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All questions of Verbal Sectional Tests for GMAT Exam

Given his luminous treatment of light, sky, and water, J.M.W. Turner (1775-1851) is often viewed in hindsight as a precursor of Impressionism. Yet as Turner authority Andrew Wilton has argued, his roots lie in a specifically eighteenth century tradition, that of the "sublime." Before landscape painting was accepted in England as the rendition of everyday reality, it was seen as the expression of a state of spiritual exaltation.
The roots of the notion of the sublime, Wilton notes, go back to antiquity: Longinus observed (according to an eighteenth century paraphrase) that "the effect of the sublime is to lift up the soul...so that participating, as it were, of the splendors of the divinity, it becomes filled with joy and exultation." The sublime, therefore, was understood to produce an effect of elevation toward unity with divine. In its origins, the sublime was associated with literary rather than visual art, as its connotations of power and mystery could most easily be conveyed in words; and its subject matter was epic, historical, or religious. To eighteenth century commentators, Homer, the Bible, and Milton were quintessentially sublime. When the concept was applied to painting, this narrative emphasis was maintained, leading almost by necessity to a focus on the human figure; for Joshua Reynolds, Michelangelo's Sistine Chapel frescoes exemplified the sublime in art. Because it did not show figures (except incidentally) landscape was necessarily seen as inferior.
The transition to the conception that produced Turner's landscapes had several sources. One was the eighteenth century's quasi-religious excitement in the scientific investigation of nature, shown for example when Addison exclaimed upon the astronomer's "pleasing astonishment, to see so many worlds, hanging one above another, and sliding round their axles in such an amazing pomp and solemnity." A second was the rise of a middle class with the leisure to travel, which led to an interest in the Rigged vistas of Wales and Scotland. Finally, James Thomson's immensely popular nature epic "The Seasons" (1726-30) applied blank verse, with its connotations of loftiness, to portrayal of nature's immensities. By the latter part of the century, there was a well-defined notion of the sublime in literature and painting, which included nature while by no means excluding earlier referents. According to Edmund Burke's definitive essay of 1757, the sublime in nature was closely tied up with vastness, lack of habitation and cultivation, and danger— which, as in the reaction to high mountain passes or storms at sea, was conducive to awe. These qualities, as evoked in the painting of landscapes (and urban vistas, an important though subordinate field), produced a series of genres that, Wilton stresses, form the key to Turner's work: the "picturesque sublime," the "terrific" (wild crags, cataracts, etc.), the sublime of the sea, mountains, and darkness, and finally the "architectural sublime" and the urban sublime.
According to the passage, landscapes were not originally seen as embodying the sublime because
  • a)
    the narrative connotations of the sublime implied an emphasis on the human figure X
  • b)
    only religious subjects were seen as embodying the sublime
  • c)
    Michelangelo did not paint landscape
  • d)
    landscape was viewed purely as the visual representation of everyday nature scenes
  • e)
    nature was not conceived as a source of awe and wonder
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) the narrative connotations of the sublime implied an emphasis on the human figure X ⇒ Sublime is related to literary because its connotation is about power and mystery... and sublime focus on the human figure;- LANSCAPES didnt show figures, that's why it was not originally seen as embodying the sublime ⇒ CORRECT
(B) only religious subjects were seen as embodying the sublime
(C) Michelangelo did not paint landscape
(D) landscape was viewed purely as the visual representation of everyday nature scenes
(E) nature was not conceived as a source of awe and wonder

Today, children whose parents are deemed incapable of caring for them are put into foster care. These children are moved into strangers' homes, where they are cared for until their own parents can regain custody, which may not happen for years, if it happens at all. Although it means well, the current foster care program is so poorly funded, staffed, and managed that it cannot ensure the safety and well being of the children in the system. The laudable idea behind foster care is that children will fare best if placed in a family setting until they can be reunited with their parents, even if it is a family of strangers. However while in foster care, children typically get shuffled between many different foster homes, preventing them from developing long-term, supportive relationships with their foster families.
Foster care placements can also force siblings to be separated, further isolating these vulnerable children. When a child is moved to a new foster home, he or she may also have to enroll in a new school, a disruptive process that has a negative impact on the child's education. The bureaucracy that oversees this system is overwhelmed to the point that social workers are unable to adequately screen potential foster parents and keep accurate track of the children placed in foster care. There must be a better means of caring for these children. Perhaps it is time to consider creating special group homes as a means of providing these children with stable and safe environments.
A child could live in one group home for the duration of his or her time in foster care and be supervised by a team of social workers and other lay people. Children would receive proper meals and healthcare, attend the same school, and develop relationships with others experiencing the trauma of being separated from their parents. In addition, social workers and staff would have daily access to these children, enabling them to better determine if a child has a special physical or psychological need and arrange for the necessary services. Would this approach be perfect? No, but it would solve many of the problems that plague the current system. For some, the idea of a government agency housing, clothing, and feeding needy children may sound extreme, but it only suggests that we provide these children with the same basic necessities that we give to prison inmates.
The passage suggests that the idea of creating group homes in lieu of foster care
  • a)
    is long overdue.
  • b)
    is the only viable option to foster care.
  • c)
    is likely to meet with much resistance.
  • d)
    should be researched extensively.
  • e)
    is a basic right that should not be denied to children in need.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
  • In the last paragraph, the author acknowledges that “For some, the idea of a government agency housing, clothing, and feeding needy children may sound extreme.” This suggests that the idea will be resisted.
  • The author does not appear to think that this idea is long overdue (choice a); the author says “perhaps it is time” to consider group homes, not “it is high time” or some other phrase that would suggest impatience.
  • The author is not close-minded enough to suggest that group homes are the only option (choice b).
  • The statement “There must be a better means of caring for these children” and the word “perhaps” indicate that the author is thinking about options and possibilities. The author would probably agree that the idea of creating group homes should be researched (choice d), but the passage does not indicate this point.
  • Finally, the author suggests that the basic rights that should not be denied to children are food, clothes, and shelter—not orphanages themselves, so choice e is incorrect.

Today, children whose parents are deemed incapable of caring for them are put into foster care. These children are moved into strangers' homes, where they are cared for until their own parents can regain custody, which may not happen for years, if it happens at all. Although it means well, the current foster care program is so poorly funded, staffed, and managed that it cannot ensure the safety and well being of the children in the system. The laudable idea behind foster care is that children will fare best if placed in a family setting until they can be reunited with their parents, even if it is a family of strangers. However while in foster care, children typically get shuffled between many different foster homes, preventing them from developing long-term, supportive relationships with their foster families.
Foster care placements can also force siblings to be separated, further isolating these vulnerable children. When a child is moved to a new foster home, he or she may also have to enroll in a new school, a disruptive process that has a negative impact on the child's education. The bureaucracy that oversees this system is overwhelmed to the point that social workers are unable to adequately screen potential foster parents and keep accurate track of the children placed in foster care. There must be a better means of caring for these children. Perhaps it is time to consider creating special group homes as a means of providing these children with stable and safe environments.
A child could live in one group home for the duration of his or her time in foster care and be supervised by a team of social workers and other lay people. Children would receive proper meals and healthcare, attend the same school, and develop relationships with others experiencing the trauma of being separated from their parents. In addition, social workers and staff would have daily access to these children, enabling them to better determine if a child has a special physical or psychological need and arrange for the necessary services. Would this approach be perfect? No, but it would solve many of the problems that plague the current system. For some, the idea of a government agency housing, clothing, and feeding needy children may sound extreme, but it only suggests that we provide these children with the same basic necessities that we give to prison inmates.
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
  • a)
    The current foster care system is a failure.
  • b)
    Government-run group homes would be a better option than foster care.
  • c)
    Group homes for children are similar to prisons.
  • d)
    Children in foster care need more stability.
  • e)
    No childcare system is perfect.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
  • The main idea is expressed at the beginning of the third paragraph: “Perhaps it’s time to consider creating special group homes as a means of providing these children with stable and safe environments.” The first two paragraphs describe the problems with foster care, whereas the last two show how group homes would address those problems.
  • The passage does argue that the current foster care system is at least to some extent a failure (choice a), but that is part of the larger argument that something else must be done.
  • The passage refers to prisons in the last paragraph, but this is to compare the treatment of children in foster care with the treatment of inmates in prison, not to compare group homes to prisons (choice c).
  • The passage argues that children in foster care need more stability (choice d), but this is one of the supporting ideas, not the main idea. The author may feel that no system is perfect (choice e) and acknowledges that group homes are not a perfect solution, but again, this is a detail within the passage, not the overall main idea.
    Answer: B

Recently a court ruled that current law allows companies to reject a job applicant if working in the job would entail a 90 percent chance that the applicant would suffer a heart attack. The presiding judge justified the ruling, saying that it protected both employees and employers.
This use of his court ruling as part of the law could not be effective in regulating employment practices if which of the following were true?
  • a)
    The best interests of employers often conflict with the interests of employees.
  • b)
    No legally accepted methods exist for calculating the risk of a job applicant's having a heart attack as a result of being employed in any particular occupation.
  • c)
    Some jobs might involve health risks other than the risk of heart attack.
  • d)
    Employees who have a 90 percent chance of suffering a heart attack may be unaware that their risk is so great.
  • e)
    The number of people applying for jobs at a company might decline if the company, by screening applicants for risk of heart attack, seemed to suggest that the job entailed high risk of heart attack.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) The best interests of employers often conflict with the interests of employees. - Suggests it is mutually beneficial to both the Employers and Employees.
(B) 
No legally accepted methods exist for calculating the risk of a job applicant's having a heart attack as a result of being employed in any particular occupation.
If this statement is true the entire reasoning falls apart.
(C)
Some jobs might involve health risks other than the risk of heart attack. - Out of Scope.
(D)
Employees who have a 90 percent chance of suffering a heart attack may be unaware that their risk is so great. - Irrelevant we are talking about new applicants.
(E)
The number of people applying for jobs at a company might decline if the company, by screening applicants for risk of heart attack, seemed to suggest that the job entailed high risk of heart attack. - Irrelevant.

The financial markets in London underwent significant development during the late 17th and early 18th centuries. The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694, amidst the Nine Years' War, marked the creation of a national debt system and introduced Bills of Exchange, which became the foundation of modern banking. London's financial landscape was further invigorated by overseas investments, particularly from Amsterdam and France, and by the Treaty of Utrecht (1713), which granted Britain the right to supply slaves to Spanish America. This influx of capital, combined with other financial innovations like joint-stock companies, lotteries, and insurance firms, fueled London’s rise as a global financial center.
Among these ventures was the South Sea Company, founded in 1711 with the purpose of managing part of Britain’s national debt and exploiting lucrative trade opportunities in Spanish South America. The Company quickly became the subject of intense speculation, with its stock prices soaring in 1720. Investors from all classes, including royalty, were swept into a speculative frenzy. John Blunt, one of the company’s leaders, was even knighted for his role in elevating public credit.
However, the South Sea Company’s promises of vast profits proved hollow. The stock price, artificially inflated through loans and speculative trading, eventually collapsed. By late 1720, shares had plummeted, leaving many investors, including brilliant physicists such as Isaac Newton, in financial ruin. The fallout led to a parliamentary inquiry that uncovered widespread corruption, including insider trading and political bribery. Key figures, such as the Chancellor of the Exchequer, faced impeachment and punishment.
Despite the catastrophic impact on investors, the broader economic system endured. The South Sea Company itself continued to operate until 1853, serving as a sobering reminder of the dangers inherent in speculative financial bubbles. The event also sparked public debate about the need for stricter regulation and transparency in financial markets.
Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
  • a)
    A chronological description of financial innovations in London, followed by an analysis of the South Sea Company’s role in shaping modern financial systems.
  • b)
    An introduction to the development of London’s financial markets, followed by a detailed case study of a specific speculative bubble and its aftermath.
  • c)
    A discussion of the economic impact of the Nine Years' War on Britain, followed by an explanation of how financial institutions helped restore economic stability.
  • d)
    An overview of the early financial system in London, followed by a comparison between the South Sea Company and other joint-stock companies of the era.
  • e)
    A description of Britain’s rise as a financial power, followed by an exploration of how international trade agreements contributed to its success.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A): Incorrect- While the passage does describe some financial innovations chronologically, it does not analyze how the South Sea Company shaped modern financial systems. Instead, the passage focuses on the speculative bubble and the subsequent collapse.
(B): Correct- The passage begins with a discussion of London's financial development and then transitions into a detailed examination of the South Sea Company as a specific example of speculative excess, making this the most accurate description of the passage's organization.
(C): Incorrect- Although the passage mentions the Nine Years' War in the context of the Bank of England's creation, it does not focus on the economic impact of the war or financial institutions restoring economic stability.
(D): Incorrect- The passage does not compare the South Sea Company to other joint-stock companies in detail. It focuses primarily on the South Sea Company's rise and collapse, without making direct comparisons to other companies.
(E): Incorrect- While international trade agreements like the Treaty of Utrecht are mentioned, the passage does not primarily explore Britain’s rise as a financial power through trade agreements. The focus is more on financial innovation and speculative bubbles.

The financial markets in London underwent significant development during the late 17th and early 18th centuries. The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694, amidst the Nine Years' War, marked the creation of a national debt system and introduced Bills of Exchange, which became the foundation of modern banking. London's financial landscape was further invigorated by overseas investments, particularly from Amsterdam and France, and by the Treaty of Utrecht (1713), which granted Britain the right to supply slaves to Spanish America. This influx of capital, combined with other financial innovations like joint-stock companies, lotteries, and insurance firms, fueled London’s rise as a global financial center.
Among these ventures was the South Sea Company, founded in 1711 with the purpose of managing part of Britain’s national debt and exploiting lucrative trade opportunities in Spanish South America. The Company quickly became the subject of intense speculation, with its stock prices soaring in 1720. Investors from all classes, including royalty, were swept into a speculative frenzy. John Blunt, one of the company’s leaders, was even knighted for his role in elevating public credit.
However, the South Sea Company’s promises of vast profits proved hollow. The stock price, artificially inflated through loans and speculative trading, eventually collapsed. By late 1720, shares had plummeted, leaving many investors, including brilliant physicists such as Isaac Newton, in financial ruin. The fallout led to a parliamentary inquiry that uncovered widespread corruption, including insider trading and political bribery. Key figures, such as the Chancellor of the Exchequer, faced impeachment and punishment.
Despite the catastrophic impact on investors, the broader economic system endured. The South Sea Company itself continued to operate until 1853, serving as a sobering reminder of the dangers inherent in speculative financial bubbles. The event also sparked public debate about the need for stricter regulation and transparency in financial markets.
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the passage’s mention of Isaac Newton’s involvement in the South Sea Company?
  • a)
    To demonstrate that even highly intelligent individuals were not immune to the speculative frenzy of the time.
  • b)
    To suggest that scientific figures played a key role in the financial development of 18th-century Britain.
  • c)
    To imply that Newton’s financial expertise contributed to his wealth during the South Sea Bubble.
  • d)
    To criticize the involvement of prominent public figures in corrupt financial practices.
  • e)
    To illustrate how the failure of the South Sea Company impacted Britain’s scientific community.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A): Correct- The passage uses Newton as an example of an intelligent individual caught in the speculative frenzy, showing that even brilliant minds were not immune to poor financial decisions.
(B): Incorrect- The passage does not suggest that scientists like Newton influenced financial development.
(C): Incorrect- Newton is mentioned for his financial losses, not for any financial expertise or wealth gained.
(D): Incorrect- The passage does not criticize Newton’s involvement in corrupt practices.
(E): Incorrect- There is no reference to the broader scientific community being affected by the South Sea Company’s collapse.

The ability to access information via computer is a tremendous resource for visually impaired people. Only a limited amount of printed information is accessible in braille, large type, or audiotape. But a person with the right hardware and software can access a large quantity of information from libraries and museums around the world, and can have the computer read the information aloud, display it in large type, or produce a braille version. Thus, visually impaired people can now access information from computers more easily than they can from most traditional sources.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
  • a)
    A computerized speech synthesizer is often less expensive than a complete library of audiotapes.
  • b)
    Relatively easy-to-use computer systems that can read information aloud, display it in large type, or produce a braille version of it are widely available.
  • c)
    Many visually impaired people prefer traditional sources of information to computers that can read information aloud, display it in large type, or produce a braille version of it.
  • d)
    Most visually impaired people who have access to information via computer also have access to this same information via more traditional sources.
  • e)
    The rate at which printed information is converted into formats easily accessible to visually impaired people will increase.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
A) A computerized speech synthesizer is often less expensive than a complete library of audiotapes.
This option does not have any impact on the conclusion for different reasons.
First, it talks only about synthesizers while the conclusion talks about ALL kind of visual impairments.
Second, how much does a complete library of tape cost? Is it crazy expensive or is it quite cheap? From this stand we can either infer that such synthesizers are expensive or cheap. Hence OUT
B) Relatively easy-to-use computer systems that can read information aloud, display it in large type, or produce a braille version of it are widely available.
In line with our pre-thought strengthener
C) Many visually impaired people prefer traditional sources of information to computers that can read information aloud, display it in large type, or produce a braille version of it. - IRRELEVANT
D) Most visually impaired people who have access to information via computer also have access to this same information via more traditional sources. - IRRELEVANT
E) The rate at which printed information is converted into formats easily accessible to visually impaired people will increase.
The conclusion is present-based while this option talks about the future. OUT

Researchers have concluded from a survey of people aged 65 that emotional well-being in adulthood is closely related to intimacy with siblings earlier in life. Those surveyed who had never had any siblings or who said that at college age they were emotionally distant from their siblings were emotionally less well adjusted at 65 than were those who had been close to at least one brother or sister.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the researchers’ argument?
  • a)
    As they get older, many people think more about their mortality and thus must confront feelings of loneliness and isolation.
  • b)
    People suffering from the emotional distress of maladjustment usually remember being less intimate with other people than they actually were.
  • c)
    Memory of one’s past plays a greater role in the emotional well-being of older people than it does in that of younger people.
  • d)
    Few people can correctly identify the true sources of their emotional well-being or of their emotional difficulties.
  • e)
    Siblings are more likely to have major arguments and deep differences of opinion at college age than at any other time of their lives.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) As they get older, many people think more about their mortality and thus must confront feelings of loneliness and isolation. → We need a linkage with the siblings during younger age. Nothing links this answer to the peoples' connects with siblings.
(B) People suffering from the emotional distress of maladjustment usually remember being less intimate with other people than they actually were. → Describes a flaw in the stimulus and hence likely to be correct
(C) Memory of one’s past plays a greater role in the emotional well-being of older people than it does in that of younger people. → Similar to option A. Nothing connects the stimulus to the siblings. It's a standalone fact that doesn't impact the argument in any way.
(D) Few people can correctly identify the true sources of their emotional well-being or of their emotional difficulties. → This places a question on whether the respondents were actually emotionally stressed. Not a central part of the argument.
(E) Siblings are more likely to have major arguments and deep differences of opinion at college age than at any other time of their lives. → One can have arguments yet share a strong emotional bond, this doesn't necessarily show that there was a lack of emotional bond.
Answer is (B)

The air quality board recently informed Coffee Roast, a small coffee roasting firm, of a complaint regarding the smoke from its roaster. Recently enacted air quality regulations require machine roasting more than 10 pounds of coffee to be equipped with expensive smoke-dissipating afterburners. The firm, however, roasts only 8 pounds of coffee at a time. Nevertheless, the company has decided to purchase and install an afterburner.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the firm’s decision?
  • a)
    Until setting on the new air quality regulations, the board had debated whether to require afterburners for machines roasting more than 5 pounds of coffee at a time.
  • b)
    Coffee roasted in a machine equipped with an afterburner has its flavor subtly altered.
  • c)
    The cost to the firm of an afterburner is less than the cost of replacing its roaster with a smaller one.
  • d)
    Fewer complaints are reported in areas that maintain strict rules regarding afterburners.
  • e)
    The firm has reason to fear that negative publicity regarding the complaints could result in lost sales.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) Until setting on the new air quality regulations, the board had debated whether to require afterburners for machines roasting more than 5 pounds of coffee at a time.
This choice does not state if the board has passed a new regulation, only that they've debated it. A debate would not influence Coffee Roast's decision, therefore this is out of scope.
(B) Coffee roasted in a machine equipped with an afterburner has its flavor subtly altered.
Coffee Roast is not installing an afterburner because of flavor; they are doing so because of a notice from the air quality board. Out of scope.
(C) The cost to the firm of an afterburner is less than the cost of replacing its roaster with a smaller one.
Coffee Roast is not installing an afterburner because of costs; they are doing so because of a notice from the air quality board. Out of scope.
(D) Fewer complaints are reported in areas that maintain strict rules regarding afterburners.
This is a good trick answer, but be careful: while Coffee Roast is trying to avoid a complaint, this answer is about complaints in general.
(E) The firm has reason to fear that negative publicity regarding the complaints could result in lost sales.
There we go. This is the missing link. Why would the company purchase an afterburner if they're (technically) within the regulations? It's because they could lose business due to these complaints. - Correct

Elizabeth is inviting people to her son’s first birthday party. Within her friend group, there is an unspoken understanding that you should invite everyone and expect certain people to RSVP but then not attend and vice versa. This is particularly true for some of the dads. Elizabeth wants to be inclusive but has recently had problems with some of the other moms in her group, particularly two moms who got in a fight at the last party. Elizabeth doesn’t want to invite them. After talking it over with her husband, she eventually decides to invite them.

What, if true, best explains Elizabeth’s decision?
  • a)
    The problem moms generally don’t RSVP to parties.
  • b)
    The problem moms generally attend parties.
  • c)
    There will be a lot of people in attendance and she isn’t worried about a fight.
  • d)
    She already knows that one of the problem moms cannot come.
  • e)
    There are no problem dads.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
A. The problem moms generally don’t RSVP to parties.
A is incorrect because the passage clearly indicates that many parents do not RSVP but then do show up to parties. This leaves the door open for both women to attend, and potentially cause another fight.
B. The problem moms generally attend parties.
B is incorrect because, if this were true, this information would not support her decision to invite the moms. This means they’d both likely be there and, you guessed it, get into a fight again.
C. There will be a lot of people in attendance and she isn’t worried about a fight.
C is incorrect because, while this might be true, this does not smooth over the previous concerns she had about the problem moms. We also don’t know if a lot of people attended the last party, when the first fight happened, or if there were just a few people present.
D. She already knows that one of the problem moms cannot come.
D is correct because, if this were true, Elizabeth would likely be less worried about an altercation between the two problem moms as one of them would not be in attendance. If both women won’t be there...they can’t fight!
E. There are no problem dads.
E is incorrect because, even if true, the passage is mostly about moms. Elizabeth doesn’t have any issues with the dads, from what we can tell.

Today, children whose parents are deemed incapable of caring for them are put into foster care. These children are moved into strangers' homes, where they are cared for until their own parents can regain custody, which may not happen for years, if it happens at all. Although it means well, the current foster care program is so poorly funded, staffed, and managed that it cannot ensure the safety and well being of the children in the system. The laudable idea behind foster care is that children will fare best if placed in a family setting until they can be reunited with their parents, even if it is a family of strangers. However while in foster care, children typically get shuffled between many different foster homes, preventing them from developing long-term, supportive relationships with their foster families.
Foster care placements can also force siblings to be separated, further isolating these vulnerable children. When a child is moved to a new foster home, he or she may also have to enroll in a new school, a disruptive process that has a negative impact on the child's education. The bureaucracy that oversees this system is overwhelmed to the point that social workers are unable to adequately screen potential foster parents and keep accurate track of the children placed in foster care. There must be a better means of caring for these children. Perhaps it is time to consider creating special group homes as a means of providing these children with stable and safe environments.
A child could live in one group home for the duration of his or her time in foster care and be supervised by a team of social workers and other lay people. Children would receive proper meals and healthcare, attend the same school, and develop relationships with others experiencing the trauma of being separated from their parents. In addition, social workers and staff would have daily access to these children, enabling them to better determine if a child has a special physical or psychological need and arrange for the necessary services. Would this approach be perfect? No, but it would solve many of the problems that plague the current system. For some, the idea of a government agency housing, clothing, and feeding needy children may sound extreme, but it only suggests that we provide these children with the same basic necessities that we give to prison inmates.
It can be inferred from the passage that the author
  • a)
    was once in prison.
  • b)
    believes foster care parents are often too lenient.
  • c)
    was a foster child.
  • d)
    believes prison inmates are treated better than some children in foster care.
  • e)
    believes group homes are essentially prisons for children.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
The final sentence suggests that prison inmates—who are provided with food, shelter, and clothing—are sometimes better cared for than children in foster care, who may not get the attention and care they need for their physical and emotional well being.
Nothing states that the author was in prison (choice a) or was a foster child (choice c).
The author also does not suggest that foster parents are often too lenient (choice b). Because the author is advocating the creation of group homes to provide better care than the current foster care system, (choice e) is also incorrect.
Answer: D

The Hyksos invaded the Nile Delta of Egypt and ruled it from 1650 to 1550 B.C. Their origin is uncertain, but archaeologists hypothesize that they were Canaanites. In support of this hypothesis, the archaeologists point out that excavations of Avaris, the Hyksos capital in Egypt, have uncovered large numbers of artifacts virtually identical to artifacts produced in Ashkelon, a major city of Canaan at the time of the Hyksos’ invasion.
In order to evaluate the force of the archaeologists' evidence, it would be most useful to determine which of the following?
  • a)
    Whether artifacts from Ashkelon were widely traded to non-Canaanite cities
  • b)
    Whether significant numbers of artifacts that do not resemble artifacts produced in Ashkelon have been found at Avaris
  • c)
    Whether Avaris was the nearest Hyksos city in Egypt to Canaan
  • d)
    Whether Ashkelon after 1550 B.C. continued to produce artifacts similar to those found at Avaris
  • e)
    Whether any artifacts produced by the Hyksos after 1550 B.C. have been found in Egypt
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) Whether artifacts from Ashkelon were widely traded to non-Canaanite cities - Correct
if no artifacts were traded to non-Canaanite cities than can say Hyksos were Canaan, otherwise not
(B) Whether significant numbers of artifacts that do not resemble artifacts produced in Ashkelon have been found at Avaris - Incorrect 
(C) Whether Avaris was the nearest Hyksos city in Egypt to Canaan - Incorrect
that doesnt a fact, artifact could be traded with anyother cities
(D) Whether Ashkelon after 1550 B.C. continued to produce artifacts similar to those found at Avaris - Incorrect
(E) Whether any artifacts produced by the Hyksos after 1550 B.C. have been found in Egypt - Incorrect
arguments timeline between 1650 to 1550 be, later period is irrelevant

The financial markets in London underwent significant development during the late 17th and early 18th centuries. The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694, amidst the Nine Years' War, marked the creation of a national debt system and introduced Bills of Exchange, which became the foundation of modern banking. London's financial landscape was further invigorated by overseas investments, particularly from Amsterdam and France, and by the Treaty of Utrecht (1713), which granted Britain the right to supply slaves to Spanish America. This influx of capital, combined with other financial innovations like joint-stock companies, lotteries, and insurance firms, fueled London’s rise as a global financial center.
Among these ventures was the South Sea Company, founded in 1711 with the purpose of managing part of Britain’s national debt and exploiting lucrative trade opportunities in Spanish South America. The Company quickly became the subject of intense speculation, with its stock prices soaring in 1720. Investors from all classes, including royalty, were swept into a speculative frenzy. John Blunt, one of the company’s leaders, was even knighted for his role in elevating public credit.
However, the South Sea Company’s promises of vast profits proved hollow. The stock price, artificially inflated through loans and speculative trading, eventually collapsed. By late 1720, shares had plummeted, leaving many investors, including brilliant physicists such as Isaac Newton, in financial ruin. The fallout led to a parliamentary inquiry that uncovered widespread corruption, including insider trading and political bribery. Key figures, such as the Chancellor of the Exchequer, faced impeachment and punishment.
Despite the catastrophic impact on investors, the broader economic system endured. The South Sea Company itself continued to operate until 1853, serving as a sobering reminder of the dangers inherent in speculative financial bubbles. The event also sparked public debate about the need for stricter regulation and transparency in financial markets.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that the broader economic system endured in the long-term despite the collapse of the South Sea Company?
  • a)
    The British government continued to issue Bills of Exchange and develop new financial products even after the collapse of the South Sea Company.
  • b)
    Most of the investors who suffered losses in the South Sea Company were able to recover their fortunes through investments in other joint-stock companies.
  • c)
    The South Sea Company was able to avoid bankruptcy and continued its trading ventures well into the 19th century.
  • d)
    The collapse of the South Sea Company led to stricter financial regulations, which resulted in a more resilient financial market over time.
  • e)
    International investors continued to view London as a stable financial center, but foreign capital inflows never recovered.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A): Incorrect- While this option suggests that financial practices continued after the collapse, it focuses on short-term endurance rather than long-term resilience. The development of new financial products does not necessarily indicate that the system became stronger over time.
(B): Incorrect- The recovery of individual investors doesn’t directly address the broader economic system’s endurance in the long term. This option focuses on personal financial recovery, which is separate from the system’s overall resilience.
(C): Incorrect- The survival of the South Sea Company itself does not directly relate to the broader economic system’s endurance. The focus of the argument is on the financial market as a whole, not the survival of a single company.
(D): Correct- The introduction of stricter financial regulations that made the market more resilient over time directly supports the idea that the broader economic system endured in the long term. This shows that the collapse led to reforms that strengthened the overall system, ensuring its survival and future stability.
(E): Incorrect- The mention that foreign capital inflows never recovered contradicts the argument that the broader economic system endured in the long term. This option weakens, rather than strengthens, the argument.

Today, children whose parents are deemed incapable of caring for them are put into foster care. These children are moved into strangers' homes, where they are cared for until their own parents can regain custody, which may not happen for years, if it happens at all. Although it means well, the current foster care program is so poorly funded, staffed, and managed that it cannot ensure the safety and well being of the children in the system. The laudable idea behind foster care is that children will fare best if placed in a family setting until they can be reunited with their parents, even if it is a family of strangers. However while in foster care, children typically get shuffled between many different foster homes, preventing them from developing long-term, supportive relationships with their foster families.
Foster care placements can also force siblings to be separated, further isolating these vulnerable children. When a child is moved to a new foster home, he or she may also have to enroll in a new school, a disruptive process that has a negative impact on the child's education. The bureaucracy that oversees this system is overwhelmed to the point that social workers are unable to adequately screen potential foster parents and keep accurate track of the children placed in foster care. There must be a better means of caring for these children. Perhaps it is time to consider creating special group homes as a means of providing these children with stable and safe environments.
A child could live in one group home for the duration of his or her time in foster care and be supervised by a team of social workers and other lay people. Children would receive proper meals and healthcare, attend the same school, and develop relationships with others experiencing the trauma of being separated from their parents. In addition, social workers and staff would have daily access to these children, enabling them to better determine if a child has a special physical or psychological need and arrange for the necessary services. Would this approach be perfect? No, but it would solve many of the problems that plague the current system. For some, the idea of a government agency housing, clothing, and feeding needy children may sound extreme, but it only suggests that we provide these children with the same basic necessities that we give to prison inmates.
The passage states that
  • a)
    children in group homes would get a better education than children in foster care.
  • b)
    children in group homes would have more individual attention than children in foster care.
  • c)
    children in group homes would find comfort in being with other children who have been taken from their parents.
  • d)
    group homes are more cost effective than foster care.
  • e)
    a group home system is less likely to be bogged down by bureaucracy.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Listed among the benefits of a group home is the fact that children would “develop relationships with others experiencing the trauma of being separated from their parents.” This suggests that children would find comfort in being with others in similar circumstances. This inference is especially logical given the passage’s emphasis in the second paragraph on how foster care isolates children who have been taken from their parents.
The passage does not mention the quality of education that would be provided to children in group homes, so choice a is incorrect.
Choice b is incorrect because the author does not state how much attention children would get in the group home and because there is no standard for how much attention children get in foster care (some likely get inordinate amounts of attention, whereas others are neglected).
The cost of either childcare option is not discussed, so choice d is incorrect.
Finally, because the passage does not discuss the management of the group home system, and because it is logical to conclude that a government-run group home system would also be heavily bureaucratic in nature, choice e is also incorrect.
Answer: C

There are three necessary prerequisites for effective self-regulation in any market: 1) there must be an association, 2) it must be motivated to regulate its members' behavior, 3) it must maintain sufficient powers of control for this purpose. In respect to stock exchanges, the first condition is undoubtedly satisfied, exchanges being, by definition, associations of member-brokers. As to the third condition, stock exchanges, through their decision-making bodies, have wide powers to discipline members and to make rules protecting investors. Whether the second condition would be satisfied in the absence of existing government regulation is, however, debatable.
In principle, stock exchanges have ample motivation to regulate their members. A failure to curb abuses by member-brokers would deter investors, reducing the volume of trading on an exchange, hence lowering all members' profits. However, brokers are a diverse group of rivals and, as such, will regulate themselves effectively only within a system of checks and balances that fairly harmonizes their conflicting interests. Given sufficient diversity in its makeup and sufficient emphasis on consensual decision-making, the governing body of a stock exchange could provide an adequate check on dishonest practice by powerful individual members of the exchange, or groups of members. There is, however, no evidence to confirm that such a pluralistic model accurately describes stock exchange governance in the real­ world.
The passage suggests that self-regulation would fail if which of the following were to occur in a stock exchange?
  • a)
    The volume of trading by investors decreased dramatically in a short period of time.
  • b)
    A particular small group of members within the governing body came to dominate that governing body.
  • c)
    Some member-brokers outside the governing body banded together to defend their common interests.
  • d)
    Investors' perceptions of the fairness of the market were based primarily on whether or not they had made a profit in that market.
  • e)
    Members were allowed to question the wisdom of decisions made by their governing.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
Aligns with the passage's emphasis on diversity and checks and balances within the governing body. If a small group dominates, it could disrupt the balance and potentially lead to a failure of self-regulation. This is a plausible reason for self-regulation to fail.

A study comparing infant care revealed that the amount of stimulation babies receive affects their sleep. At six months of age, the babies in the study with a less stimulating daytime routine slept an average of two hours more per day than those with a more stimulation routine. Since sleep plays a very important role in a child's development, parents would be wise to reduce the amount of stimulation their babies receive.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
  • a)
    Babies' muscular coordination is unaffected by the amount of stimulation they receive.
  • b)
    Babies with less stimulating routines usually get extra sleep during the day.
  • c)
    Studies showed no correlation between stimulation and amount of sleep for children three years of age or older.
  • d)
    The babies who had a less stimulating routine gained weight at an average rate.
  • e)
    The stimulation that babies receive helps them to develop intellectually.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) This option can be vague as it does not look towards one angle, and it does not weaken our argument, and is against our pre thinking. So, drop this!
(B) This does not support our pre thinking. It thinks opposite of that, so chalk out this one without any guilt! 
(C) Out of scope. We are not talking about the statistics of babies' age.
(D) If the babies gained weight, it was with a less stimulating routine which undermines our pre thinking. Drop this as well!
(E) Looks good, as the stimulation helps the baby to grow intellectually, its exactly what our pre thinking needs, i.e. Helping the baby in its development. Growing intellectually is definitely helping the baby in its development.
Answer:- Option E

Given his luminous treatment of light, sky, and water, J.M.W. Turner (1775-1851) is often viewed in hindsight as a precursor of Impressionism. Yet as Turner authority Andrew Wilton has argued, his roots lie in a specifically eighteenth century tradition, that of the "sublime." Before landscape painting was accepted in England as the rendition of everyday reality, it was seen as the expression of a state of spiritual exaltation.
The roots of the notion of the sublime, Wilton notes, go back to antiquity: Longinus observed (according to an eighteenth century paraphrase) that "the effect of the sublime is to lift up the soul...so that participating, as it were, of the splendors of the divinity, it becomes filled with joy and exultation." The sublime, therefore, was understood to produce an effect of elevation toward unity with divine. In its origins, the sublime was associated with literary rather than visual art, as its connotations of power and mystery could most easily be conveyed in words; and its subject matter was epic, historical, or religious. To eighteenth century commentators, Homer, the Bible, and Milton were quintessentially sublime. When the concept was applied to painting, this narrative emphasis was maintained, leading almost by necessity to a focus on the human figure; for Joshua Reynolds, Michelangelo's Sistine Chapel frescoes exemplified the sublime in art. Because it did not show figures (except incidentally) landscape was necessarily seen as inferior.
The transition to the conception that produced Turner's landscapes had several sources. One was the eighteenth century's quasi-religious excitement in the scientific investigation of nature, shown for example when Addison exclaimed upon the astronomer's "pleasing astonishment, to see so many worlds, hanging one above another, and sliding round their axles in such an amazing pomp and solemnity." A second was the rise of a middle class with the leisure to travel, which led to an interest in the Rigged vistas of Wales and Scotland. Finally, James Thomson's immensely popular nature epic "The Seasons" (1726-30) applied blank verse, with its connotations of loftiness, to portrayal of nature's immensities. By the latter part of the century, there was a well-defined notion of the sublime in literature and painting, which included nature while by no means excluding earlier referents. According to Edmund Burke's definitive essay of 1757, the sublime in nature was closely tied up with vastness, lack of habitation and cultivation, and danger— which, as in the reaction to high mountain passes or storms at sea, was conducive to awe. These qualities, as evoked in the painting of landscapes (and urban vistas, an important though subordinate field), produced a series of genres that, Wilton stresses, form the key to Turner's work: the "picturesque sublime," the "terrific" (wild crags, cataracts, etc.), the sublime of the sea, mountains, and darkness, and finally the "architectural sublime" and the urban sublime.
According to the author, Burke contributed to the development of the concept of the sublime by
  • a)
    classifying the genres of the sublime in art
  • b)
    broadening the conception of the sublime to include nature
  • c)
    giving a more clear cut definition of the sublime than earlier writers
  • d)
    defining some of the qualities in nature that could be considered sublime
  • e)
    rejecting Longinus's identification of the sublime with religious experience
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) classifying the genres of the sublime in art
(B) broadening the conception of the sublime to include nature
(C) giving a more clear cut definition of the sublime than earlier writers
(D) defining some of the qualities in nature that could be considered sublime "According to Edmund Burke's definitive essay of 1757, the sublime in nature was closely tied up with vastness, lack of habitation and cultivation, and danger— which, as in the reaction to high mountain passes or storms at sea, was conducive to awe. These qualities, as evoked in the painting of landscapes"⇒ CORRECT
(E) rejecting Longinus's identification of the sublime with religious experience

The financial markets in London underwent significant development during the late 17th and early 18th centuries. The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694, amidst the Nine Years' War, marked the creation of a national debt system and introduced Bills of Exchange, which became the foundation of modern banking. London's financial landscape was further invigorated by overseas investments, particularly from Amsterdam and France, and by the Treaty of Utrecht (1713), which granted Britain the right to supply slaves to Spanish America. This influx of capital, combined with other financial innovations like joint-stock companies, lotteries, and insurance firms, fueled London’s rise as a global financial center.
Among these ventures was the South Sea Company, founded in 1711 with the purpose of managing part of Britain’s national debt and exploiting lucrative trade opportunities in Spanish South America. The Company quickly became the subject of intense speculation, with its stock prices soaring in 1720. Investors from all classes, including royalty, were swept into a speculative frenzy. John Blunt, one of the company’s leaders, was even knighted for his role in elevating public credit.
However, the South Sea Company’s promises of vast profits proved hollow. The stock price, artificially inflated through loans and speculative trading, eventually collapsed. By late 1720, shares had plummeted, leaving many investors, including brilliant physicists such as Isaac Newton, in financial ruin. The fallout led to a parliamentary inquiry that uncovered widespread corruption, including insider trading and political bribery. Key figures, such as the Chancellor of the Exchequer, faced impeachment and punishment.
Despite the catastrophic impact on investors, the broader economic system endured. The South Sea Company itself continued to operate until 1853, serving as a sobering reminder of the dangers inherent in speculative financial bubbles. The event also sparked public debate about the need for stricter regulation and transparency in financial markets.
According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a contributing factor to London’s rise as a global financial center during the late 17th and early 18th centuries?
  • a)
    Overseas investments from Amsterdam and France
  • b)
    The creation of Bills of Exchange
  • c)
    The Treaty of Utrecht, which granted Britain the right to supply slaves to Spanish America
  • d)
    Financial support from the South Sea Company’s trading ventures
  • e)
    The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A): Incorrect- The passage explicitly mentions overseas investments from Amsterdam and France as key factors contributing to London’s financial growth.
(B): Incorrect- The creation of Bills of Exchange is highlighted as part of the foundational innovations that supported modern banking in London.
(C): Incorrect- The Treaty of Utrecht, which allowed Britain to supply slaves to Spanish America, is mentioned as a significant factor that contributed to an influx of capital, boosting London's financial position.
(D): Correct- While the South Sea Company is mentioned, its trading ventures are not described as a major factor in London's rise as a financial center. Instead, the company became infamous for speculative trading and financial collapse, not for contributing to London's financial growth.
(E): Incorrect- The establishment of the Bank of England in 1694 is clearly identified as a crucial step in London’s development as a global financial hub.

Employees who understand how their roles fit into the "big picture" of a business or organization are more motivated to do their jobs well. Corporate leaders wishing to improve workers morale should thus consider the "participatory" style of management, in which workers are given an individual piece of a project to carry out, replete with its own explicit goals and responsibilities.
Which of the following illuminates an assumption underlying the statements above?
  • a)
    Workers with responsibilities are more motivated than those without.
  • b)
    Few employees are inclined to participate in any phase of a project without being granted express rights and responsibilities.
  • c)
    Managers using less interactive leadership methods are not as effective as those who do use such methods.
  • d)
    Having responsibility for a segment of an enterprise helps employees grasp where they fit within an organizational structure.
  • e)
    Corporate managers should involve subordinates in all levels of decision making.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) Workers with responsibilities are more motivated than those without. - Incorrect. Out of scope. Argument does not provide any info to compare between workers with responsibilities and workers without responsibilities.
(B) Few employees are inclined to participate in any phase of a project without being granted express rights and responsibilities. - Incorrect. If only few employees support the initiative then it weakens the argument.
(C) Managers using less interactive leadership methods are not as effective as those who do use such methods. - Incorrect. Out of context. No info is given about managers or interactive leadership methods.
(D) Having responsibility for a segment of an enterprise helps employees grasp where they fit within an organizational structure. - Correct.
(E) Corporate managers should involve subordinates in all levels of decision making. - Incorrect. Out of context. This option speaks about decision making whereas argument is concerned about improving workers morale.
Answer: D

In an effort to boost milk production, some dairy farmers are treating cows with a genetically engineered hormone called BST. Consumer groups have opposed the use of BST even though the milk of BST-treated cows is identical in nutritional value to that of untreated cows; the treated cows run a greater risk of infection and hence are more likely to be given antibiotics, which may show up in their milk. In high levels, these antibiotics may be harmful to humans. Yet the milk of treated and untreated cows alike is regularly screened for antibiotics.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above?
  • a)
    Consumer groups have no legitimate reasons for opposing the use of BST.
  • b)
    Milk from BST treated cows is as safe for human consumption as that from untreated cows.
  • c)
    There is no advantage to the use of BST on dairy cows.
  • d)
    Milk from BST-treated cows can be presumed safe for humans only if it is successfully screened for high levels of antibiotics.
  • e)
    The only threat posed by drinking milk from cows treated with PST is high levels of antibiotics.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(A) Consumer groups have no legitimate reasons for opposing the use of BST.
Consumer groups could be protesting the side-effects of BST administration on the cows. Not particularly good to keep pumping them full of antibiotics. - Out.
(B) Milk from BST treated cows is as safe for human consumption as that from untreated cows.
→ Nowhere does the passage mention this, and without some idea of consumers' threshold for the tolerance of antibiotic percentage in milk, there's no way we can be sure of this. - Out.
(C) There is no advantage to the use of BST on dairy cows.
→ Milk production is boosted by the use of BST. Additionally, if the antibiotic screening test comes out fine for the BST treated cow's milk, sales are boosted as well, and consumers may very well pay lesser for milk. C is wrong. - Out.
(D) Milk from BST-treated cows can be presumed safe for humans only if it is successfully screened for high levels of antibiotics.
Pretty much what we've been looking for. The one caveat that will green-light the BST treatment process. Passage says that the milk may contain a high concentration of antibiotics that MAY prove harmful to humans. D tells us that using a different test, one that tests for higher concentrations of antibiotics, will help us determine whether BST milk is good to go or not. The passage strongly supports this line of reasoning. - D it is
(E) The only threat posed by drinking milk from cows treated with PST is high levels of antibiotics.
→ Infected cows could pass on the infection causing bacteria that the antibiotics might not have killed, some stronger strains of bacteria that have adapted to the antibiotics could very well be present in the milk and could potentially pose a threat. - Out.

Amsden has divided Navajo weaving into four distinct styles. He argues that three of them can be identified by the type of design used to form horizontal bands: colored strips, zigzags, or diamonds. The fourth, or bordered, style he identifies by a distinct border surrounding centrally placed, dominating figures.
Amsden believes that the diamond style appeared after 1869 when, under Anglo influence and encouragement, the blanket became a rug with larger designs and bolder lines. The bordered style appeared about 1890, and, Amsden argues, it reflects the greatest number of Anglo influences on the newly emerging rug business. The Anglo desire that anything with a graphic designs have a top, bottom, and border is a cultural preference that the Navajo abhorred, as evidenced, he suggests, by the fact that in early bordered specimens strips of color unexpectedly break through the enclosing pattern.
Amsden argues that the bordered rug represents a radical break with previous styles. He asserts that the border changed the artistic problem facing weavers: a blank area suggests the use of isolated figures, while traditional, banded Navajo designs were continuous and did not use isolated figures. The old patterns alternated horizontal decorative zones in a regular order.
Amsden’s view raises several questions. First, what is involved in altering artistic styles? Some studies suggest that artisans’ motor habits and thought processes must be revised when a style changes precipitously. In the evolution of Navajo weaving, however, no radical revisions in the way articles are produced need be assumed. After all, all weaving subordinates design to the physical limitations created by the process of weaving, which includes creating an edge or border. The habits required to make decorative borders are, therefore, latent and easily brought to the surface.
Second, is the relationship between the banded and bordered styles as simple as Amsden suggests? He assumes that a break in style is a break in psychology. But if style results from constant quests for invention, such stylistic breaks are inevitable. When a style has exhausted the possibilities inherent in its principles, artists cast about for new, but not necessarily alien, principles. Navajo weaving may have reached this turning point prior to 1890.
Third, is there really a significant stylistic gap? Two other styles lie between the banded styles and the bordered styles. They suggest that disintegration of the bands may have altered visual and motor habits and prepared the way for a border filled with separate units. In the Chief White Antelope blanket, dated prior to 1865, ten years before the first Anglo trading post on the Navajo reservation, whole and partial diamonds interrupt the flowing design and become separate forms. Parts of diamonds arranged vertically at each side may be seen to anticipate the border.
The author’s central thesis is that
  • a)
    the Navajo rejected the stylistic influences of Anglo culture
  • b)
    Navajo weaving cannot be classified by Amsden’s categories
  • c)
    the Navajo changed their style of weaving because they sought the challenge of new artistic problems
  • d)
    original motor habits and thought processes limit the extent to which a style can be revised
  • e)
    the causal factors leading to the emergence of the bordered style are not as clear-cut as Amsden suggests
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev GMAT answered
(E) the casual factors leading to the emergence of the bordered style are not as clear-cut as Amsden suggests
in line with pre-thinking

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