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KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - KVS PGT/TGT/PRT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test KVS PGT Exam Mock Test Series 2025 - KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT 2025 is part of KVS PGT Exam Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the KVS PGT/TGT/PRT exam syllabus.The KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 MCQs are made for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 below.
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KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

निम्न में से कौन सा उपन्यास देवकी नन्दन खत्री का अपूर्ण उपन्यास है?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 1

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 3 'गुप्त गोदना' अपूर्ण उपन्यास है
स्पष्टीकरण

  • 'गुप्त गोदना' देवकी नन्दन खत्री का अपूर्ण उपन्यास है
  • अन्य तीनों विकल्प उनके द्वारा पूर्ण रूप से लिखे गए उपन्यास हैं

अन्य संबंधित बिंदु

  • गुप्त गोदना एक अर्द्ध ऐतिहासिक रहस्य-रोमांच से परिपूर्ण उपन्यास है। इसमें एक तरफ जहाँ शाहजहाँ के पुत्रों के मध्य सत्ता संघर्ष का चित्रण है वही नायक उदय सिंह और उसके दोस्त रवि दत्त की बहादुरी की कहानी भी है।
  • उपन्यास की कहानी मुख्यतः उदय सिंह पर ही केन्द्रित है, और साथ में उसके दोस्त रवि दत्त का चित्रण है।
  • राजनैतिक षड्यंत्र, प्रेम, जासूसी और तात्कालिक घटनाक्रम पर लिखा गया यह उपन्यास बहुत ही रोचक है।
  • उपन्यास के सम्पादकीय में इस उपन्यास के अधूरेपन पर चर्चा की गयी है और उसका कारण भी लिखा है - उपन्यास में जो गुत्थियां अनसुलझी रह गई हैं, उसका कारण उनका (देवकीनंदन खत्री) निधन ही रहा है।
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

किस विकल्प में उचित विलोम युग्म का प्रयोग नही हुआ है?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 2

अभिमुख- सम्मुख, अल्पभाषी- मितभाषी विकल्प में उचित विलोम युग्म का प्रयोग नही हुआ है।

  • अभिमुख (अर्थ) : सम्मुख, सामने। - विमुख (अर्थ) : मुँह फेरने वाला
  • अल्पभाषी (अर्थ) : कम बोलनेवाला, मितभाषी। - वाचाल (अर्थ) : बातूनी, अतिभाषी।

गलती अंक


स्पष्टीकरण

  • जब कोई एक शब्द किसी दूसरे शब्द का उल्टा या विपरीत अर्थ व्यक्त करे तो उसे विलोम शब्द कहा जाता है।

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु
कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द:-

  • शब्द - विलोम
  • प्रत्यक्ष - परोक्ष
  • बहिरंग - अंतरंग
  • नैसर्गिक - कृत्रिम
  • सविकार - निर्विकार
  • नास्तिक - आस्तिक
  • वैमनस्य - सौमनस्य
  • सकाम - निष्काम
  • अनुरक्ति - विरक्ति
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 3

The Sultan himself used to take a keen personal interest in the development of agriculture. He abolished zakat (import duty) on grain and introduced a measurement standard, which continued to prevail till the Mughal period. Who was this Sultan?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 3
The correct answer is Sikandar Lodi.
Explanation
  • Lodi dynasty ruled in India during the year 1451-1526. They succeeded Syyaid dynasty.
  • Bahalul Lodi was the founder of the Lodi dynasty. He died in the year 1489 and was succeeded by his son Sikandar Lodi.
  • Sikandar was the greatest ruler of all the three in Lodi dynasty.
  • He extended his kingdom from Bihar to Punjab and defeated many Rajput Chiefs.
  • He also instituted the system of proper accounting and audit of the income and expenditure of governors and officers.
  • He established the system of espionage.
  • He also distributed the free rations to the poor and opened free kitchens.
  • The Sultan himself used to take a keen personal interest in the development of agriculture.
  • He abolished zakat (import duty) on grain, and introduced a measurement standard, which continued to prevail till the Mughal period
  • Sikandar’s reign was having material prosperity. All the system of law and order, trade and commerce, agriculture and irrigation and daily life of people were in place.
  • Ibrahim Lodi succeeded his father Sikandar Lodi. He was an arrogant ruler. He even insulted and humiliated his nobles openly in the court. The nobles who revolted against him were put to death.
  • Babur marched to Delhi. He defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodi in the first battle of Panipat (1526). This was the end of the Lodi dynasty. The kingdom lasted only for 75 years.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 4
Who was named the winner of the 71st annual Miss Universe pageant on 15 January 2023?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 4

​The correct answer is R'Bonney Gabriel.

In News

  • R'Bonney Gabriel from US was named the winner of the 71st annual Miss Universe pageant on 15 January 2023.

Explanation

  • In second place was Miss Venezuela Amanda Dudamel, followed by Miss Dominican Republic Andreína Martínez.
  • She is also the first Filipina American to win Miss USA.
  • This year’s Miss Universe pageant allowed married women and mothers to compete for the first time in its 70-year history.

Other Related Points

  • Recent Awards and Honours:
    • Leading steelmaker Jindal Steel & Power has been awarded the prestigious Golden Peacock Award 2022 for its excellence in Corporate Social Responsibility activities in the Steel Sector, on 13 January 2023.
    • Aparna Sen was honoured with a lifetime achievement award at the 15th Edition of the Jaipur International Film Festival on 11 January 2023
    • Writer Ambikasuthan Mangad has been selected for Odakuzhal Award 2022 for his collection of short stories titled Pranavayu.
    • Prabhu Chandra Mishra was awarded Atal Samman Award for his excellence in field of science & research on 27 December 2022.
    • The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has won the Data Security Council of India's (DSCI) Best Security Practices in Government Sector award on 23 December 2022.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

How many cells are there in the cell range F4 : P10?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 5

The correct answer is 77.Important Points COUNTIF, one of the statistical functions, to count the number of cells that meet a criterion; for example, to count the number of times a particular city appears in a customer list.
For example,
= COUNTIF(A2:A5,"apples")
Counts the number of cells with apples in cells A2 through A5. The result is 2.ExplanationWays to count the cells in cell range:

1. Select the cell where you want the result to appear.
2. On the Formulas tab, click More Functions, point to Statistical, and then click one of the following functions:

  • COUNTA: To count cells that are not empty
  • COUNT: To count cells that contain numbers.
  • COUNTBLANK: To count cells that are blank.
  • COUNTIF: To count cells that meet specified criteria.

In the above example, the cells have to be counted between a certain range. Hence, we should use the formula of COUNTIF.
Hence, the correct answer is 77.Alternate Method Column F to Column P = 11 Cells
Row 4 to row 10 = 7 cells
Total no of cells = 7*11 = 77

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 6
Sameer Kamat has been appointed as the new chairman of which organization?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 6
Key Points
  • Sameer V Kamat has been recently appointed as the new Chairman of DRDO. Kamat will continue in this post till the age of 60 years or till further orders. At the same time, the current secretary G Satheesh Reddy was appointed as Scientific Advisor to the Defense Minister.
  • Sameer Kamat
    • Sameer Kamat's full name is Dr. Sameer Venkatapati Kamat.
    • He earned a B.Tech Engineering (Hons) degree in Metallurgical Engineering from IIT Kharagpur in 1985.
    • He joined DRDO in 1989. In 2015, he took over as the Lab Director. In 2017, he was made the director of NS&M.
    • Presently, he is serving as the Director General of Naval Systems and Materials Division of DRDO.
  • DRDO
    • DRDO is a premier agency, which works under the Department of Defense Research and Development, Ministry of Defence.
    • The headquarters of this agency is in Delhi.
    • It was established in 1958.
    • The Defense Research and Development Service (DRDS) was established in 1979 as a service of Group 'A' officers/scientists.

Other Related Points

  • CSIR
    • The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research is abbreviated as CSIR.
    • It was established in September 1942.
    • President - Dr. Nallathambi Kalaiselvik
  • ISRO
    • The Indian Space Research Organization is the national space agency of India.
    • Formed in - 1969
    • Headquarters - Bangalore
    • President - Sridhar Panikkar Somanath
  • CPCB
    • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
    • Formed in - 1974
    • President - Tanmay Kumar
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

What was a significant concern raised about the two-exam scheme by critics?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 7

Critics of the two-exam scheme have expressed concerns that the requirement for students to prepare for two exams in a single academic year could lead to increased stress and financial burdens, particularly for families who might have to pay fees for both attempts. This highlights the potential impact on student well-being and equity in access to educational resources.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 8
In which year Delhi Lahore Conspiracy case took place?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 8

The correct answer is 1912.

Explanation

  • The Delhi Conspiracy case, also known as the Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy, refers to a conspiracy in 1912 to assassinate the then Viceroy of India, Lord Hardinge, on the occasion of transferring the capital of British India from Calcutta to New Delhi.
  • Hatched by the Indian revolutionary underground in Bengal and Punjab and headed by Rash Behari Bose, the conspiracy culminated in the attempted assassination on 23 December 1912 when a homemade bomb was thrown into the Viceroys’ Howdah when the ceremonial procession moved through the Chandni Chowk suburb of Delhi.
  • Although injured in the attempt, the Viceroy escaped with flesh wounds, but his Mahout was killed in the attack. Lady Hardinge was unscathed. Lord Hardinge himself was injured all over the back, legs, and head by fragments of the bomb, the flesh on his shoulders being torn in strips.
  • In the aftermath of the event, efforts were made to destroy the Bengali and Punjabi revolutionary underground, which came under intense pressure for some time. Rash Behari successfully evaded capture for nearly three years, becoming involved in the Ghadar conspiracy before it was uncovered, and fleeing to Japan in 1916.
  • The investigations in the aftermath of the assassination attempt led to the Delhi Conspiracy trial. The case was filed against Lala Hanumant Sahai, Basant Kumar Biswas, Bhai Balmukund, Amir Chand, and Avadh Behari.
  • On 5 October 1914, Lala Hanumant Sahai was sentenced to life imprisonment in the Andamans and the other four were sentenced to death for their roles in the conspiracy. Rash Behari Bose was identified as the person who threw the bomb.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 9
A teacher should plan activities which yield _______ among learners.
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 9

Emotions play an essential role in an individual's life. Emotion is a psychological state with four components, a positive or negative subjective experience, bodily arousal, the activation of specific mental processes and stored information, and characteristic overt behavior

Explanation There are many emotions that affect the learning of the learners, these are - Happiness, Hope, Hopelessness, Pride, shame, fear, Curiosity, Enjoyment, etc.

  • Curiosity: The impulse/emotion or desire to investigate, observe, or gather information, particularly when the material is novel or interesting. It refers students to getting the roots of the problem conceptually.

Thus by all these references, we can consider that curiosity is yielded among learners if a teacher should plan activities.

Hint

  • Anxiety: Anxiety is a state of painful discomfort in the mind. During anxiety, a vague fear or apprehension occurs. You may feel anxious if you don’t know the exact cause.
  • Boredom: ​The state of feeling disinterested in one's surroundings, having nothing to do, or feeling that life is dull.

Other Related Points There are some other emotions that affect the learning of the students:

  • Pride: Pride is an emotional response or attitude to something with an intimate connection to oneself, due to its perceived value.
  • Joy: A feeling of extreme gladness, delight, or exultation of the spirit arising from a sense of well-being or satisfaction.
  • Hopelessness: Hopelessness is the emotion that did not facilitate learning, this emotion makes a negative impact on the student toward learning.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 10
Using prior experience to manage new situations and experiences demands to a student being _______.
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 10

Experience is the subjective knowledge or skills about something, someplace, or someone. Every individual has their own experiences which they experience from their own point of view.

Explanation

  • Using prior experience to manage new situations and experiences, requires a student to be reflective.
  • Reflection is the process of showing or presenting what one has learnt or acquired.
  • Reflections are unique to everyone. Hence, they are subjective.
  • The process of reflection helps to understand the event better and provides the opportunity to critically analyze it.
  • The understanding and critical analysis help to use those experiences in other situations also.

Thus, it can be concluded that using prior experience to manage new situations and experiences demands, requires students to be reflective.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 11
Flexible time table and seating arrangement is a feature of
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 11

Child-centered education-

  • ‘learner-centered’ approach in the teaching-learning process. In this approach, the ‘learner’ or ‘child’ and not the ‘teacher’ is the main focus of the educational program.
  • It emphasizes ‘learning’ rather than ‘teaching’.
  • The overall goal of education, according to this approach is all-around development of the child and not only that of acquiring knowledge.

Explanation

Ensuring a Child-friendly Environment-

  • A safe, secure, and motivating child-friendly school environment that encourages child-centered practices of teaching-learning to ensure the participation of children, can help them learn better. The following points need to be kept in view:
    • It is a fact that every child is capable of learning. It is the responsibility of the teachers, to ensure that the child unfolds her or his potential to accomplish the expected learning outcomes for each stage and class as intended and spelled out.
    • Creating a fear-free environment is essential where each child can express freely, confide in her or his teacher, and can share her or his likes, dislikes, or problems without any hesitation.
    • Alternative strategies for maintaining positive discipline need to be practiced in classrooms. Parents or guardians, too, need to be convinced for the same.
    • Time-table needs to be flexible for teachers to plan and carry out the activities in a time span more than the duration allocated to a period if required.
    • Teachers may be free to change the seating arrangement according to the activity to be organized.
    • For physical or emotional disturbances, the child may, if needed, be encouraged to approach counselors or medical practitioners, with the involvement of parents or guardians.
    • Recognizing the unique abilities of children and their pace of learning, teachers need to be patient to ensure their involvement in different activities to help them learn, progress and accomplish the class-wise learning outcomes promptly.

Thus from the above-mentioned points, it is clear that a Flexible time table and seating arrangement is a feature of child-centered education.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Which of the following are the key postulates of constructivism?

I: Individual learners actively build knowledge and skills

II: Information exists within the constructs of our minds

III: Behaviour of the learner must be reinforced to ensure learning

IV: Learning is a socially mediated process

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 12

Constructivism is centered on the idea that human knowledge and learning are actively constructed by the learner, not passively received from the environment. Knowledge is created or constructed by the experiencing individual. It is not impersonal or absolute.

  • Bruner defines constructivism as a learning theory in which learning is seen as an active process in which learners construct new ideas or concepts based upon their current and previous knowledge.

Explanation​ Following are the key postulates of constructivism:

  • Individual learners actively build knowledge and skills: In constructivism, learners actively construct their knowledge by experiencing it. Their previous knowledge, experiences, beliefs, and insights are all important foundations for their continued learning.
  • Information exists within the constructs of our minds: Learning needs to involve activities for the minds, not just our hands. Mental experiences are needed for retaining knowledge.
  • Learning is a socially mediated process: Learning is directly related to our connection with other people. Our teachers, our family, our peers, and our acquaintances impact our learning so learning is a socially mediated process.

Thus, it is concluded that I, II, IV are the key postulates of constructivism.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 13
The best feedback about mis-learning is obtained through :
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 13

Mislearning means to learn incorrectly or to acquire incorrect knowledge. The best feedback about mislearning is obtained through diagnostic testing.

Important Points

Diagnostic testing:

  • when a patient comes to a doctor, the doctor initially puts some questions to the patient to gather some basic information’s about the disease and then uses other techniques to get more related information to identify the disease and its probable cause(s). After careful analysis of these data, he prescribes the medicines as remedial treatment. Similarly, In the field of education, the diagnosis has many such implications. Difficulties in learning occur frequently at all levels and among pupils of both high and low mental ability.
  • In order to handle such cases, the teacher also uses similar techniques like a doctor to diagnose the relative strengths and weaknesses of the pupil in the specific area of study, analyse the causes for the same and then provides remedial measures as per necessity.
  • Diagnostic test is a test used to diagnose strength and weakness of the learning in certain areas of study whereas diagnostic evaluation is centered on the schooling process such as the curriculum program, administration, and so on.
  • When learning difficulties that are left unresolved by the standard corrective prescriptions of formative evaluation and a pupil continues to experience failure despite the use of prescribed alternative methods of instruction, then a more detailed diagnosis is indicated.

Explanation

Features of diagnostic testing:

  • The diagnostic test takes up where the formative test leaves off.
  • A diagnostic test is a means by which an individual profile is examined and compared against certain norms or criteria.
  • The diagnostic test focuses on an individual’s educational weakness or learning deficiency and identifies the gaps in pupils.
  • Diagnostic test is more intensive and act as a tool for analysis of Learning Difficulties.
  • Diagnostic test is more often limited to low ability students.
  • Diagnostic tests pinpoints the specific types of error each pupil is making and searches for underlying causes of the problem.
  • Diagnostic test helps us to identify the trouble spots and discovered those areas of students weakness that are unresolved by formative test.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 14
The four 'D' model of dream, discover, design and deliver will be the best fit with which of the following models of teacher education?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 14

Teacher Education

  • Teacher Education programs produce teachers, who in turn educate generations of pupils and students.
  • Teachers who transform the knowledge and skills acquired in school, college, or university during the rest of their lives and work.
  • It is an education program which has the policies, procedures, and provision designed to equip teachers with the knowledge, attitudes, behaviors, and skills a teacher require to perform tasks effectively in the classroom, school, and wider community.
  • The 4-D's
    • DISCOVERY: It involves Identification and appreciation of what works.
    • DREAM: It involves Imagining what might be.
    • DESIGN: It involves Developing systems, structures leveraging the best of what was and what might be.
    • DESTINY: It involves Implementing or delivering the proposed design.

Competency-Based Model:

  • A competency model is a guideline developed by a Human Resource department that sets out the specific skills, knowledge, and behavioral requirements that enable an employee to perform their job successfully.

Hence, From the above-explained points, we can conclude that The four ‘D’ model of a dream, discover, design, and deliver the best fit with the competency-based model of teacher education. It enables the student teacher to make decisions by exploring and discovering. The 4 -D's help in creating an environment of proving, exploring, and discovering one's abilities.

Other Related Points

Concept Attainment model:

  • The Concept Attainment model is an instructional strategy founded on the works of Jerome Bruner.
  • Built on the principle of concept formation, the Concept Attainment model promotes student learning through a process of structured inquiry.
  • The model helps students to understand and learn concepts by identifying attributes or key features through a process of analysis, comparison, and contrasting examples.
  • Two sets of examples are used in this strategy – Yes (examples that have attributes of the concept) and No (examples that do not have attributes of the concept) examples.

Inquiry oriented teacher education model:

  • The inquiry is the systematic, intentional study of one's own professional practice. It is a stance, a way of learning about teaching and from teaching, and genuine inquiry is conceptualized as a transformative force for teacher development, student learning, and school change.
  • The conceptual scholarship on inquiry-oriented teacher education is extensive, and over the last 25 years, a growing number of teacher education programs around the world are describing themselves as inquiry-oriented.

​The jurisprudence model used principally in analyses of individual values regarding domestic laws helps to explain these beliefs.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

A private vision has no organizational significance. This statement emphasizes that a vision must be __________.

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 15

Every organization needs a defined mission - that is its stated purpose - and a vision that looks into the future and describes an ideal state for the organization which it will achieve when it reaches the character for which the leader has committed his energies and enthusiasm.

  • Such a vision combines analysis and understanding of the past history, traditions and culture of the organization; a recognition of the possible need to change; an analysis of the present situation and the key factors likely to affect the chances of success or failure; a forecast of the future and factors which could bring success; and outlines later to be developed, of the first steps to be taken and thereafter of tactical (short term) and strategic (long term) goals.

ExplanationCommunicating the Vision:

  • A private vision has no organizational significance.
  • Sharing the vision perceptively with those whose work will help to achieve it, and with an open-ness to change, should lead to cooperative teamwork, the creation of targets, and the constructive handling of any conflicts arising.
  • But for this to be so, the vision must be fully shared, concisely expressed, and work must proceed in a learning atmosphere. Constant cross-referral must take place between existing and new activities to ensure that all move the organization towards its goals.

Hence, it is clear that the above-mentioned statement emphasizes that a vision must be fully shared and concisely expressed.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 16
Which of the following is NOT a function of School Management Committee as per the Right to Education Act, 2009?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 16
The School Management Committee will play a pivotal role in school governance to enhance the quality of education offered. In bringing together representatives of different stakeholders, it lays the groundwork for broadened and shared decision-making. A school shall constitute a School Management Committee consisting of the elected representatives of the local authority, parents or guardians of children admitted in such school and teachers:
  • Provided that at least three-fourth of members of such Committee shall be parents or guardians
  • Provided further that proportionate representation shall be given to the parents or guardians of children belonging to disadvantaged group and weaker section
  • Provided also that fifty per cent of members of such Committee shall be women.

The School Management Committee shall perform the following functions, namely:

  • monitor the working of the school
  • prepare and recommend school development plan
  • monitor the utilisation of the grants received from the appropriate Government or local authority or any other source
  • perform other such functions as may be prescribed

Provided that the School Management Committee constituted under sub-section (1) in respect of a school established and administered by minority whether based on religion or language, and all other aided schools as defined in sub-section (ii) of clause (n) of section 2, shall perform advisory function only.

Hence, we conclude that encouraging parents to punish their child not a function of the School Management Committee as per the Right to Education Act, 2009.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

The characteristics of a reflective thinking learner are
1. Always ask ‘why?'
2. Predominantly subject centered.
3. Relate new information to past experiences.
4. Students only cram the facts.
5. Examine their feelings about what they are learning.
Select the correct options:

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 17

A Learner is a person who is eager to learn something practical, theoretical, skilful activity, in the field of mental, physical, academic, social, or emotional levels. The learner can learn by themselves with the guidance of seniors and interacting with the environment but the curiosity and zeal to learn is the reason for learning takes place.
Explanation
Learner characteristics on the basis of thinking styles:
There are different thinking styles of learners, which are mentioned below.
Reflective thinkers:

  • View new information with respect to the subject.
  • Relate new information to past experiences.
  • Always ask ‘why?’
  • Examine their feelings about what they are learning.

Creative thinkers:

  • Like to play with new information.
  • Always ask ‘why?’
  • Create their own solutions and shortcuts.

Practical thinkers:

  • Always look for factual information.
  • Seek the simplest and the most efficient way to do their work.
  • Not satisfied until they know how to apply their new skills to their job or other interest.

Conceptual thinkers:

  • Accept new information only after seeing the big picture.
  • Want to know how things work, not just the final outcome.
  • Learn the concepts that are presented but also want to know the related concepts that may not have been included.

Thus, the characteristics of a reflective thinking learner are:
1. Always ask ‘why?'
3. Relate new information to past experiences.
5. Examine their feelings about what they are learning.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 18
Which is a responsible cause of growing indiscipline in schools ?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 18

We need to see discipline essentially as a code of conduct binding both the teacher and her students in a relationship of mutual respect, not as rules and punishment for breaking them. The ability to control a group of a student depends on the personality of the teacher and also the rapport that she develops with them. There are some tips to be kept in mind.

Explanation

Responsible cause of growing indiscipline in schools:

  • Loss of Respect for Teachers
  • Lack of Ideals
  • Defective Educational System
  • Effective Freedom-Fight
  • Lack of leadership qualities among school principals and teachers
  • The inability of teachers to inspire and motivate students
  • The inability of the teaching profession to attract excellent teachers.

Thus from the above-mentioned points, it is clear that one of the responsible causes of growing indiscipline in schools is the lack of leadership by teachers.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 19
Select the favorable conditions required for the formation of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli.
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 19

Concept:

  • Hemoglobin is a respiratory pigment that transports both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
  • About 98 percent of oxygen is transported with the help of hemoglobin.
  • One hemoglobin molecule binds to four oxygen molecules.

Explanation:

  • The partial pressure of oxygen is highest in the alveoli.
  • In alveoli, oxygen binds to hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin.
  • Different factors affect the binding of oxygen with hemoglobin.
  • Favorable conditions for the formation of oxyhemoglobin are-high partial pressure of oxygen, low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low temperature, and less hydrogen ion concentration.
  • Hemoglobin has an affinity for both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
  • The decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases the affinity of binding oxygen with hemoglobin.
  • High pH or less of hydrogen ion causes deprotonation and thus stabilizes the hemoglobin and increases the oxygen binding affinity with hemoglobin.
  • These conditions are present in alveoli and thus promote the formation of oxyhemoglobin.
  • The binding of oxygen with hemoglobin can be explained using an oxygen-dissociation curve.

So, the correct answer is 4.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 20
The milk obtained from the transgenic cow 'Rosie' was
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 20
Explanation
  • The first transgenic cow was called Rosie and was produced in 1997.
  • It was genetically engineered to produce human protein-enriched milk.
  • This milk contained 2.4gms of human α-lactalbumin per litre of milk.
  • Normal cow milk does not contain this protein.
  • Thus, the milk from the transgenic cow was nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural cow milk.

Therefore, both the options (2) and (3) are correct.

Transgenic cow 'Rosie'

Other Related Points

  • Transgenic animals refer to those that have had their genomes modified to possess and express a foreign gene.
  • Reasons for production of transgenic animals:
  1. Study of Physiology & Development -
    • Study of how genes and their regulation affects the physiological functioning of the body.
    • Complex growth factors like insulin can be studied.
  2. Study of Diseases -
    • Transgenic animals serve as model organisms for studying human diseases.
    • They help in understanding the disease development process from genes.
    • They are also used for investigating new treatment methods.
    • Transgenic models exist for diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer's.
  3. Biological Products -
    • Many biological products that are essential for formulating medicines of use are often expensive.
    • These products can be obtained easily from transgenic animals.
    • This can be achieved by just introducing the gene responsible for the desired product into a suitable organism.
    • Example - Alpha-1 antitrypsin is a human protein that is required for emphysema treatment.
  4. Vaccine Safety -
    • Transgenic mice can be used to test safety of vaccines before using for humans.
  5. Toxicity Testing -
    • Transgenic animals can be made more sensitive to certain chemicals or drugs.
    • These animals are exposed to the toxic substances and their effects are then studied.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 21
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 21

Explanation

  • Cloning vectors are defined as molecules that can carry a foreign DNA fragment when inserted into it.
  • They are a crucial tool for genetic engineering.
  • Retroviruses have the special feature of having RNA as the genetic material, which is converted to DNA by reverse transcriptase enzyme.
  • This feature of retrovirus helps in introducing the complementary DNA (cDNA) into the vectors.
  • Retroviruses also have the ability to replicate efficiently within cells of higher animals.

Therefore, retrovirus is used as a vector for introducing DNA fragment in human lymphocytes.

Explanation:

  • Lymphocytes are used in gene therapy for the treatment of ADA deficiency.
  • ADA or adenosine deaminase is an enzyme that is produced mainly in the lymphocytes and is crucial for the immune system.
  • The deficiency is caused by the deletion of the gene encoding ADA.
  • Thus, this is treated by gene therapy procedure, where a functional ADA gene is introduced into the patient.
  • Process:
    • The lymphocytes are first obtained from the patient blood and then grown in culture medium in vitro.
    • A cDNA for functional ADA is introduced into the lymphocytes using retroviral vectors.
    • These genetically engineered lymphocytes are then returned to the patient.
    • These lymphocytes, having the functional ADA gene, produce ADA in the patient.
  • The patient then requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

Direction: The question has four alternate choice, only one of which is the correct answer.

Assertion (A) A morphology based approach to taxonomy is called alpha taxonomy and it is old-fashioned.

Reason (R) A multidisciplinary approach to taxonomy called omega taxonomy is favored in recent years. As it excludes morphological features.

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 22

Correct Answer: Option 3

Concept:

  • The term taxonomy was first introduced by A.P. de Candolle (1813) for the theory of plant classification. Later on, the term was accepted for zoological classification as well.
  • Taxonomy can be defined as the study of principles, rules, and procedures of classification.
  • All living organisms are arranged into different groups based on their similarities and dissimilarities in them.
  • These groups are referred to as ranks or categories. All the categories together are referred to as taxonomic hierarchy.
  • Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species are the compulsory categories in a taxonomic hierarchy.
  • Sub-order, sub-family, etc. are facultative categories that are used as per need.

Explanation:

  • Alpha taxonomy:
    • It is also referred to as classical taxonomy.
    • The classification of organisms under this category of taxonomy is based on the external morphology of the organism.
    • The newly found organisms under this taxonomy are identified, named, and characterized based on the Linnaeus system of nomenclature.
  • Omega taxonomy:
    • Omega taxonomy is also referred to as encyclopedic taxonomy.
    • It is the broadest category of taxonomy.
    • It is a modern experiment taxonomy that takes into account the data from various disciplines of biology.
    • Data from various disciplines like cytogenetics, phytochemistry, ecology, embryology, serology, etc. are used in omega taxonomy.
    • Omega taxonomy also takes into consideration the morphology of the organisms while grouping them.

  • ASSERTION: A morphology-based approach to taxonomy is called alpha taxonomy and it is old-fashioned.
    • This statement is true.
    • Alpha taxonomy is a classical system of taxonomy.
    • In this system organisms/plants are grouped based on their morphological aspects.
  • REASON: A multidisciplinary approach to taxonomy called omega taxonomy is favored in recent years. As it excludes morphological features.
    • ​This statement is false.
    • Omega is a modern experiment taxonomy.
    • It takes into account data from various disciplines of biology and includes morphological aspects of an organism/plant.
  • Thus from the above explanation, the assertion is true but the reason is false.

So the correct answer is option 3.

KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

Red drop effect was studied by

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 23

The correct answer is Emerson.
Concept:

  • The photosynthetic pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical Light Harvesting Complexes (LHCs) known as Photosystem-I (PS-I) and Photosystem-II (PS-II).
    • In Photosystem-I, the reaction centre or chlorophyll-a has peak of absorption at 700nm, known as P700.
    • In Photosystem-II, the reaction centre has absorption peak at 680nm hence, called P680.

Explanation:

  • Emerson discovered the red drop effect as a result of Photosystem II's photochemical activity being disrupted.
  • Because wavelengths beyond 700nm are useless for photosynthesis, a significant drop in efficiency is observed at 700nm.
  • This phenomenon of reduced photochemical efficiency at wavelength above 680nm is known as the red drop effect.
  • The red drop effect is visible in the red part of the spectrum and results in a decrease in photosynthesis efficiency.
  • In other words, after 680nm, the quantum yield decreases.
  • The quantum yield is the number of oxygen molecules released per quanta of light.
  • This decrease in quantum yield can be seen in the red region of the light spectrum.
  • As PS II operates at a wavelength of 680nm, its disruption would mean that only PS I, whose optimum wavelength is 700nm, is operational.
  • As a result of the disruption of PS II's photochemical activity, the Red Drop effect is observed.

Important Points

  • Emerson also showed that the Emerson Enhancement Effect.
  • This phenomenon shows that when red and far-red light is given simultaneously, the quantum yield increases.
  • This increased rate of photosynthesis is higher than the sum of the yields of red light and far-red light taken separately.

Other Related Points

  • Van Niel was a microbiologist who made a significant contribution on the basis of his studies of purple and green sulphur bacteria (photosynthetic bacteria) in understanding photosynthesis.
  • Calvin used Chlorella as an experimental material and discovered the first stable product of photosynthesis.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

The term ‘Founder effect’, in population genetics, is used to indicate?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 24

The correct answer is 1 only.

  • The term ‘Founder effect’, in population genetics, is used to indicate reduced genetic variation as compared to the original population.

Explanation

  • The term "founder effect" refers to the observation when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger population and establishes a new population.
    • The particular alleles may not be representative of the larger population.
    • As the new population grows, the allele frequencies will usually continue to reflect the original small group.
  • A founder effect occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population.
  • This small population size means that the colony may have:
    • reduced genetic variation from the original population.
    • a non-random sample of the genes in the original population.

Important Points

  • A population bottleneck or genetic bottleneck is a sharp reduction in the size of a population.
    • It is due to environmental events such as famines, earthquakes, floods, fires, disease, and droughts or human activities such as genocide and human population planning.
    • The frequency of certain alleles in a population change because the organisms that carry them are eliminated.
    • The others increase in number because they are the only alleles left.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 25
Nephritis is a medical condition that affects the ______.
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 25

The Correct Answer is "kidney".

Important Points

  • Nephritis is a condition in which the nephrons, the functional units of the kidneys, become inflamed.
  • This inflammation, which is also known as glomerulonephritis, can adversely affect kidney function.
  • The kidneys are bean-shaped organs that filter the blood circulating the body to remove excess water and waste products from it.
  • There are many types of nephritis with a range of causes. While some types occur suddenly, others develop as part of a chronic condition and require ongoing management.

Other Related Points

  • There are several different types of nephritis, including:
  • Acute glomerulonephritis:
    • This form of nephritis can develop suddenly after a severe infection, such as strep throat, hepatitis, or HIV.
    • Lupus and rarer disorders, such as vasculitides and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), can also lead to acute inflammation of the kidneys.
    • A person with these conditions will require prompt medical attention during a flare-up to reduce kidney damage.
  • Lupus nephritis:
    • Lupus is an autoimmune disease, which means that the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues in the body.
    • Over half of all individuals with a lupus diagnosis eventually develop lupus nephritis.
    • This occurs when the immune system attacks the kidneys.
  • The symptoms of lupus nephritis include:
    • foamy urine
    • high blood pressure
    • swelling of the legs, ankles, and feet
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 26

The correct answer is Alanine.
Concept

  • An amino acid is a biomolecule that combines to form proteins.
  • Amino acids are organic compounds with a carbon side chain, an amino group, and a hydroxyl group.
  • All amino acids have the same fundamental structure, however, their carbon side chains differ.

Explanation
Amino acids can be classified into three groups, namely essential amino acids, and nonessential amino acids.
Essential Amino Acids:

  • Amino acids which cannot be synthesized or produced by the body and are required from food supplements are called essential amino acids.
  • There are 9 essential amino acids that include
    • Leucine,
    • Isoleucine,
    • Histidine,
    • Iysine,
    • Methionine,
    • Threonine,
    • Phenylalanine,
    • Tryptophan, and
    • Valine.

Non-Essential Amino Acids:

  • Amino acids which are produced or synthesized by our bodies and are not taken up as food supplements are called nonessential amino acids.
  • The non-essential amino acids are
    • Arginine,
    • Alanine,
    • Aspartic acid,
    • Asparagine,
    • Cysteine,
    • Glutamine,
    • Glutamic acid,
    • Proline,
    • Glycine,
    • Serine, and
    • Tyrosine.
  • Without these amino acids, our body will find it hard to make up the proteins it needs which are required for the repair, growth, and maintenance of cells.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 27
The divalent metal cation essential for DNA polymerase to be functional is:
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 27

Concept-

  • DNA polymerase is an enzyme that brings about the synthesis of one polynucleotide chain that is a copy of another in DNA replication.
  • A polymerase enzyme is called a replicase enzyme.
  • DNA is read by DNA polymerase in the 3′ to 5′ direction, meaning the new strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction.
  • In prokaryotes, DNA polymerase is of 3 types-
    • (1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase II (3) DNA polymerase III
  • In eukaryotes, DNA polymerase is of 5 types-
    • (1) α- DNA polymerase (2) β- DNA polymerase (3) γ- DNA polymerase (4) δ- DNA polymerase (5) ϵ- DNA polymerase

Explanation-

  • A feature of DNA polymerases is the use of divalent metal cations( Mg2+) to catalyze the formation of a new chain.
  • In the DNA polymerase site, two magnesium ions are positioned to facilitate the polymerization reaction.

Other Related Points

  • DNA polymerase I
    • It seprates RNA -primer from DNA.
    • It is also known as the DNA-repair enzyme.
  • DNA polymerase II
    • It is the least reactive enzyme.
  • DNA polymerase III
    • The main enzyme of DNA replication.
  • α- DNA polymerase
    • Help with lagging strand synthesis.
  • β- DNA polymerase
    • Help in DNA repair.
  • γ- DNA polymerase
    • Help in the replication of cytoplasmic DNA.
  • δ- DNA polymerase
    • Help in leading strand synthesis.
  • ϵ- DNA polymerase
    • Help in proofreading.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

Which of the following statement is correct?

Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 28

Explanation

  • Parthenium is an endemic species of our country - INCORRECT
    • ​Parthenium is an invasive or exotic species for our country.
    • Invasive species are those species that have been introduced into a habitat where it was not naturally found.
    • Endemic species refers to a species that is confined to a particular area and is not found elsewhere in the world.
    • Parthenium is a shrub that grows aggressively in our country as an invasive species.
  • African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes - INCORRECT
    • ​African catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is also an invasive species that has been illegally introduced in our country for aquaculture.
    • This species is a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.
  • ​Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal - CORRECT
    • ​Stellar's sea cow is an extinct animal species from Russia.
    • It got extinct due to overexploitation by humans.
  • ​Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass - INCORRECT
    • Parthenium is popularly known as carrot grass.
    • Lantana is another invasive species in our country.

Other Related Points
Major causes for loss of biodiversity:

  • Habitat loss and fragmentation - Loss of habitat of several species have occurred due to deforestation and pollution.
  • Overexploitation - Overuse and overharvesting of species has led to extinctions of many species.
  • Invasive species - Exotic species become invasive as they survive better in the absence of their natural competitors/predators.
  • Coextinctions - The species that live in obligatory associations face the same threats of extinction.
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 29
Which of the following is not an endangered species?
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 29

The correct answer is Peacock

Explanation

  • Endangered animals
    • Species that are in danger of going extinct are considered to be endangered species. Simply stated species that are on the verge of extinction.
    • Endangered animals are also known as species whose numbers are at a very low level and can be vanished in near future.
    • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists them and created a list known as the red list.
    • The National Wildlife Refuge System then provides specific protections to the animals on this list.
  • Hunting, habitat loss, climatic changes, diseases, pollution, and other natural disasters are some of the reasons that endanger the survival of animals and plants.
  • Currently, the rate of extinction is also increasing significantly more rapidly due to human activities like industrialisation and deforestation.
  • Numerous organisations and NGOs were inspired to start initiatives and projects to rescue wildlife have been started by both the government and non-governmental organisations (NGOs).

Other Related Points

  • The Indian rhino, a great one-horned rhino is the largest of the rhino species.
  • The Asiatic lion is a population of Panthera leo Leo that today gets through in the wild only in India.
  • The great Indian bustard or Indian bustard is a bustard present on the Indian subcontinent.
  • Some examples of endangered species are:
    Monarch butterfly
    Javan rhinoceros
    Lion-tailed monkey
    Leatherback turtle
    Bluefin tuna
    Lesser florican
    Magellanic penguin
    Mountain gorilla
KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 30
In dicot plants, the tap root is formed from -
Detailed Solution for KVS PGT Biology Mock Test - 8 - Question 30

The correct answer is Radicle.

Explanation

  • Dicot plants are characterized by having two cotyledons on their seeds, tap roots, primary and secondary roots, and reticulate venation in the leaves.
  • The taproot system consists of one thick, cylindrical main root called as the primary root.
  • Primary root bears lateral roots of several orders, which are known as secondary roots.

Important Points

  • In dicot plants, tap roots are formed from radicles.
  • The radicle is called an embryonic root which is the first part of a seedling to emerge from the seed during seed germination.
  • During seed germination in dicot plants, the radicle grows vertically downward to develop the tap root.
  • This type of root system is thick, deeply settled, and difficult to remove.
  • Taproots exhibit acropetal succession, i.e. younger roots are found closer to the growing end of the tap root, while older roots are found closer to the base of the stem.
  • The functions of taproots are to provide a strong anchorage to the plant, absorb nutrition and water from the soil, and store food produced by the plants.

Hence, the correct option is 2) Radicle.

Other Related Points

  • Adventitious root-
    • In some plants, roots originate from different plant parts other than radicle, such as leaves, stems, stem nodes, and brunches, these roots are called adventitious roots.
    • Hanging roots of the Banyan tree, climbing roots of betel, and stilt roots of maize, sugarcane, etc. are some examples of adventitious roots.
  • Plumule-
    • During seed germination, the plumule grows vertically upward to form the shoot system of the plant.
  • Fibrous root-
    • Fibrous roots are bushy and highly branched roots found mostly in monocotyledonous plants. E.g., maize, wheat, etc.
    • In monocots, the primary roots are short-lived and die soon after their development.
    • These taproots eventually transform into fibrous roots.
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