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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 below.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Sloth bear:

  1. They live in a variety of dry and moist forest habitats.
  2. They are endemic to India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 1

Karnataka has witnessed instances of human-sloth bear confrontations, raising concerns for both communities and wildlife enthusiasts.

  • Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus
  • Sloth bears are one of the eight bear species found across the world.
  • They are myrmecophagous, meaning, they find bugs and termites to be their most sought after meal.
  • Habitat: They live in a variety of dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs and trees provide shelter.
  • Distribution: They mainly inhabit the region of India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and presumably Bhutan.
  • Appearance: They have long, shaggy dark brown or black fur and curved claws, which are the longest out of any of the bear species.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN: Vulnerable
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
  • Key to mitigate human-sloth bear confrontations: Enhancing habitat connectivity, minimising human-wildlife interaction zones, and implementing responsible waste management practices.
  • Sloth Bear Sanctuaries in India: Daroji Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Karnataka)
    , Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Gujarat).

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 2

Exercise Sada Tanseeq is conducted between India and:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 2

In a major boost of ties the militaries of India and Saudi Arabia are conducting their first Joint Military Exercise named as Sada Tanseeq.

  • It is the inaugural edition of India-Saudi Arabia Joint Military Exercise ‘SADA TANSEEQ’ commenced at Mahajan, Rajasthan.
  • The Exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 29th January to 10th February 2024.
  • Aim of the Exercise is to train troops of both sides for Joint Operations in Semi Desert terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
  • The Exercise will enable both the sides to share their best practices in the tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting operations in sub-conventional domain.
  • It will facilitate developing interoperability, bonhomie and camaraderie between troops from both the sides.
  • The Exercise will involve Establishment of Mobile Vehicle Check Post, Cordon & Search Operation, House Intervention Drill, Reflex Shooting, Slithering and Sniper Firing. 
  • The Exercise will provide an opportunity to both the contingents to strengthen their bond. 

Hence option d is the correct answer.

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Community of West African States:

  1. It was established through the Lagos Treaty in 1975.
  2. It aims to create a borderless region that is governed on the principles of democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 3

Recently, the military regimes in Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger announced their immediate withdrawal from the West African bloc ECOWAS.

  • Economic Community of West African States is also known as CEDEAO in French.
  • It is the regional group which was established in 1975 through the Lagos Treaty.
  • Mandate: Promoting economic integration among its members.
  • The vision of ECOWAS is the creation of a “borderless region” that is well-integrated and governed in accordance with the principles of democracy, rule of law and good governance.
  • Members: Benin, Cape Verde, Cote d’ Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal and Togo.
  • ECOWAS’ larger aims are to have a single common currency and create a single, large trading bloc in areas of industry, transport, telecommunications, energy, financial issues, and social and cultural matters.
  • Along with the goals of economic cooperation, it has attempted to quell military conflicts in the region. 
  • It also operated a regional peacekeeping operation known as ECOMOG, led by Nigeria in the 1990s and early 2000s.
  • Headquarter: Abuja, Nigeria.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Laughing gull:

  1. It is mainly found on the Atlantic coast of North America.
  2. It is a completely herbivore animal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 4

Recently, Laughing gull, a migratory bird from North America, has been sighted for the first time in the country at the Chittari estuary in Kasaragod district.

  • The bird is known for its unique laughter-like calls which resemble human laughter.
  • Habitat: These are a coastal species and are only occasionally seen very far inland.
  • Distribution: These bird are mainly found on the Atlantic coast of North America, the Caribbean, and northern South America.
  • Diet: They are opportunistic carnivores and scavengers. They eat mainly fish, shellfish, crabs, mollusks, insects, bird eggs, and young birds.
  • Features
  • These are medium-sized gulls with fairly long wings and long legs that impart a graceful look when they are flying or walking. They have stout, fairly long bills.
  • They take 2-3 years to gain adult plumage.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN: Least Concern

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Profiteering provisions under the Goods and Services Tax (GST):

  1. Under these provisions, it’s illegal for a business to not pass on the benefits of the GST rate benefits to the end consumer.
  2. The GST Council has the power to determine the methodology for determining whether a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 5

The Delhi High Court recently upheld the constitutional validity of anti-profiteering provisions in the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

What is the meaning of anti-profiteering under GST?

  • Any reduction in the GST rate or benefit of input tax credit should be passed on to the end consumer and not retained by the business. This is the basis of the anti-profiteering provisions under GST.
  • Under anti-profiteering provisions, it’s illegal for a business to not pass on the benefits of the GST rate benefits to the end consumer, and thereby indulging in illegal profiteering.
  • Who regulates anti-profiteering under the GST?
  • The Anti-Profiteering Rules, 2017(defined under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act 2017), prevents entities from making excessive profits due to the lowering of GST.
  • The Government has created the National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) to find and take action against taxable registered persons indulging in illegal profiteering.
  • NAA has the power to determine the methodology and procedure for determining whether a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering.
  • Reporting to the Anti-Profiteering Authority:
  • Any interested party who has information to believe a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering from GST can refer the matter to the local screening committee.
  • The State level Screening Committee shall examine the matter constituted by the State Governments consisting of officers of the State Government.
  • If the screening committee determines that the information contains merit, the committee shall forward it with recommendations to the Standing Committee on Anti-Profiteering, which consists of officers of both the State Government and Central Government.
  • If the Standing Committee contains enough proof to show that the taxable person engaged in illegal profiteering, then the committee shall refer to the Director General of Safeguards for a detailed investigation.
  • Investigation by the Director General of Safeguards:
  • All matters referred by the Standing Committee will be investigated by the Director General of Safeguards.
  • The Director General of Safeguards will collect evidence, conduct an investigation, and issue notices to the interested parties. The notice must contain the following details:
  • The description of the goods or services in respect of which the proceedings have been initiated.
  • Summary of the statement of facts on which the allegations are based.
  • The time limit allowed to the interested parties and other persons who may have information related to the proceedings for furnishing their reply.
  • Once all the information and hearings are complete, the Director General of Safeguards will provide a report of findings.
  • A report of findings must be submitted by the Director General of Safeguards, normally within 3 months or within 6 months if an extension is provided.
  • Order under Anti-Profiteering Provisions: Once all the proceedings are completed and a report is obtained from the Director General of Safeguards, the Members of Committee will pass an order. An order from the Authority could mandate
  • Reduction in prices.
  • Return to the recipient, an amount equivalent to the amount not passed on by way of a commensurate reduction in prices along with interest.
  • Imposition of penalty as specified under the Act.
  • Cancellation of GST registration.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 6

What is the primary source of Mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF) protein?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 6

Researchers recently discovered a previously unidentified protein named mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF) with antioxidant properties produced by Coxiella burnetii, a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.

About Mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF):

  • It is a bacterial protein capable of keeping human cells healthy even when the cells have a heavy bacterial burden. 
  • It is produced by Coxiella burnetii, a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.
  • After invading host cells, Coxiella burnetii releases MceF into cells.
  • MceF interacts with glutathione peroxidase 4 (GPX4), an anti-oxidant enzyme located in the mitochondria, to improve mitochondrial function by promoting an anti-oxidizing effect that averts cell damage and death, which may occur when pathogens replicate inside mammalian cells.

Key Facts about Coxiella burnetii:

  • It is a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.
  • It is the causative agent of a serious infection called Q fever, zoonotic disease that can affect humans and animals.
  • The bacterium is primarily transmitted to humans through the inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected animals, particularly through the air-borne particles from placental tissues, urine, feces, and milk of infected domestic animals like cattle, sheep, and goats.
  • It causes atypical pneumonia in humans and coxiellosis in some animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats.
  • It is highly adapted to invade and control macrophages and monocytes–white blood cells that are part of the organism’s front-line immune defense–inhibiting the host’s responses to the infection.
  • Unlike other bacteria, which cause disease only when they multiply to reach large numbers, a single C. burnetii is enough to make a healthy person sick.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 7

How does Generative AI differ from traditional AI systems?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 7

A new report predicts that Generative AI (genAI) is poised to become a $100 billion industry by 2026. 

About Generative AI:

  • Generative AI, or generative artificial intelligence, is a form of artificial intelligence (AI) in which algorithms automatically produce content in the form of textimages, audio, and video.
  • Unlike traditional AI systems that are designed to recognize patterns and make predictions, generative AI creates new content.
  • Generative AI is powered by foundation models (large AI models) that can multi-task and perform out-of-the-box tasks, including summarization, Q&A, classification, and more. 
  • These systems have been trained on massive amounts of data.
  • It works by using a Machine Learning (ML) model to learn the patterns and relationships in a dataset of human-created content. It then uses the learned patterns to generate new content. 
  • Typically, it starts with a simple text input, called a prompt, in which the user describes the output they want. Then, various algorithms generate new content according to what the prompt is asking for.
  • Popular Generative AI Tools:
  • ChatGPT: ChatGPT is an AI-powered chatbot developed by OpenAI, with a unique ability to not only generate written content but also converse with users fluently.
  • Bard: Bard is a generative AI chatbot created by Google, based on LaMDA language model technology. It can answer questions asked by users or create new content from text or image prompts.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 8

The ‘INS Sumitra’, seen in the news recently, is a:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 8

The Indian Navy's INS Sumitra recently rescued fishermen hijacked by pirates along the east coast of Somalia and the Gulf of Aden.

About INS Sumitra:

  • It is the fourth and last Saryu-class patrol vessel of the Indian Navy.
  • It is based on an indigenous design and constructed by Goa Shipyard Limited.
  • It was commissioned in 2014 and is based in Chennai under the Eastern Naval Command.
  • The primary role of the ship is to undertake surveillance of the country’s exclusive economic zone (EEZ) besides other operational tasks such as anti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, maritime security of offshore assets, and escort operations.
  • Features:
  • Measuring about 105 metres in length, 13 metres in breadth, and displacing 2,200 tonnes, the ship can achieve a speed of 25 knots.
  • The ship has a range of 6,500 nautical miles.
  • It is propelled by two diesel engines.
  • The ship’s weapon and sensor outfits include a 76.2 mm gun (super rapid gun mount), close-in weapon systems, and the latest navigational and early warning radars.
  • It is capable of embarking one Dhruv/Chetak helicopter.
  • It is also equipped with two rigid inflatable fast-motor boats.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 9

Ratle Hydro Electric Project is a run-of-river hydroelectric project being built on:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 9

The government recently announced diversion of Chenab river water through diversion tunnels to expedite the 850-MW Ratle Hydro Electric Project in Jammu & Kashmir.

About Ratle Hydro Electric Project:

  • It is an 850 MW run-of-river hydroelectric power project being built on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar District of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • The project is being developed by Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation (RHPCL), which was formed as a joint venture (JV) between Jammu & Kashmir State Power Development Corporation (JKSPDC) and India’s state-owned National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC).
  • The project comprises a 133-meter-talland 194.8-meter-longconcrete gravity dam, a diversion dam, and an underground powerhouse on the right bank of the river.

Key Facts about Chenab River:

  • It is a major river of India and Pakistan.
  • Origin: It is formed by the confluence of two streamsChandra and Bhaga, at Tandi in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti Districts of Himachal Pradesh.
  • In its upper reaches, it is also known as the Chandrabhaga.
  • It is a tributary of the Indus River.
  • Course:
  • It flows west through Jammu and Kashmir union territory, between the steep cliffs of the Siwalik Range (south) and the Lesser Himalayas (north).
  • Turning southwest, it continues into Pakistan, descending from the uplands into the broad alluvial lowlands of Punjab province. 
  • After receiving the Jhelum River near Trimmu, the Chenab empties into the Sutlej River, a tributary of the Indus River.
  • Its total length is about 605 miles (974 km) and it feeds several irrigation canals. 
  • Tributaries: The tributaries of the Chenab River include Miyar Nalla, Sohal, Thirot, Bhut Nalla, Marusudar, and Lidrari. 

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding BrahMos:

  1. It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea and air.
  2. It has a range of more than 1000 kilometers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- January 30, 2024 - Question 10

India is all set to begin the export of ground systems for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines.

About BrahMos:

  • It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air.
  • It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia.
  • It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia).
  • Features:
  • It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet, or second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in the cruise phase.
  • It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound.
  • It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg.
  • The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight.
  • It operates on the "Fire and Forgets" principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.
  • Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters.
  • It carries a conventional warhead weighing 200 to 300 kg.
  • It is equipped with stealth technology designed to make it less visible to radar and other detection methods.
  • It has an inertial navigation system (INS) for use against ship targets, and an INS/Global Positioning System for use against land targets.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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