Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - April 2025 - UPSC MCQ

1. Statement 1: The new Pamban Bridge is indeed the first vertical lift railway sea bridge in India. It is engineered to support the passage of both heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains, such as the Vande Bharat. This statement is correct.

2. Statement 2: The Ottawa Convention, also known as the Mine Ban Treaty, was adopted in 1997. It has significantly contributed to the reduction of the global stockpile of anti-personnel landmines, with over 40 million stockpiled mines being destroyed as a result of the treaty. This statement is correct.

3. Statement 3: The restoration of the old Pamban Bridge in 1964 was indeed a remarkable engineering feat led by E. Sreedharan. The repair work, which was necessitated by the damage from the 1964 tsunami, was completed in just 46 days, highlighting Sreedharan's notable engineering prowess. This statement is correct.

Therefore, all three statements are accurate, making Option D the correct answer.

The Ottawa Convention's primary goal is to prohibit the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines globally. By doing so, the convention aims to contribute to a safer environment, reduce civilian casualties, and facilitate mine clearance efforts in affected regions. This international treaty has played a crucial role in promoting peace and security by addressing the humanitarian consequences of landmines.

1. Warangal Chapata Chilli - Known for its high spiciness and lack of color.

This pair is incorrectly matched. Warangal Chapata Chilli is actually known for its bright red color and less spiciness. It lends a bright red color with extensive flavor due to its capsicum oleoresin properties.

2. Kannadippaya - A tribal handicraft from Kerala made from reed bamboo.

This pair is correctly matched. Kannadippaya is indeed a tribal handicraft from Kerala, recognized with a GI tag, and is made from the soft inner layers of reed bamboo (Teinostachyum wightii).

3. ChaSTE - A probe used for temperature measurement on Mars.

This pair is incorrectly matched. ChaSTE (Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment) was part of India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission and was used to measure subsurface temperatures on the Moon, not Mars.

4. Banaganapalli Mango - Telangana's first agricultural GI-tagged product.

This pair is correctly matched. Banaganapalli Mango is indeed one of Telangana's agricultural products that received the GI tag.

Thus, only two pairs (Kannadippaya and Banaganapalli Mango) are correctly matched.

1. Shishu: Loans up to ₹50,000 - This pair is correctly matched. The Shishu category under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) offers loans up to ₹50,000 for new or small businesses.

2. Kishore: Loans ranging from ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh - This pair is correctly matched. The Kishore category provides loans ranging from ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh for growing enterprises.

3. Tarun: Loans from ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh - This pair is correctly matched. The Tarun category is designed for more established businesses with greater capital needs, offering loans from ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh.

4. TarunPlus: Loan limit up to ₹15 lakh - This pair is incorrectly matched. The TarunPlus category, which was introduced in July 2024, has a loan limit of up to ₹20 lakh for larger businesses, not ₹15 lakh.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

1. Voter ID - Biometric Identifier: Incorrect. A Voter ID is not a biometric identifier. It is a functional ID used for voting purposes. Biometric identifiers, like fingerprints or iris scans, are not linked with a Voter ID inherently.

2. Aadhaar - Unique Identifier: Correct. Aadhaar is a unique identifier in India, as it is based on biometric and demographic data that are unique to each individual.

3. CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism: Correct. CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart) is indeed an online security mechanism used to distinguish between human users and automated bots.

4. INS Varsha - Western Coast of India: Incorrect. INS Varsha is located on the eastern coast of India, near Rambilli in Andhra Pradesh, and not on the western coast.

The correctly matched pairs are 2 and 3.

Statement-I correctly mentions the anticipated growth of the AI market to USD 4.8 trillion by 2033, a significant driver of global digital transformation. Statement-II also accurately states that around 100 companies, mainly from the U.S. and China, contribute to 40% of global corporate Research and Development (R&D) spending. However, the two statements are not directly related or explanatory of each other, hence option B is the correct answer.

1. Cost-Effective Method: This pair is correctly matched. Stubble burning is indeed the cheapest method for farmers to clear their fields quickly after harvest, allowing them to prepare for the next crop cycle without incurring high costs for labor or machinery.

2. Government's Focus on High-Yield Crops: This pair is correctly matched. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) policy encourages the cultivation of high-yield crops like rice and wheat, leading to monocropping. This results in the generation of excessive stubble that needs to be disposed of.

3. Debt and Economic Pressure: This pair is incorrectly matched. Instead of high profits, farmers face significant financial burdens and debt, making it difficult for them to invest in sustainable farming practices. They often sell crops at low prices to middlemen, leaving them with limited resources for alternatives to stubble burning.

4. Lack of Strong Enforcement or Support: This pair is correctly matched. Although stubble burning is punishable by law, enforcement is weak, and farmers often lack adequate support and infrastructure to adopt eco-friendly alternatives.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly identifies economic pressures as a significant factor leading to stubble burning among farmers. This aligns with the key takeaway that stubble burning is a prevalent practice due to economic reasons.
Statement-II correctly highlights the unintended consequences of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) policy, which indirectly encourages practices that worsen stubble burning. The MSP policy promotes the cultivation of high-yield crops like wheat and rice, contributing to monocropping and increased stubble burning. However, Statement-II does not directly explain why stubble burning remains a prevalent practice due to economic pressures, making option (b) the correct choice.

1. Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW System - Developed by DRDO's Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS): Correct. The Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW system, also known as Sahastra Shakti, was indeed developed by DRDO's Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS) in collaboration with other DRDO labs and Indian industries.

2. Sahastra Shakti - Operational range of 10 km: Incorrect. The operational range of the Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW system, also known as Sahastra Shakti, is 5 km, not 10 km.

3. Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW System - Uses a 30-kilowatt laser: Correct. The Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW system employs a powerful 30-kilowatt laser to neutralize threats.

4. Sahastra Shakti - Designed to neutralize aerial threats such as drones and missiles: Correct. The system is specifically designed to address threats like drones, missiles, and remotely piloted aircraft using its laser technology.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly describes the use of atoms cooled to near absolute zero in the Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG) to enable them to enter wave-like states. This technology allows for precise measurements of gravitational forces.

Statement-II accurately describes the location of the Jwaneng Diamond Mine on the edge of the Kalahari Desert and mentions its use of advanced mining techniques to separate diamonds from rock. However, Statement-II does not provide information directly related to the QGG technology mentioned in Statement-I, hence it does not explain Statement-I.

Cloudburst events are characterized by intense rainfall over a small area within a short duration. One of the significant consequences of a cloudburst is the occurrence of flash floods and landslides. The rapid and excessive rainfall overwhelms drainage systems, leading to sudden inundation and posing risks to lives and property in the affected region. These events are particularly challenging to predict due to their localized nature and can have devastating impacts on the environment and communities residing in the area.

Statement-I correctly identifies Arctic amplification as a phenomenon where temperature rises in polar regions exceed those in other parts of the world. This is a well-established fact related to climate change dynamics.
Statement-II lists the factors contributing to Arctic amplification, including Ice-Albedo Feedback, Lapse Rate Feedback, Water Vapor Feedback, and Ocean Heat Transport. These factors indeed play crucial roles in the amplification of warming in the Arctic region.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a logical explanation for Statement-I, as the factors it mentions contribute directly to the phenomenon of Arctic amplification.

Polar orbits play a crucial role in satellite technology by enabling satellites to cover the entire Earth's surface over time as the planet rotates below. This feature makes them essential for Earth observation, climate monitoring, and reconnaissance missions. Satellites in polar orbits provide global coverage and are particularly useful for monitoring changes on the Earth's surface over time.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. NAFLD, now referred to as Metabolic dysfunction-associated steatotic liver disease (MASLD), is specifically characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver that is not linked to heavy alcohol consumption. This differentiates it from alcoholic liver disease, which is directly related to alcohol intake.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The primary recommendation for managing NAFLD involves lifestyle changes, specifically weight loss. Weight loss can significantly reduce liver fat, inflammation, and fibrosis, which are critical in preventing the progression of NAFLD to more severe liver diseases like cirrhosis or liver cancer.

3. Statement 3 is correct. NAFLD is particularly prevalent among individuals with obesity and type 2 diabetes. These conditions are significant risk factors for the development of NAFLD, affecting individuals across all age groups, including children.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option D the right answer.

1. Tribhuvandas Patel : Founder of Amul

- Correct. Tribhuvandas Patel played a pivotal role in founding the Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers’ Union, which is famously associated with Amul. He is recognized as a key figure in the cooperative movement in India.

2. NITI NCAER States Economic Forum : Initiative by NITI Aayog and NCAER

- Correct. The NITI NCAER States Economic Forum is indeed a collaborative initiative by NITI Aayog and the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER).

3. NEP 2020 : Focuses on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy by Class 2

- Correct. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes the importance of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy, aiming for every child to acquire these skills by Class 2.

4. Exercise Tiger Triumph : Conducted between India and China

- Incorrect. Exercise Tiger Triumph is a tri-service exercise conducted between India and the United States, focusing on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Hence, only three pairs are correctly matched.

To determine the correct answer, let's examine each statement:

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. ChaSTE successfully penetrated the lunar soil to a depth of 10 cm and continuously monitored temperature variations. This is one of the main achievements of the ChaSTE experiment, as it gathered critical data on lunar surface temperatures.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. ChaSTE measured in situ temperatures near the Moon’s south pole, not the north pole. The experiment's significance lies in its focus on the lunar south pole, where potential water ice deposits are a subject of interest.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The probe indeed features a rotation-based deployment mechanism, which was pivotal for its successful penetration of the Moon's surface. This mechanism allows the probe to be pushed downward effectively.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the accurate choice.

Both statements are factually correct. Statement-I highlights the strategic significance of Katchatheevu island in terms of its location and economic importance to Tamil Nadu. Statement-II correctly mentions the historical ownership settlement of Katchatheevu in favor of Sri Lanka through a 1974 agreement based on UNCLOS. Statement-II provides the context and explanation for why the ownership of the island is with Sri Lanka despite its proximity to India. Hence, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II explains the rationale behind the ownership status of Katchatheevu.

Statement-I discusses the successful penetration of lunar soil by Chandrayaan-3's ChaSTE experiment, which provided critical data on lunar surface temperatures and water ice deposits. This aligns with the details provided in the source material about the advancements made by ChaSTE in measuring temperatures near the Moon's south pole.

Statement-II refers to the Roman aqueduct discovered in Slovakia, highlighting the advanced engineering skills of the Romans in water management systems. Although not directly related to the Chandrayaan-3 mission, it is factually accurate based on historical information about Roman aqueducts.

Therefore, Option A is the correct answer as both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II complements Statement-I by showcasing a different historical example of advanced engineering in water systems.

The primary goal of the Ottawa Convention, or the Anti-Personnel Mine Ban Treaty, is to prevent civilian casualties caused by anti-personnel mines. These mines have been responsible for causing significant harm to civilians, even long after conflicts have ended. By banning the use, production, stockpiling, and transfer of anti-personnel mines, the treaty aims to reduce the suffering and casualties associated with these weapons. This international agreement underscores the commitment of the global community to protect civilians in conflict zones.

1. Victim Demographics: This pair is incorrectly matched. Victims of police torture in India are predominantly from marginalized groups, including Dalits, Adivasis, Muslims, illiterates, and slum dwellers, not upper-caste groups.

2. UN Convention Against Torture (UNCAT): This pair is incorrectly matched. India has signed but not ratified the UN Convention Against Torture, making it non-binding legally.

3. Judicial Apathy: This pair is correctly matched. There is consensus among legal professionals that magistrates often act as silent spectators and fail to adequately interact with the accused.

4. Human Rights Training: This pair is correctly matched. A significant majority of police personnel (79%) favor human rights training, as reported in the study.

Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched, making the total number of correctly matched pairs two.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. Although India signed the UN Convention Against Torture (UNCAT) in 1997, it has not ratified it. Therefore, the convention is not legally binding for India. Ratification is a necessary step for international treaties to become part of a country's legal obligations.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The "Status of Policing in India Report (SPIR) 2024" highlights that 55% of police personnel support using tough methods to instill fear among the public. This reflects a systemic issue within the police force regarding the use of force and the perception that fear is a necessary tool for law enforcement.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The SPIR 2024 report notes that there were zero convictions for custodial deaths from 2018 to 2022, indicating a significant lack of accountability within the law enforcement and judicial systems concerning cases of custodial deaths.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D. Statements 2 and 3 accurately reflect the findings of the report, while Statement 1 does not align with India's current legal status concerning the UNCAT.

1. Statement 1: The SAARC Development Fund was established in 2010 to finance social, economic, and infrastructure development across SAARC countries. - This statement is correct. The SDF was indeed established in 2010 with the purpose of supporting social, economic, and infrastructure projects within SAARC member countries.

2. Statement 2: The SDF's capital base is $1.5 billion, which is fully funded by USAID. - This statement is incorrect. While the SDF has a capital base and authorized funds totaling $1.5 billion, it is not fully funded by USAID. Instead, the SDF operates on a collaborative funding model, with contributions from SAARC member countries and development partners, not solely by USAID.

3. Statement 3: The Charter of the SDF was signed during the 15th SAARC Summit in Colombo. - This statement is correct. The Charter of the SAARC Development Fund was signed during the 15th SAARC Summit held in Colombo.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

Colossal Biosciences is primarily focused on reviving extinct species using advanced genetic engineering techniques. Their projects involve integrating genes from extinct species into the genomes of living animals to bring back characteristics of these ancient creatures. This approach aims to address conservation challenges and potentially restore biodiversity by leveraging genetic technology to resurrect species that have long been extinct.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Mahadayi River, also known as the Mandovi, originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Western Ghats, Karnataka. This aligns with the information provided about the river's origin and its geographical location.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalasa-Banduri Project does not aim to divert water to the Krishna River basin for agricultural purposes. Instead, it aims to supply drinking water to districts in Karnataka by diverting water from the Mahadayi River to the Malaprabha River basin.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is indeed located on Chorao Island in the Mahadayi River, which is a significant ecological site in the region.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option B the right answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Type 5 Diabetes primarily affects lean, undernourished teenagers and young adults in low- and middle-income countries, not obese individuals in high-income countries. This condition is distinct from Type 2 Diabetes, which is more commonly associated with obesity.

Statement 2 is correct. Type 5 Diabetes is indeed characterized by a malnutrition-induced reduction in insulin production. This is a key distinguishing feature of this form of diabetes and sets it apart from the more common Type 2 Diabetes, which is primarily related to insulin resistance.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike Type 1 Diabetes, which is associated with autoimmunity, Type 5 Diabetes does not have an identified autoimmune or genetic basis. It is primarily linked to nutritional deficiencies rather than autoimmune processes.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option C the correct choice.

In the Tamil Nadu Governor case, the Supreme Court utilized Article 142 as an innovative approach to protect legislative actions. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This judicial innovation was crucial in countering executive obstruction and ensuring the legislative intent behind the bills was upheld.

Statement-I is correct as Mount Lewotobi is indeed situated on Flores Island within Indonesia's East Nusa Tenggara province, along the Pacific's famous 'Ring of Fire.' Statement-II is also correct as the MacGregor Memorial Medal has been awarded since 1888, originally focusing on expeditions in regions such as Central Asia and Tibet. Furthermore, Statement-II explains the historical context and origin of the MacGregor Memorial Medal, aligning with the information provided.

1. Dopaminergic progenitor cells - Derived from embryonic stem cells: This pair is incorrectly matched. Dopaminergic progenitor cells used in the context of the Kyoto University research are derived from human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), not embryonic stem cells. iPSCs are reprogrammed from adult somatic cells to an embryonic-like state.

2. iPSCs - Generated from adult somatic cells: This pair is correctly matched. Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) are indeed generated from adult somatic cells, such as skin or blood cells, by reprogramming them to an embryonic-like pluripotent state.

3. Davis Strait - Located between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland: This pair is correctly matched. The Davis Strait is indeed a geographical location between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland.

4. Davis Strait proto-microcontinent - Formed due to strike-slip faulting along the Ungava Fault Zone: This pair is correctly matched. The Davis Strait proto-microcontinent resulted from the tectonic evolution involving strike-slip faulting along the Ungava Fault Zone, which contributed to the formation of the strait’s geological structures.

Therefore, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making a total of three correctly matched pairs.

1. K2-18b's Discovery: Incorrectly matched. K2-18b was discovered by the Kepler telescope in 2015, not the Hubble Space Telescope.

2. Hycean World Hypothesis: Correctly matched. The Hycean World Hypothesis indeed characterizes K2-18b as potentially having a hydrogen-rich atmosphere and possibly a liquid water ocean, which could support habitability.

3. Biomarker Detection: Incorrectly matched. While the presence of dimethyl sulfide (DMS) is significant, it is not confirmed as a definitive biological marker for life on K2-18b due to the complexity in differentiating DMS from dimethyl disulphide (DMDS) and the existence of non-biological sources.

4. Visa Revocation Issue: Correctly matched. The AI-assisted initiative related to visa revocations was indeed initiated by U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio, focusing on identifying visa holders with views considered contrary to U.S. foreign policy.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

1. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) used in Parkinson's treatment are derived from adult somatic cells and have the potential to differentiate into any human cell type. - This statement is correct. iPSCs are created by reprogramming adult somatic cells like skin or blood cells to an embryonic-like state, allowing them to differentiate into any cell type, including dopaminergic progenitor cells for Parkinson's treatment.

2. Traditional treatments for Parkinson's Disease primarily focus on restoring the lost dopaminergic neurons in the brain. - This statement is incorrect. Traditional treatments mainly involve dopaminergic medications that manage symptoms by increasing dopamine levels but do not restore or replace the lost neurons.

3. Stem cell therapy using iPSCs aims to replace the dopamine-producing neurons that are lost in patients with Parkinson's Disease. - This statement is correct. The goal of iPSCs in Parkinson's treatment is to generate new dopamine-producing neurons to replace those lost due to the disease.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.