Daily Current Affairs MCQ- April 15, 2023 - UPSC MCQ

A two-member delegation from International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) recently visited Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) to deliberate on emerging research areas for rice cultivation in Punjab and other parts of the world.

About International Rice Research Institute (IRRI):

• IRRI is an independent, nonprofit, research and educational institute, founded in 1960 by the Ford and Rockefeller foundations with support from the Philippine government.
• It is the world’s premier research organization dedicated to reducing poverty, hunger, and malnutrition through rice science.
• It aims to improve the health and welfare of those who depend on rice-based agri-food systems, and promote and protect the environmental sustainability of rice farming for future generations.
• Headquarters: Los Baños, Philippines.
• It has offices in 17 rice-growing countries in Asia and Africa, and more than 1,000 staff. 
• IRRI’s work is supported by a diverse network of investors aligned to common goals.
• IRRI's research for development is characterized by its collaborative nature: from alliances with advanced research institutes; through strong collaborations and capacity development with governments and national agricultural research and extension systems.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently adjourned the hearing on the Belagavi border dispute case.

About Belagavi border dispute:

• It is an interstate dispute between Karnataka and Maharashtra over the control of Belagavi, a border town in Karnataka.
• History:
• It has its roots in the State Reorganization Act of 1956, which aimed at reorganizing the states along linguistic lines.
• At the time of India’s independence, Belagavi was part of the Bombay state that had included parts of present-day Karnataka.
• After the implementation of the Act, Belagavi (previously Belgaum) became a part of Karnataka.
• On May 1, 1960, Maharashtra claimed that 865 villages, including Belagavi, Carvar and Nipani, should be part of Maharashtra and not Karnataka.
• However, Karnataka said it will not part with any part of its territory.
• Mahajan Commission:
• It was set up by the Union government on October 25, 1966, to solve the dispute.
• The panel turned down Maharashtra’s claim over Belagavi and also recommended that 247 villages/places, including Jatt, Akkalkote and Solapur, be made part of Karnataka, and 264 villages /places, including Nippani, Khanapur and Nandagad, to be in Maharashtra.
• However, the commission’s report was outrightly rejected by Maharashtra. Meanwhile, Karnataka saw the commission ruling in its favour.
• Present Status:
• The Maharashtra government filed a plea in the Supreme Court challenging the State Reorganisation Act, 1956, in 2004. It demanded 865 villages and places from five Karnataka districts to be merged with the state.
• Meanwhile, Karnataka changed the name of Belgaum to Belagavi and made it the second capital of the state.
• The issue has been pending before the Supreme Court since 2004.
• Karnataka contends that only Parliament can decide the state borders and not the Supreme Court. It cites Article 3 of the Indian Constitution while doing so.
• On the other hand, Maharashtra cites Article 131 and claims the apex court has jurisdiction in cases of disputes in which the Union government and the states are involved.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced the framework for the acceptance of green deposits of regulated entities (RE).

About Framework for acceptance of Green Deposits of Regulated Entities (RE):

• Purpose: It is intended to encourage regulated entities (usually banks and non-banking financial institutions) to offer green deposits to customers, protect the interest of the depositors, aid customers in achieving their sustainability agenda, address greenwashing concerns and help augment the flow of credit to green activities/projects.
• It will apply to all scheduled commercial banks, including small finance banks and deposit-taking non-banking finance companies such as housing finance firms.
• The framework shall come into effect from June 1, 2023.
• Key features of the framework:
• The entities will issue green deposits as cumulative or non-cumulative deposits.
• On maturity, they can be renewed or withdrawn.
• The green deposits shall be denominated in Indian rupees only.
• All conditions applicable to other public deposits will also be applicable to green deposits.
• The allocation of funds raised from green deposits will be based on the official Indian green taxonomy, which is yet to be finalised.
• However, as an interim measure, REs shall be required to allocate the proceeds raised through green deposits in the categories such as Renewable energy, Energy efficiency, Clean Transportation, Sustainable water and waste management etc.
• Nuclear power generation, direct waste incineration, landfill projects and hydropower plants larger than 25 MW are among the uses that are prohibited using funds raised via green deposits.
• The allocation of funds raised through green deposits by REs during a financial year shall be subject to an independent Third-Party Verification/Assurance, which shall be done on an annual basis.
• The REs, with the assistance of external firms, will also annually assess the impact associated with the funds.

What is a Green Deposit?

• It is an interest-bearing deposit received by regulated entities for a fixed period.
• The proceeds are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently dismissed petitions which sought directions to complete the recruitment processes initiated by the Indian Army and Air Force, which were discontinued after the 'Agnipath' scheme was announced.

Why in News?

• While dismissing the petitions, the Supreme Court bench also rejected the argument that the 'doctrine of promissory estoppel' would apply and said that the decision to not proceed with the previous recruitment processes could not be termed as arbitrary.
• It observed that promissory estoppel will not apply when a larger public interest is involved. 

About 'doctrine of promissory estoppel':

• What is it? It is a doctrine in contract law which enforces a promise whether executed as a contract or not. 
• The doctrine seeks to protect the rights of a promisee or aggrieved party against the promisor.
• When is the doctrine applied?
• A valid contract under law requires an agreement to be made with sufficient consideration. 
• The doctrine applies when the promisor has made a promise to the promisee.
• The promisee must have relied on the promise and suffered a loss due to the non-performance of the contract. 
• The doctrine prevents the promisor or enterprise from going back on its word or promise.
• The doctrine enables the injured party or the promisee to recover on a promise.
• Thus, this doctrine seeks to enforce a promise made under a contract, whether oral or in writing.
• The doctrine varies from country to country.
• In a 1981 decision in Chhaganlal Keshavalal Mehta v. Patel Narandas Haribhai, the SC lists a checklist for when the doctrine can be applied.
• First, there must be a clear and unambiguous promise.
• Second, the plaintiff must have acted relying reasonably on that promise.
• Third, the plaintiff must have suffered a loss.

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, the supreme court said that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy with great potential to be abused and must be used only in the rarest of rare cases.

• Detention in its simplest sense means to curb the liberty of an individual i.e. without the knowledge of that individual.
• There are 2 types of Detention Preventive Detention and Punitive Detention.
• Article 22: This article under the Indian Constitution protects against arrest and detention in certain cases.
• Article 22 (1) of the Indian Constitution says an arrested person cannot be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.
• It allows for preventive detention and restriction on personal liberty for reasons of state security and public order.
• Article 22 (4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless
• An Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
• Such a person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by the Parliament.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from three to two months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months continues
• Under Entry 3 of List III(‘Concurrent List’), both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact such laws for the reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community.
• Under Entry 3 of List III(‘Concurrent List’), both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact such laws for the reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community.

Hence both statements are not correct.

Recently, the central government has tightened the fund flow rulebook on Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) even further and for the first time has also brought in a ‘penal interest’ clause for delays in fund transfers by states.

• These are schemes that are funded partially by both the Central and State Governments.
• It is a channel which the central government uses to help the states run their plans financially.
• The amount of state participation varies from state to state.
• Their implementation rests on the Union territories and the States.
• These schemes are further divided into three categories based on their funding patterns i.e. the core of the core, core and optional.
• The flagship schemes of the central government are called Core of Core schemes or umbrella schemes.
• Examples: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MGNREGA), National Social Assistance Programme etc.
• Core schemes: The funding pattern is usually 60:40. The central government takes up more share in these schemes and the states are expected to pitch in the remaining funds.
• Optional schemes: Normally state governments plan the schemes and request the central government to fund some portion of the total outlay. The general funding pattern of the optional schemes is 50:50 (State: Center).

Hence both statements are correct.

People from the Bishnoi community are protesting against the “widespread” felling of Khejri trees for setting up solar power plants in Rajasthan.

• The Bishnois belong to a Hindu religious sect found in the Western Thar Desert and some northern states of India. 
• They trace their origins to the teachings of Guru Jambhesvara who was born to a Panwar Rajput family in 1451 AD at Peepasar village of Nagore district in Western Rajasthan.
• They strictly forbid the harming of trees and animals.
• They believe in protecting the environment and can die doing it so.
• The person of this community are inspired and gets inspiration from Amrita Devi, a Bishnoi woman who was killed in 1730 while trying to protect a grove of khejri trees.
• They are not a nomadic community.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Around 35.7 lakh vacancies have been reported by employers on the National Career Service portal during the year 2022-23 compared to around 13 lakh vacancies in 2021-22.

• National Career Service is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
• It was launched in the year 2015.
• Objectives: It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.
• It provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, and information on skill development courses, internships and alike.
• The focus areas for the National Career Service platform are listed below:
  • Enhancing Career and employment opportunities
  • Counselling and guidance for career development
  • Focusing on decent employment
  • Enhancing female labour force participation
  • Encouraging entrepreneurial endeavours
• Nodal Agency: The project is being implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Recently, researchers in the UK, led by Nobel laureate Andre Geim have found that graphene displays an anomalous giant magnetoresistance (GMR) at room temperature.

• What is it? It is the result of the electrical resistance of a conductor affected by magnetic fields in adjacent materials.
• It is composed of monolayer of closely packed carbon atoms that form a hexagonal honeycomb lattice.
• It is the building-block of Graphite.
• It is the thinnest, most electrically and thermally conductive material in the world.
• It is also tremendously strong—about 200 times stronger than steel and flexible, as well as transparent.
• It is also known as a wonder material due to its vast potential in the energy and medical world.
• Applications: It is used in hard disk drives and magneto resistive RAM in computers, biosensors, automotive sensors, microelectromechanical systems, and medical imagers etc.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Recently, in a rare instance, the Supreme Court collegium has recommended the appointment of a retired district judge as a judge of the Madhya Pradesh HC, citing legitimate expectation and delay in the selection process.

• Constitutional Provisions: The appointment of ad-hoc judges has been provided in the Constitution under Article 224A (appointment of retired Judges at sittings of High Courts).
• Under this Article, the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State can request a person to act as a judge of the High Court.
• For this, the prior consent of the president is required.
• The person should have held the office of judge of that court or of any other High Court.
• Such a judge is entitled to allowances as determined by the President.
• He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of that high court.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.