Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 12, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

Roughly 19 million years old fossil jaw bone of a baleen whale estimated to be around nine metres in length found recently.

• These are any cetacean possessing unique epidermal modifications of the mouth called baleen, which is used to filter food from water.
• Most mammals have teeth in their mouth. Baleen whales are a strange exception.
• Baleen is a large rack of fine, hair-like keratin used to filter out small krill from the water.
• This structure enabled baleen whales to feed efficiently on enormous shoals of tiny zooplankton in productive parts of the ocean, which facilitated the evolution of larger and larger body sizes.
• There are 14 species of baleen whale including the blue, bowhead, right, humpback, minke and gray whale.
• Baleen whales are generally larger than toothed whales except for the sperm whale which is very big and has teeth.
• Many baleen whales migrate annually, travelling long distances between cold water feeding areas and warm water breeding areas.
• The large whale fossils from Australasia and South America seem to suggest that for most of the evolutionary history of baleen whales, whenever a large baleen whale shows up in the fossil record, it is in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Baleen whales are ecosystem engineers, their huge bodies consuming tremendous amounts of energy.
• Upon death, these whales provide an abundance of nutrients to deep-sea ecosystems.

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, the President of India presented the National Sports and Adventure Awards 2023 at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.

• National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
• Categories of National Sports Award
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: It is considered India’s highest sporting honour, the Khel Ratna was established in 1991-92.
• The award is named after the Indian hockey legend, Major Dhyan Chand
• The award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years and the Khel Ratna winners receive a medallion, certificate and a cash prize.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA): It was instituted in 1956–1957. It is given to an institution or university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Researchers at the University of Liège, Belgium have identified thylakoid microstructures in fossil cells that are 1.75 billion years old. 

• Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants.
• They store chlorophyll, the substance in plant that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis.
• These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms.
• They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria.
• The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life.
• It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Scientists at CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM), Jammu, have found that tetrahydrocannabidiol (THCBD) which is phytocannabinoids, a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant, possess some hitherto unexplored antibiotic properties.

• Cannabinoids are a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
• The prefix ‘phyto’ in phytocannabinoid means it comes from a plant.
• Cannabinoids bind to receptors in the bodies of animals to produce a variety of neurological effects.
• The researchers extracted cannabidiol from a cannabis plant and made it react with hydrogen, using palladium as a catalyst.
• This process yielded a mixture of molecules with the same composition and order of atoms but different structures. One of them was THCBD.

Hence both statements are correct.

NASA has invited people to send their names to the surface of the Moon aboard the agency’s first robotic lunar rover VIPER – short for Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover.

• The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER will get a close-up view of the location and concentration of ice and other resources at the Moon's South Pole.
• It is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
• It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments.
• The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials.
• It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts.
• Mission duration: 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night.
• It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) by the MSME Ministry has achieved the 1 lakh certification milestone, the ministry said recently.

About Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED):

• Launched in October 2016 and revamped in April 2022, the ZED scheme offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing under three certification levels (gold, silver, and bronze) classified according to 20 performance-based parameters such as quality management, timely delivery, process control, waste management, etc.
• The major objectives of the ZED Scheme are:
• To create proper awareness in MSMEs about ZED manufacturing and motivate them for the assessment of their enterprise for a ZED rating.
• To drive manufacturing with the adoption of Zero Defect production processes without impacting the environment (Zero Effect).
• To encourage MSMEs to constantly upgrade their quality standards in products and processes.
• To support the “Make in India” campaign.
• The scheme provides financial assistance of up to 75 percent of the total cost of certification, with a maximum subsidy ceiling of Rs 50,000, along with up to Rs 2 lakh in support for handholding/consultancy to achieve the next certification level. 
• For technology upgradation, the scheme offers assistance of up to Rs 3 lakhs for moving towards zero effect solutions/pollution control measures/cleaner technology. 
• MSMEs are charged Rs 10,000 for bronze certification, Rs 40,000 for silver certification, and Rs 90,000 for gold certification. 
• In December 2023, the MSME Ministry made the ZED scheme free for women-led MSMEs.
• In addition, the government will now make guarantee payment of 100 percent financial support for the certification costs under the scheme.
• The ZED certification is valid for three years, and the MSME units are required to re-apply for the certificate as per the validity of the scheme.
• Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only. 

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently attempted to strike a balance by remarking that the intent of Article 30 of the Constitution was not to ghettoise minorities by insisting they had the upper hand in administration of the institution.

About Article 30:

• It is one of the many provisions that ensure the preservation of minority rights. 
• Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
• It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
• It was adopted on December 8, 1948.
• Features:
• It consists of provisions that safeguard various rights of the minority community in the country, keeping in mind the principle of equality as well.
• Article 30(1) says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• The right is provided by this clause on two types of minorities, namely, religious and linguistic minorities. 
• Article 30(1A) deals with the fixation of the amount for the acquisition of property of any educational institution established by minority groups.
• Article 30(2) states that the government should not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language, while giving aid.
• Concept of Minorities:
• The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it.
• Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about "any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied. 
  • It also says that citizens should be allowed to take admission in any educational institution which is maintained by the State or getting help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
• Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities.
• Religious Minority: The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community. 
• Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are:
• Muslims
• Christians
• Buddhists
• Sikhs
• Jains and
• Zoroastrians (Parsis)
• Linguistic Minorities:
• Class or group of people whose mother language or mother tongue is different from that of the majority groups is known as the linguistic minorities. 
• Article 350-A of the Indian Constitution imposes an obligation on the states to try to provide enough facilities for instruction in the mother language at the primary level of education to children belonging to the linguistic minority community.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently said that over the last hundred years, Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) has continued to be an institute of national importance, without the minority tag, and asked how it matters for the people whether it is a minority institution or not.

About Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):

• It is a government-run education institution situated in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
• History:
• It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875. 
• In the aftermath of the 1857 Indian War of Independence, the College was built on Khan’s conviction that it was important for Muslims to gain education and become involved in public life and government services in India.
• Raja Jai Kishan helped Sir Syed establish the college.  
• Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College became AMU in 1920, following the Aligarh Muslim University Act. 
• From its very inception, it has kept its door open to members of all communities and from all corners of the country and the world. The university is open to all irrespective of caste, creed, religion, or gender.
• AMU is recognised by the University Grant Commission (UGC) and the Association of Indian Universities (AIU). 
• AMU offers more than 300 courses in the traditional and modern branches of education.
• It has three off-campus centres: AMU Malappuram Campus (Kerala), AMU Murshidabad Centre (West Bengal), and Kishanganj Centre (Bihar).

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Udupi station under the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) network was recently included in the Railway Ministry’s Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) for redevelopment.

About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):

• It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission launched in February 2023 by the Ministry of Railways to redevelop 1,309 stations nationwide.
• The scheme aims to transform railway stations into modern, well-equipped hubs with improved passenger amenities, better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration, and enhanced signage.
• It is based on Master Planning for the long term and the implementation of the elements of the Master Plan as per the needs and patronage of the station.
• The scheme shall cater for the introduction of new amenities as well as the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.
• The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into vibrant city centres over the long term.
• Key Features:
• Modern passenger amenities: This includes providing clean and hygienic waiting areas, restrooms, Special amenities for the disabled, and food and beverage outlets.
• Improved traffic circulation: This includes creating separate entry and exit points for passengers and vehicles, widening roads and footpaths, and providing adequate parking facilities.
• Inter-modal integration: This includes providing seamless connectivity between railway stations and other modes of transport, such as buses, taxis, and auto-rickshaws.
• Upgraded signage: This includes providing clear and visible signage in multiple languages to guide passengers.
• Sustainability: This includes using energy-efficient lighting and appliances.
• Eco-friendliness: 
• Rainwater harvesting systems and green spaces
• Ballastless tracks, which reduce noise and vibration
• Roof plazas, where available, provide additional space for commercial activities and passenger amenities.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

From civilians to the military, from precision scientific studies to urban planning and disaster risk estimation, Global Positioning System has significantly changed our expectations of where we are and our sense of place.

• The U.S. Department of Defence started the GPS programme in 1973 and launched the first satellite in 1978.
• The modern GPS satellite constellation consists of 24 satellites moving around the earth in six orbits.
• Each satellite completes two orbits in a single day.
• The overall programme has three main components:
• Space segment: It consists of the 24 satellites. The six orbits they occupy are all 20,200 km above the earth, and each orbit has four satellites at all times. In this configuration, anyone on the earth will be able to ‘see’ at least four satellites at a time.
• Control segment: It consists of a global network of ground-brd control stations and antennae that track the 24 satellites, make sure their performance is as expected at all times, and transmit commands.
• User segment: It pertains to the use of GPS in various sectors and applications. The major sectors include agriculture, construction, surveying, logistics, telecommunications, power transmission, search and rescue, air travel, meteorology, seismology, and military operations.

How does GPS work?

• Each GPS satellite continuously broadcasts a radio signal containing information about its location in orbit, operational status, and the time at which the signal is emitted.
• The signals are transmitted at the L1 (1,575.42 MHz) and the L2 (1,227.6 MHz) frequencies at 50 bits/second.
• The signals are encoded with code-division multiple access.
• This allows multiple signals to be transmitted in the same channel and for a receiver to be able to disentangle them.
• There are two encoding types: the coarse/acquisition mode, which civilians can use to access coarse GPS data, and the precise mode, which is encrypted and is for military use.
• Being an electromagnetic signal, the radio waves travel at the speed of light.
• If the receiver has access to signals from four satellites, it will have the information required to calculate its location in four dimensions (three of space plus one of time relative to the satellite clock) – and can thus accurately triangulate its location on the ground.
• This informs the need for every point on the earth being able to ‘see’ four satellites at a time.

Hence both statements are correct.