Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 17th November 2024 - UPSC MCQ

- Leucism: Involves a partial or complete reduction of all types of skin and feather pigments, but not specifically melanin. Animals with leucism may have normal eye color.

- Albinism: Specifically involves a lack of melanin pigment, resulting in a pale appearance and characteristic red or pink eyes due to visible blood vessels.

- The primary difference: Albinism impacts only melanin, affecting eye color notably, while leucism can affect all pigments but generally does not alter eye color.

Thus, option A is correct.

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: The carbon credit mechanism primarily functions under voluntary markets where credits are bought and sold without any legal obligations.

- This statement is incorrect. While there are voluntary markets for carbon credits, there are also compliance markets that function under legally binding agreements such as the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement. Compliance markets require companies to adhere to emission limits and are not purely voluntary.

Statement 2: Verification and accountability issues often arise because it is challenging to confirm that carbon credits genuinely represent real and measurable reductions in emissions.

- This statement is correct. The study published in the journal Nature highlighted that many carbon credits do not correlate with actual emission reductions, pointing out significant verification and accountability challenges.

Statement 3: The Paris Agreement includes provisions for a new international carbon market to improve upon the deficiencies found in Kyoto Protocol mechanisms.

- This statement is correct. The Paris Agreement aims to implement new mechanisms for carbon trading, addressing the shortcomings of the Kyoto Protocol mechanisms with stricter frameworks to ensure effective emission reduction.

Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

The primary goal of the General Provident Fund (GPF) scheme in India is to encourage government employees to save a portion of their salary for their retirement. It ensures a reliable source of income for government employees after they retire, thereby promoting financial security in their post-employment years. By contributing a specified percentage of their salary to the GPF, employees build up savings that are paid out to them upon retirement, providing a financial cushion for their future.

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The General Provident Fund (GPF) is not available to private sector employees. It is exclusively available to government employees in India. Therefore, this statement is false.

- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Contributions to the General Provident Fund are indeed made solely by the employee. Unlike the Employees Provident Fund (EPF), the employer does not contribute to the GPF. This statement is true.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The GPF scheme allows government employees to withdraw their accumulated savings for various purposes such as marriage, education, or medical emergencies. Thus, this statement is true.

The correct answer is Option D, as only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

1. GPF Scheme Initiation Year - 1960: This is correctly matched. The General Provident Fund (GPF) was indeed initiated in 1960, exclusively for government employees in India to provide a reliable source of income post-retirement.
2. Interest Rates Revision Authority - Ministry of Finance: This is incorrectly matched. The interest rates for the GPF are revised based on notifications issued by the government, but the scheme is managed by the Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, not directly by the Ministry of Finance.
3. Eligibility - Only permanent government employees: This is incorrectly matched. While permanent government employees are eligible, the eligibility also extends to all temporary government staff who have served continuously for at least one year and re-employed pensioners (except those eligible for the contributory provident fund).
4. Employer Contribution - None: This is correctly matched. In the GPF scheme, only the employees make contributions to the fund; there is no contribution from the employer.
Thus, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making a total of two correctly matched pairs.

1. Statement 1 is correct. As of December 31, 2022, undertrial prisoners (UTPs) indeed make up 75.7% of the total inmate population in Indian prisons. This high percentage significantly contributes to the issue of overcrowding in the prison system.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While there has been a report from the Supreme Court’s Centre for Research and Planning suggesting the implementation of electronic tracking devices, the Supreme Court itself has not formally recommended this measure. The report offers this as a potential solution but does not constitute an official recommendation from the Supreme Court.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act, 2023, incorporates electronic tracking devices as a prerequisite for granting prison leave, but it does not mandate their use for all prisoners released on parole. The application is not universal and is subject to specific conditions and evaluations.

Therefore, only the first statement is correct, making Option A the right answer.

Statement-I correctly mentions the establishment of the Press Council of India in 1966 based on the recommendations of the First Press Commission. Statement-II accurately states that the Press Council of India operates under the Press Council Act of 1978, which provides the legal framework for its functioning. The Act defines the powers, composition, and functions of the Press Council, making Statement-II an explanation of the establishment mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the context provided in Statement-I.

The recent Riyadh summit involving Arab and Islamic leaders focused on condemning Israel's military actions in Gaza and Lebanon, describing them as "shocking crimes" including terms like "genocide" and "ethnic cleansing." The leaders collectively called for an immediate cessation of Israel's military actions and emphasized the urgent need to protect Palestinian lives, respect international law, and pursue a peaceful resolution to the conflict. The summit also advocated for measures to end Israeli occupation and the establishment of a sovereign Palestinian state based on pre-1967 borders, with East Jerusalem as its capital.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Riyadh Summit emphasized the need for establishing a sovereign Palestinian state based on pre-1967 borders with East Jerusalem as its capital, aligning with both the two-state solution and the 2002 Arab Peace Initiative.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The leaders at the summit called for an independent international investigation into Israel's military actions in Gaza, describing them as "shocking crimes."

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Riyadh Summit did not result in a formal agreement between Saudi Arabia and Israel to normalize relations. While the summit focused on addressing the Palestine issue, no formal agreement for normalization was reached. In fact, Saudi Arabia's stance on normalization hinges on resolving the Palestine situation, and the summit saw a decline in Saudi-Israel relations due to criticism of Israel's actions.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct answer.

Statement-I is accurate as it reflects the outcome of the summit where Arab and Islamic leaders condemned Israel's actions in Gaza using strong terms like "genocide" and "ethnic cleansing." Statement-II is also correct as it highlights the summit's advocacy for a sovereign Palestinian state based on pre-1967 borders, including East Jerusalem as its capital. Statement-II explains the context and the implications of the condemnation expressed in Statement-I, making both statements correct and logically connected.