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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 below.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 1

With reference to the gluten-free diet (GFD), consider the following statements:

1. A gluten-free diet (GFD) is a nutritional plan that strictly excludes gluten, which is a mixture of proteins found in wheat as well as barley, rye, and oats.

2. Gluten may cause both gastrointestinal and systemic symptoms for those with gluten-related disorders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 1

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has launched a gluten-free millet products for all age groups at affordable prices.

  • A gluten-free diet (GFD) is a nutritional plan that strictly excludes gluten, which is a mixture of proteins found in wheat (and all of its species and hybrids, such as spelt, kamut, and triticale), as well as barley, rye, and oats.
  • Gluten may cause both gastrointestinal and systemic symptoms for those with gluten-related disorders, including coeliac disease (CD), non-coeliac gluten sensitivity (NCGS), gluten ataxia, dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), and wheat allergy.
  • Gluten proteins have low nutritional and biological value and the grains that contain gluten are not essential in the human diet.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 2

With reference to the East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW), consider the following statements:

1. It is a Ramsar site.

2. It is spread over 37 mouzas of the West Bengal’s South and North 24 Parganas districts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 2

A recent audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has pointed out illegal construction and violations of environmental norms in two Ramsar sites in West Bengal, the East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW) and the Sunderbans.

  • The EKW, a unique peri-urban ecosystem that lies on the eastern fringes of Kolkata, covers an area of about 12,500 hectares.
  • It is spread over 37 mouzas of the State’s South and North 24 Parganas districts.
  • The CAG report pointed out that failure to delineate boundaries of the EKW and uncontrolled transfer of land resulted in its change of character and lack of effective action by the EKWMA (East Kolkata Wetland Management Authority).
  • In absence of effective measures by EKWMA, waterbodies were dried up and filled illegally. Since 2007, EKWMA has identified 357 cases of violation, out of which 101 cases were identified between December 2015 and March 2020, the audit said.

Hence both statements are correct.

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Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 3

With reference to the wireless jammers, consider the following statements:

1. It is against the illegal sale and facilitation of wireless jammers.

2. Jammers may be allowed only under exceptional circumstances, only when authorized by Secretary (Security) and Cabinet Secretariat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 3

Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has issued an advisory to e-commerce entities against the illegal sale and facilitation of wireless jammers.

  • Consumer Affairs Ministry said, sale and use of any wireless device without authorization and license under the Indian Telegraph Act or Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act is illegal.
  • The Ministry said, as per the guidelines issued by the Central Government, Jammers may be allowed only under exceptional circumstances, only when authorized by Secretary (Security) and Cabinet Secretariat.
  • The Department of Telecommunication had also issued an advisory in January this year with reference to illegal facilitation and sale of wireless jammers on online platforms.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 4

With reference to the Judicial Infrastructure Development Authority, consider the following statements:

1. The body will be created at the state level with the involvement of the CMs and Chief Justices or their nominees.

2. Development of Infrastructure Facilities for Judiciary is Centre sector scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 4

Law Minister Kiren Rijiju has informed that Judicial Infrastructure Development Authority will be formed at state level to strengthen the Judicial infrastructure of the country.

  • The resolution regarding this was passed during the Joint Conference of Chief Ministers of the States and Chief Justices of High Courts in New Delhi.
  • The body will be created at the state level with the involvement of the CMs and Chief Justices or their nominees.
  • The Centrally Sponsored Scheme for development of Infrastructure Facilities for Judiciary has been extended till 2025-26 with a budgetary outlay of Rs. 9,000 crores including the central share of Rs. 5,307 crores.
  • Chief Justice of India NV Ramana has said lack of infrastructure is one of the main causes of delaying in delivering Justice. Chief Justice said, effective steps will be taken to ensure the clearing of cases pending for more than five years.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 5

Which of the following is/are the advantages of 5G Technology?

1. Speed in transmissions can approach 15 or 20 GBPS (Gigabytes Per Second).

2. In 5G the latency will be ten times less than in 4G.

3. All connected devices will have access to instant connections to the internet, which in real time will exchange information with each other. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 5

Union Minister of Communications, Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw, recently said that the commercial rollout of 5G services could be expected from August-September 2022 onwards.

Advantages of 5G Technology:

  • Greater Speed in Transmissions:
    • Speed in transmissions can approach 15 or 20 GBPS (Gigabytes Per Second).
    • In comparison, 4G offers maximum real-world download speeds up to around 100 MBPS.
  • Lower Latency:
    • Latency is the time that elapses since we give an order on our device until the action occurs.
    • In 5G the latency will be ten times less than in 4G, being able to perform remote actions in real time.
  • Greater Number of Connected Devices:
    • All connected devices will have access to instant connections to the internet, which in real time will exchange information with each other. This will favour the IOT (Internet of Things).
    • The Internet of Things describes the network of physical objects—“things”—that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet.
    • It is anticipated that a common home will have a hundred connected devices sending and receiving information in real time.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 6

With reference to the resignation of an IAS officer, consider the following statements:

1. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) is the cadre controlling department for the IAS.

2. An officer serving in a cadre (state) must submit his/her resignation to the chief secretary of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 6

A resignation is a formal intimation in writing by an officer of his/her intention or a proposal to leave the IAS, either immediately or at a specified date in the future.

  • Guidelines of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) say that a resignation has to be clear and unconditional.
  • DoPT is the cadre controlling department for the IAS.
  • The resignation of an officer of any of the three All-India Services — IAS, the Indian Police Service (IPS) and Indian Forest Service — is governed by the All India Services (Death-cum-Retirement Benefits) Rules, 1958.
  • An officer serving in a cadre (state) must submit his/her resignation to the chief secretary of the state.
    An officer who is on central deputation is required to submit his/her resignation to the secretary of the concerned Ministry or Department.
  • The Ministry/Department then forwards the officer’s resignation to the concerned state cadre, along with its comments or recommendations.

Hence both statements are correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 7

With reference to the Coal reserves in India, consider the following statements:

1. Talchar is Jharkhand’s biggest coalfield.

2. Chhattisgarh has the third largest coal reserve in India and carries about 17% of the total coal reserves. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 7

An energy crisis is emerging across India, as low coal supplies across the majority of thermal power plants have triggered blackouts in several urban and rural areas.

  • Jharkhand:
    • With estimated 83.15 billion tonnes of reserves which is more than 26% of India’s total reserves, Jharkhand ranks first.
      The state’s main coal-mining centres are Jharia (India’s oldest and richest coalfield), Bokaro, Auranga, Giridh, Dhanbad, Ramgarh, Karanpur and Hutar.
  • Odisha: 
    • Second on the list for coal reserves is the state of Odisha (over 24% of the country’s total reserves and about 15% of India’s total coal production). Talchar is Odisha's biggest coalfield.
  • Chattisgarh: 
    • Chhattisgarh has the third largest coal reserve in India and carries about 17% of the total coal reserves. However, the state has the first rank in the production of coal. Coalfields of the state include Korba, Hasdo-Arand, Chirmiri, Jhimli, and Johilla.
  • Others are West Bengal (about 11% of the total coal reserves of India), Madhya Pradesh (about 8%), Andhra Pradesh (7%), Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Jammu and Kashmir.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 8

With reference to the Bank Consolidation, consider the following statements:

1. Bank consolidation is the process by which one banking company takes over or merges with another.

2. Narasimham Committee Report, in 2006 first recommended a three-tier banking structure in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 8

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has raised concerns about bank consolidation, stating that it increases the market power of merged institutions and adversely affects financial inclusion.

Bank consolidation is the process by which one banking company takes over or merges with another.

This convergence leads to a potential expansion for the consolidating banking institution.

  • M Narasimham, the 13th Governor of RBI, in his report, known as Narasimham Committee Report, in 1991 first recommended a three-tier banking structure in India:
  • Three or four large banks (including State Bank of India) could become international in character.
  • Eight to ten national banks with a network of branches throughout the country, engaged in Universal banking.
  • Local banks should concentrate on region specific banking.
  • For example, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) should focus on agriculture and rural financing.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 9

With reference to the Electoral Bond Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It was announced in the 2011 Union Budget.

2. There is no limit on the number of bonds an individual or company can purchase.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 9

In response to an RTI request, the State Bank of India (SBI) stated that in the 20th phase (April), it sold worth Rs 648.48 crore electoral bonds.

  • Announced in the 2017 Union Budget, the Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) was notified by the Central government in 2018.
    Under the scheme, electoral bonds can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of State Bank of India (SBI).
  • An electoral bond is like a promissory note - a legal instrument in which one party promises to pay a sum of money to the other.
  • The bonds are sold in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 crore.
  • There is no limit on the number of bonds an individual or company can purchase.
  • The citizen can then donate the same to any eligible political party (23 - only those registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last LoK Sabha/State Assembly elections) of his or her choice anonymously.
  • The political party can then encash these bonds through its verified account within 15 days.
  • The SBI deposits bonds that a political party hasn’t encashed within 15 days into the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 10

With reference to the Special Railway Establishment for Strategic Technology and Holistic Advancement (SRESTHA), consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 2010.

2. It was tasked with the role of taking up long-term railway research projects requiring technological advancement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ- September 30, 2022 - Question 10

Going ahead with its downsizing plan, the Indian Railways has announced the closure of the Special Railway Establishment for Strategic Technology and Holistic Advancement (SRESTHA), Lucknow.

  • Established in 2016, the SRESTHA directorate, part of the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), was tasked with the role of taking up long-term railway research projects requiring technological advancement.
  • As part of the restructuring plan, the Railways also decided to merge 32 directorates of the RDSO and brought them under seven verticals — administration, infrastructure, rolling stock, traction and power supply, signal and telecommunication, resource and testing and traffic and psychology.
  • Another notification is that the Geotech Engineering Directorate will be merged with the Track and Bridges & Structures Directorate.
  • The Railways also proposed to create new posts in the rank of Executive Director, Design, to be posted at the Integral Coach Factory, Chennai, Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala and Modern Coach Factory, Rae Bareli, under the Railway Board’s Rolling Stock Directorate.
  • The restructuring plan of the Indian Railways is in line with the recommendations for rationalisation of government bodies made by Principal Economic Adviser Sanjeev Sanyal.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

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