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All questions of Banking of India for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

Consider the following pairs:
1. Repo rate : Policy rate set by the central bank
2. 91-day Treasury Bill yield : Long-term government security yield
3. 182-day Treasury Bill yield : Short-term government security yield
4. Basel III norms : Prudential regulatory framework for banks
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Pairs
Let’s evaluate each pair to determine how many are correctly matched.
1. Repo rate : Policy rate set by the central bank
- This pair is correctly matched.
- The repo rate is indeed the rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks, acting as a key tool for monetary policy.
2. 91-day Treasury Bill yield : Long-term government security yield
- This pair is incorrectly matched.
- A 91-day Treasury Bill is a short-term security, typically issued for 3 months, which means its yield is associated with short-term financing rather than long-term.
3. 182-day Treasury Bill yield : Short-term government security yield
- This pair is correctly matched.
- Similar to the 91-day Treasury Bill, a 182-day Treasury Bill is also a short-term security, making this pair accurate.
4. Basel III norms : Prudential regulatory framework for banks
- This pair is correctly matched.
- Basel III is indeed a global regulatory framework established to strengthen bank capital requirements and promote financial stability.
Conclusion: Count of Correct Matches
- Correct matches: 1 (Repo rate) + 1 (182-day Treasury Bill yield) + 1 (Basel III norms) = 3 pairs.
- Incorrect match: 2 (91-day Treasury Bill yield).
Thus, the correct answer is that only three pairs are correctly matched, making option 'C' the right choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) - Banks maintain a part of their total deposits with the RBI in cash form.
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) - Banks maintain a part of their total deposits in liquid assets with the RBI.
3. Bank Rate - The interest rate charged by the RBI on its short-term lendings.
4. Repo Rate - The rate of interest the RBI charges on long-term borrowings from banks.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) - Correct. Banks are required to maintain a part of their total deposits with the RBI in cash form.
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) - Incorrect. Banks maintain a part of their total deposits in liquid assets with themselves, not with the RBI.
3. Bank Rate - Incorrect. The Bank Rate is the interest rate charged by the RBI on its long-term lending, not short-term.
4. Repo Rate - Incorrect. The Repo Rate is the rate of interest the RBI charges on short-term borrowings, not long-term.
Only the first pair is correctly matched.

What is the primary purpose of the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) introduced by the RBI in 2004?
  • a)
    To regulate the functioning of the call money market
  • b)
    To absorb surplus liquidity arising from large capital inflows
  • c)
    To manage interest rate signals in the market
  • d)
    To facilitate daily lending and borrowing operations between the RBI and banks
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS), introduced by the RBI in 2004, primarily aims to absorb surplus liquidity arising from large capital inflows. This scheme involves the sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills to soak up excess liquidity in the system. The mobilized cash is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank. By implementing the MSS, the RBI can effectively manage liquidity conditions in the market, especially during times of excess funds influx, ensuring stability and control over the monetary environment.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India maintained a status quo on the repo rate until January 2022.
2. The RBI initiated a monetary tightening cycle in April 2022 due to headline inflation surpassing the upper limit of its tolerance band.
3. The Government of India began the banking consolidation process in 1998 following the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Dey answered
Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding India's monetary policy and banking reforms, let’s analyze each one in detail.
Statement 1: Status Quo on Repo Rate Until January 2022
- This statement is incorrect. The MPC of India actually began increasing the repo rate in May 2022, reacting to rising inflation. Prior to that, the repo rate had been held steady, but it did not maintain a status quo until January 2022.
Statement 2: Monetary Tightening Cycle in April 2022
- This statement is correct. The RBI initiated a monetary tightening cycle in April 2022 as headline inflation crossed the upper limit of its tolerance band (which is typically set at 6%). The MPC raised interest rates to curb inflationary pressures.
Statement 3: Banking Consolidation Process in 1998
- This statement is incorrect. The banking consolidation process in India began following the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee in 1991, not in 1998. The committee laid the groundwork for reforms in the banking sector aimed at enhancing efficiency and stability.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct Statements: Only Statement 2 is accurate.
- Final Answer: The correct option is B) 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Call Money Market: Borrowing and lending of funds on an overnight basis
2. Open Market Operations: Sale/purchase of private securities to modulate liquidity
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility: Daily lending or borrowing by the RBI at fixed interest rates
4. Market Stabilisation Scheme: Absorption of surplus liquidity via sale of short-dated government securities
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Call Money Market: Borrowing and lending of funds on an overnight basis - Correct. The call money market is indeed where borrowing and lending of funds take place on an overnight basis.
2. Open Market Operations: Sale/purchase of private securities to modulate liquidity - Incorrect. Open Market Operations (OMOs) involve the sale/purchase of government securities, not private securities.
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility: Daily lending or borrowing by the RBI at fixed interest rates - Correct. The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) allows the RBI to lend or borrow money from the banking system on a daily basis at fixed interest rates.
4. Market Stabilisation Scheme: Absorption of surplus liquidity via sale of short-dated government securities - Correct. The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) absorbs surplus liquidity through the sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills.
Thus, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Base Rate is the interest rate below which Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) can not lend no loans to its customers.
Statement-II:
MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate) is the  maximum interest rate that a bank or a lender can offer.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I is correct:
Base Rate is the minimum interest rate set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) below which Scheduled Commercial Banks cannot lend to their customers, ensuring transparency and fairness in lending.

Statement-II is incorrect:
 MCLR is the minimum lending rate a bank can offer, not the maximum. It reflects the marginal cost of funds and is used to determine the interest rate for various loans.

The correct answer is C: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Statement-II: Price stability is a necessary precondition for sustainable growth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivam Mehta answered
Understanding the Statements
The two statements presented discuss the relationship between monetary policy, price stability, and economic growth.
Statement-I Explained:
- The primary objective of monetary policy is indeed to maintain price stability, which refers to controlling inflation and ensuring stable prices in the economy.
- Additionally, monetary policy considers economic growth, aiming to foster a conducive environment for sustainable economic expansion.
Statement-II Explained:
- Price stability serves as a necessary precondition for sustainable growth. Without stable prices, businesses and consumers face uncertainty, which can hinder investment and spending.
- Stable prices contribute to a predictable economic environment, allowing for better long-term planning and investment decisions.
Why Both Statements are Correct:
- Both statements highlight critical aspects of monetary policy's role in the economy.
- Statement-I outlines the dual focus of monetary policy on price stability and growth.
- Statement-II emphasizes that achieving price stability is essential for fostering sustainable growth, thus providing an explanation for the objectives mentioned in Statement-I.
Conclusion:
- Since both statements are correct and Statement-II provides a rationale for the objectives stated in Statement-I, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
This interconnection reinforces the importance of a balanced approach to monetary policy for achieving both stability and growth in the economy.

Consider the following statements:
1. NBFCs are not allowed to engage in agricultural, industrial, and construction activities as their principal business.
2. The Reserve Bank of India was initially set up under private ownership in 1935.
3. The primary objective of monetary policy in India is to maintain price stability while promoting growth.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Mayank Joshi answered
Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding NBFCs, RBI, and monetary policy, let's analyze each one:
1. NBFCs and Their Activities
- Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are indeed restricted from engaging in agricultural, industrial, and construction activities as their principal business.
- This regulation is in place to ensure that they focus primarily on financial services like loans and investments.
2. Reserve Bank of India’s Origin
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in 1935 under private ownership.
- It was created to respond to economic challenges and provide stability to the Indian currency and financial system before being nationalized in 1949.
3. Objective of Monetary Policy
- The primary objective of India's monetary policy is to maintain price stability while promoting economic growth.
- The RBI aims to control inflation and ensure that growth is sustainable, balancing these two critical aspects of the economy.
Conclusion
All three statements are accurate:
- Statement 1 correctly outlines the restrictions on NBFCs.
- Statement 2 accurately describes the initial establishment of the RBI.
- Statement 3 reflects the dual objectives of the monetary policy in India.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D', as all statements (1, 2, and 3) are true.

What does the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) mandate for banks in India?
  • a)
    Maintaining a part of total deposits with themselves in liquid assets
  • b)
    Maintaining a part of total deposits with the RBI in cash form
  • c)
    Paying banks an interest income by the RBI
  • d)
    Allowing banks to lend more without any reserve requirements
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requires banks to maintain a certain percentage of their total deposits with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in cash form. This regulation aims to ensure that banks have a proportion of their assets readily available in cash to meet withdrawal demands and to control the liquidity in the economy. By adjusting the CRR, the RBI can influence the lending capacity of banks and thereby impact the overall money supply in the economy.

Consider the following statements:
1. The call money market involves the borrowing and lending of funds on an overnight basis among scheduled commercial banks and cooperative banks, excluding regional rural banks and land development banks.
2. The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) was introduced by the RBI in June 2000 to lend to or borrow money from the banking system at fixed interest rates.
3. The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) was introduced in 2004 to absorb surplus liquidity through the sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2, and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aim It Academy answered
All three statements provided are accurate descriptions of the instruments used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its monetary policy framework:
1. Call Money Market: This market indeed involves the borrowing and lending of funds on an overnight basis among scheduled commercial banks and cooperative banks, excluding regional rural banks and land development banks. This is a correct statement.
2. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): Introduced in June 2000, the LAF allows the RBI to lend to or borrow money from the banking system at fixed interest rates to manage liquidity and transmit interest rate signals effectively. This statement is also correct.
3. Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS): Introduced in 2004, the MSS aims to manage surplus liquidity through the sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills, with the mobilised cash held in a separate government account with the RBI. This is also an accurate statement.
Therefore, all the given statements are correct, making Option D: 1, 2, and 3 the correct answer.

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