated within a country during a specific period. It is calculated by deducting depreciation (i.e., the amount of capital stock lost) from the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). NDP at Factor Cost represents the actual income earned by the factors of production (i.e., labor and capital) within a country. It does not provide information about how much the country has to spend to maintain its current GDP. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: If the country is not able to replace the capital stock lost through depreciation, then GDP will fall.

This statement is also incorrect. Depreciation refers to the decrease in the value of capital stock over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or any other factors. While depreciation can have an impact on the productivity and efficiency of capital, it does not directly determine the GDP. GDP is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific period. It is influenced by various factors such as consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. Therefore, the inability to replace the capital stock lost through depreciation may affect the long-term growth potential of an economy, but it does not necessarily lead to an immediate fall in GDP. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

The correct match between the name of the scheme and its coverage target group in the context of the Public Distribution System is:

1. PDS - Universal
2. RPDS - Backward blocks
3. TPDS - Poorest of the poor

Explanation:

1. PDS (Public Distribution System) - Universal Coverage: PDS aims to provide food security to the entire population of the country. It covers both the urban and rural areas.

2. RPDS (Revamped Public Distribution System) - Backward Blocks: RPDS was launched in 1992 to provide food security to the population living in remote, hilly, and tribal areas. The objective was to provide food grains at subsidized rates to the people residing in backward blocks.

3. TPDS (Targeted Public Distribution System) - Poorest of the Poor: TPDS was launched in 1997 to ensure that the poorest of the poor have access to food grains at subsidized rates. The scheme covers only the below poverty line (BPL) families and the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - All of them.

Explanation:
The given statements are related to the issue of poverty and income inequality in India. Let us analyze each statement in detail:

Unequal distribution of land and resources:
One of the major reasons for income inequality in India is the unequal distribution of land and other resources. The land ownership pattern in rural areas is highly skewed, with a few large landowners holding the majority of the land and the majority of the population being landless or small landowners. This has resulted in a concentration of wealth and power in the hands of a few, leading to income inequality.

Improper implementation of land reforms:
Land reforms in India aimed at redistributing land and other assets in rural areas have not been implemented properly. The lack of political will, bureaucratic red tape, and resistance from vested interests have all contributed to the failure of land reforms. As a result, the concentration of land and resources in the hands of a few has continued, perpetuating income inequality.

Spending on social obligations and religious ceremonies:
In India, people spend a considerable amount of money on social obligations and religious ceremonies. While these are important cultural practices, they can also be a significant drain on household budgets, especially for those living in poverty. This can contribute to income inequality, as those who have more financial resources are able to spend more on these practices, while those who are poor may have to go into debt or forego these practices altogether.

Conclusion:
All three statements are correct and interrelated. Income inequality in India is a complex issue that is influenced by a range of factors, including historical patterns of land ownership, inadequate implementation of land reforms, and cultural practices that can be a significant drain on household budgets. Addressing these issues will require a concerted effort from policymakers, civil society, and communities across the country.

Statement 1: ADS organises training and capacity building programmes on food security for NGOs.
This statement implies that ADS is involved in conducting training and capacity building programs specifically focused on food security for non-governmental organizations (NGOs). The statement suggests that ADS is actively engaged in enhancing the knowledge and skills of NGOs in the area of food security.

Statement 2: ADS is working to set up Grain Banks, to facilitate replication through other NGOs and to influence the Government’s policy on food security.
This statement highlights two key activities of ADS. Firstly, it mentions that ADS is working towards establishing Grain Banks. Grain Banks are community-based food storage systems that help in ensuring food security by storing surplus produce during times of abundance and distributing it during periods of scarcity. This initiative indicates that ADS is actively involved in practical measures to address food security issues.

Secondly, the statement states that ADS aims to facilitate the replication of its Grain Bank model through other NGOs. This implies that ADS is not only focused on implementing its own initiatives but also aims to share its successful practices and models with other organizations, thereby promoting wider adoption and impact in the field of food security.

Additionally, the statement suggests that ADS seeks to influence the government's policy on food security. This indicates that ADS is not limited to grassroots initiatives but also aims to contribute towards shaping larger policy frameworks and approaches to address food security at a systemic level.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct as they highlight different aspects of ADS's work in the field of food security. Statement 1 emphasizes the training and capacity building programs conducted by ADS for NGOs, while Statement 2 highlights ADS's efforts in setting up Grain Banks, replicating the model through other NGOs, and influencing government policy on food security. Therefore, the correct answer is option C, i.e., both statements 1 and 2.

Introduction:
Growth refers to the increase in a country's capacity to produce the output of goods and services. It is an important concept in economics and is often measured by indicators such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Explanation:
To understand the correctness of the given statements, let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: It refers to an increase in the country's capacity to produce the output of goods and services within the country.

This statement is correct. Economic growth is typically associated with an increase in a country's capacity to produce goods and services. This can be achieved through various means such as technological advancements, investments in physical and human capital, and improvements in infrastructure. As a country's capacity to produce increases, it is able to provide a higher quantity and variety of goods and services to its population.

Statement 2: A good indicator of economic growth, in the language of economics, is a steady increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

This statement is also correct. GDP is a commonly used indicator to measure economic growth. It represents the total value of all goods and services produced within a country during a specific period. A steady increase in GDP over time indicates that the country's economy is growing and expanding its production capabilities.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. Economic growth refers to an increase in a country's capacity to produce goods and services, and GDP is a widely accepted indicator to measure this growth. Therefore, option 'C' is the correct answer.

Explanation:
India has a long history of poverty, and there are many reasons for it. The following statements can explain some of the reasons:

1. Low level of economic development under British colonial administration:
During the British colonial period, India was essentially an agrarian economy. The British policies led to the deindustrialization of India, which heavily impacted the traditional handicrafts and led to a decline in economic activities.

2. Ruin of traditional handicrafts and discouragement of industries like textiles:
The British colonial government introduced policies which hurt the traditional handicrafts and textile industries. For instance, they imposed high tariffs on Indian textiles, which made it difficult for them to compete with British textiles. This led to a decline in the textile industry in India and left millions of people without jobs.

3. Creation of job opportunities in the agriculture sector:
The spread of irrigation and the Green revolution created many job opportunities in the agriculture sector across India. However, this was not enough to solve the problem of poverty in India since the majority of the population was still engaged in agriculture, and the sector was heavily dependent on monsoon.

Therefore, option 'A' is the correct answer as statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is not entirely correct since although it created job opportunities, it was not enough to eradicate poverty in India.

Statement 1: Sarva Siksha Abhiyan has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children and improve their nutritional status.

The first statement is incorrect. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) is a flagship program of the Government of India implemented in 2000 to achieve universal elementary education. Its primary objective is to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years. While SSA aims to improve access to education and ensure retention of children in schools, it does not specifically focus on improving their nutritional status.

Statement 2: Mid-day meal scheme is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6–14 years.

The second statement is incorrect. The Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) is a centrally sponsored program launched in 1995 with the objective of improving the nutritional status of school children and encouraging their enrollment, attendance, and retention in schools. It provides free cooked meals to children studying in government and government-aided schools. While the scheme does contribute to the overall goal of providing elementary education, its primary focus is on improving the nutritional intake of children rather than directly providing education.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

In summary:
- Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) aims to achieve universal elementary education, but it does not specifically focus on improving the nutritional status of children.
- The Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) focuses on providing nutritious meals to children to improve their health and encourage enrollment and attendance in schools, but it is not a direct initiative for providing elementary education.

Overview of NREGA 2005
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005, now known as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), was enacted to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing a legal guarantee for at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
Statement Analysis
1. Employment Guarantee
- Under NREGA 2005, every rural household is guaranteed 100 days of employment in a financial year for those who are able and in need of work. This ensures a safety net for rural workers.
2. Unemployment Allowance
- If the government fails to provide the guaranteed employment within the stipulated time frame, it is obligated to pay an unemployment allowance to the applicants. This provision safeguards the rights of rural workers and ensures accountability.
3. Preference for Productive Work
- The Act prioritizes works that can enhance land productivity and contribute to sustainable development. This aligns with the broader goal of improving agricultural productivity and rural infrastructure.
Conclusion
All three statements are correct as they accurately reflect the provisions and intents of NREGA 2005.
- The Act provides a guarantee of employment.
- It mandates unemployment allowances if the government fails to provide work.
- It emphasizes productive work that would aid in increasing agricultural production.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D': All of them.

Explanation:

Statement 1:
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is indeed known as liberalisation. Liberalisation refers to the process of reducing or eliminating government regulations and controls in various sectors of the economy.

Statement 2:
With liberalisation of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export. This statement is correct as liberalisation of trade aims to promote free trade by reducing trade barriers such as tariffs, quotas, and import/export restrictions. This allows businesses to engage in international trade more freely and make decisions based on market demand and competitiveness.

Statement 3:
The government imposes much fewer restrictions than before and is therefore said to be more liberal. This statement is also correct. Liberalisation often involves reducing government control and intervention in economic activities. By imposing fewer restrictions, the government allows market forces to play a greater role in determining economic outcomes, which is a characteristic of a more liberal economic environment.

Conclusion:
All three statements are correct. Liberalisation involves removing government barriers or restrictions, allowing businesses to make independent decisions about import and export, and reducing government intervention in economic activities. Therefore, option D, which states that all the statements are correct, is the correct answer.

Assertion: Many borrowers find themselves in the Debt trap due to the informal source of loan.

Reason: The cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.


The assertion states that many borrowers find themselves in a debt trap due to the informal source of loans, while the reason provided is that the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.

Informal loans refer to borrowing from sources that are not regulated by formal financial institutions such as banks or credit unions. These sources can include moneylenders, friends, family members, or even loan sharks. These loans are typically characterized by high interest rates, lack of legal documentation, and absence of consumer protection measures.

Supporting Point 1: High interest rates:
- Informal loans often come with exorbitant interest rates that are significantly higher than those offered by formal financial institutions.
- This is because the lenders of informal loans usually operate outside the purview of regulatory authorities and can charge interest rates based on their own discretion.
- As a result, borrowers end up paying a substantial amount of money in the form of interest, which can make it difficult for them to repay the loan.

Supporting Point 2: Lack of legal documentation:
- Informal loans are often based on verbal agreements or informal written documents, lacking the legal protection and enforceability that formal loans provide.
- This makes it easier for lenders to exploit borrowers by changing the loan terms or demanding additional payments without any legal recourse for the borrower.
- As a result, borrowers may find themselves trapped in a cycle of debt due to the lack of transparency and legal safeguards.

Supporting Point 3: Absence of consumer protection measures:
- Informal loans are not subject to the same consumer protection measures that are mandated for formal loans.
- This means that borrowers do not have access to mechanisms such as credit counseling, debt restructuring, or dispute resolution, which can help alleviate their financial burden.
- Without these support systems, borrowers may struggle to manage their debt and find themselves trapped in a never-ending cycle of borrowing to repay existing loans.

Conclusion:
Given the high interest rates, lack of legal documentation, and absence of consumer protection measures associated with informal loans, it is evident that the cost to the borrower is much higher. This, in turn, leads many borrowers to find themselves in a debt trap. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, with the reason providing a correct explanation for the assertion. Hence, option 'A' is the correct answer.

Foreign currency flows into the home country due to the following reasons: exports by a country lead to the purchase of its domestic goods and services by the foreigners; foreigners send gifts or make transfers; and, the assets of a home country are bought by the foreigners.

Explanation:

GDP deflator:
The GDP deflator is a measure of the average price level of goods and services produced in an economy. It is calculated by dividing nominal GDP (the value of all final goods and services produced at current prices) by real GDP (the value of all final goods and services produced at constant prices). The GDP deflator includes the prices of both domestically produced goods and imported goods.

CPI:
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average price level of goods and services consumed by the representative consumers in an economy. It is calculated by comparing the cost of a basket of goods and services at current prices to the cost of the same basket at base period prices. The CPI includes the prices of goods consumed by the representative consumers, which may include both domestically produced goods and imported goods.

Statement 1: GDP deflator does not include prices of imported goods
This statement is not correct. The GDP deflator includes the prices of both domestically produced goods and imported goods. It measures the overall price level in an economy, including the prices of goods and services produced both domestically and abroad.

Statement 2: CPI does not include prices of goods consumed by the representative consumers
This statement is also not correct. The CPI measures the average price level of goods and services consumed by the representative consumers. It includes the prices of goods consumed by the representative consumers, which may include both domestically produced goods and imported goods.

Conclusion:
Both statements are not correct. The GDP deflator includes the prices of both domestically produced goods and imported goods, and the CPI includes the prices of goods consumed by the representative consumers, which may include both domestically produced goods and imported goods. The correct answer is option 'B'.

Answer:

Introduction:
The given statements are related to the concept of globalization and its impact on the integration of production and markets across countries. Let's analyze each statement and determine their correctness.

Statement 1: The result of greater foreign investment and greater foreign trade has been greater integration of production and markets across countries.

Foreign investment and foreign trade play a crucial role in the process of globalization. When countries engage in foreign investment and trade, it leads to the exchange of goods, services, and capital between them. This exchange fosters economic interdependence and integration of production and markets across countries. Here's how it happens:

Integration of Production:
1. Foreign investment allows companies to establish production facilities in other countries, taking advantage of lower costs, resources, or expertise.
2. This leads to the creation of global value chains, where different stages of production are spread across multiple countries.
3. Companies source inputs, components, or services from different countries to optimize their production process.
4. As a result, the production process becomes more integrated and interconnected across borders.

Integration of Markets:
1. Foreign trade enables countries to access larger markets and diverse consumer bases.
2. Through exports and imports, countries can sell their products and services to a global customer base.
3. This leads to increased competition, innovation, and specialization, as companies strive to cater to the global market.
4. The integration of markets also facilitates the flow of ideas, technologies, and best practices between countries.

Therefore, it can be concluded that greater foreign investment and foreign trade result in greater integration of production and markets across countries.

Statement 2: Globalization is this process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.

Globalization refers to the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of countries through various economic, political, and cultural channels. It involves the integration of goods, services, capital, technology, information, and people across national boundaries. Therefore, statement 2 is correct in defining globalization as the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. The result of greater foreign investment and foreign trade is greater integration of production and markets across countries. This process of integration or interconnection between countries is referred to as globalization.

Explanation:
The correct order of the schemes released chronologically is as follows:

1. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) - Released first
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) - Released after PMRY
3. Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) - Released after REGP
4. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) - Released last

Reasoning:
To determine the correct order of the schemes, we need to analyze the release years of each scheme.

1. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY):
- PMRY was launched in 1993.
- It aimed to provide self-employment opportunities to educated unemployed youth.
- Since it was released first, it takes the first position in the chronological order.

2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP):
- REGP was launched in 1995.
- It aimed to create sustainable employment opportunities in rural areas.
- REGP was released after PMRY, so it takes the second position in the order.

3. Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY):
- SGSY was launched in 1999.
- It aimed to provide self-employment opportunities to rural poor.
- SGSY was released after REGP, so it takes the third position in the order.

4. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY):
- PMGY was launched in 2000.
- It aimed to improve the quality of life in rural areas through various development initiatives.
- PMGY was released last, so it takes the fourth and final position in the chronological order.

Summary:
Based on the release years of the schemes, the correct chronological order is:
1. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
3. Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
4. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY)

Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' (1-2-4-3).

The correct answer is option 'A', which states that statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1. Unemployment tends to increase economic overload:
Unemployment refers to the situation where individuals who are willing and able to work are unable to find suitable employment opportunities. When unemployment rates are high, it puts a strain on the economy. This is because unemployed individuals are not contributing to the production of goods and services, which leads to a decrease in overall economic output. Additionally, unemployed individuals may rely on government assistance or social welfare programs, which can put a burden on public finances. Therefore, unemployment tends to increase economic overload.

2. Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy:
High levels of unemployment are often seen as a sign of a depressed or struggling economy. When unemployment rates increase, it indicates that there is a lack of demand for labor in the economy. This can be due to various factors such as a slowdown in economic growth, lack of investment, or structural issues within the labor market. As a result, an increase in unemployment is often seen as a negative indicator of the overall health of the economy.

3. In the case of India, a large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as unemployed:
This statement is incorrect. In India, the definition of unemployment is based on the status of individuals in the labor force. According to the International Labour Organization (ILO), individuals are considered unemployed if they are currently not working, actively seeking work, and available for work. The income and productivity levels of individuals are not taken into account when determining unemployment. However, it is worth noting that in India, there is a significant portion of the workforce engaged in the informal sector, where income and productivity levels may be low. These individuals are not counted as unemployed but are considered underemployed.

In conclusion, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Unemployment does increase economic overload and an increase in unemployment is often an indicator of a depressed economy. However, in the case of India, individuals with low income and productivity are not counted as unemployed but may be considered underemployed.

Under COPRA 2019, a three-tier quasi- judicial machinery at the district, state and national levels has been set up for redressal of consumer disputes. If a case is dismissed in district level court, the consumer can also appeal in state and then in National level courts.

Introduction:
Equity refers to the fair distribution of resources, opportunities, and benefits among individuals and groups in society. It aims to ensure that everyone has equal access to essential services and a decent standard of living.

Explanation:
1. It is important to ensure that the benefits of economic prosperity reach the poor sections:
This statement highlights the significance of equity in economic development. Economic prosperity should not be concentrated in the hands of a few, but should be distributed fairly among all sections of society, especially the poor. When the benefits of economic growth reach the poor, it helps in reducing poverty, inequality, and social disparities. It promotes inclusive development and social cohesion.

2. Now growth, modernization and self-reliance, by themselves, may not improve the kind of life which people are living:
This statement emphasizes that economic growth, modernization, and self-reliance alone may not necessarily lead to an improvement in people's lives. While these factors are important for development, their impact on the quality of life depends on how the benefits are distributed. If the benefits are concentrated in a few hands, it can lead to widening inequalities and exclusion of marginalized sections. Therefore, it is important to ensure that development efforts are accompanied by equitable distribution of resources and opportunities.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct as they highlight the importance of equity in ensuring that the benefits of economic prosperity reach the poor sections of society and that growth and modernization alone may not improve people's lives unless accompanied by equitable distribution. By promoting equity, societies can strive towards a more just and inclusive development path, where everyone has equal opportunities and access to essential resources.

Statement 1: Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas.

Statement 2: This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

Explanation:

Statement 1: Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas.

This statement is correct. Telecommunication facilities, such as phones, internet, and other communication devices, have revolutionized the way people interact with each other. These facilities allow individuals to contact each other from any part of the world, access information instantly through the internet, and communicate even from remote areas where traditional communication infrastructure may not be available.

Statement 2: This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

This statement is also correct. Satellite communication devices have played a significant role in facilitating global communication and access to information. Satellites orbiting the Earth are used to transmit and receive signals for various telecommunication services. These satellites enable long-distance communication, as they can cover large areas and provide connectivity to remote and inaccessible regions. They are used for television and radio broadcasting, internet connectivity, telephone services, and other forms of communication.

Conclusion:

Both statements are correct. Telecommunication facilities have indeed revolutionized communication by enabling people to contact each other globally, access information instantly, and communicate from remote areas. This has been made possible by satellite communication devices, which provide the necessary infrastructure for global connectivity and communication. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - None of them.

The correct answer is option 'C', which means both statements are correct.

1. Statement 1: Since people living in rural areas engage themselves in more physical work, calorie requirements in rural areas are considered to be higher than in urban areas.

This statement is correct. People living in rural areas generally engage in more physical work compared to those in urban areas. Rural occupations often involve manual labor such as farming, fishing, and livestock rearing, which require more physical exertion. As a result, individuals in rural areas have higher energy expenditure and require more calories to meet their daily energy needs.

2. Statement 2: The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.

This statement is also correct. The accepted average calorie requirement in India varies based on factors such as age, sex, occupation, and physical activity level. However, as a general guideline, the average calorie requirement is considered to be higher in rural areas compared to urban areas. The average daily calorie requirement for an adult in rural areas is around 2400 calories, while it is around 2100 calories in urban areas.

The higher calorie requirement in rural areas can be attributed to the physical nature of rural occupations and the increased energy expenditure associated with them. On the other hand, urban areas often have sedentary jobs and a more comfortable lifestyle, leading to a slightly lower calorie requirement.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. People living in rural areas indeed have higher calorie requirements due to their engagement in more physical work, and the accepted average calorie requirement in India is higher in rural areas (2400 calories) compared to urban areas (2100 calories).