Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - August 2025 - UPSC MCQ

Statement-I correctly highlights the implications of the SIR process in Bihar, emphasizing the requirement for voters to provide documentation, which challenges the traditional presumption of inclusion in the electoral system. Statement-II accurately portrays the Supreme Court's involvement in scrutinizing the ECI's actions, suggesting the need for more assertive intervention to safeguard the core values of the Constitution. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed explains the context provided in Statement-I.

The Digital Payments Index (DPI) introduced by the Reserve Bank of India aims to gauge the level of digital payment adoption throughout India. This index serves as a tool to track the usage, infrastructure, and growth of digital payments in the country, reflecting the increasing trend towards digital payment methods.

- Statement 1 is correct. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 indeed aims to achieve universal Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) by 2030 as part of its initiative to integrate preschool classes into government schools, which is a significant step towards improving foundational learning and reducing educational inequities.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The NEP 2020 does not emphasize the reorientation of Anganwadis to focus exclusively on preschool education for children aged 3-6. Instead, it suggests that Anganwadis should focus on the 0-3 age group through structured home visits and support for pregnant and lactating mothers, acknowledging their role beyond purely educational purposes.

- Statement 3 is correct. The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 was indeed a critical legislation that primarily redrew India’s political map based on linguistic lines, thereby shaping the federal structure of India to accommodate linguistic diversity while maintaining national unity.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Statement-I correctly mentions that the Alpine musk deer has been mistakenly replaced by the Himalayan musk deer in India's breeding programs, as highlighted in a report from the Central Zoo Authority.
Statement-II correctly states that the Central Zoo Authority oversees species management in zoos and conservation programs in India. However, Statement-II does not directly explain the context of Statement-I but provides additional relevant information about the overseeing body. Therefore, both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not specifically explain Statement-I, making option (b) the correct answer.

The new bill enacted by the ruling party in El Salvador primarily aims to permit unlimited presidential reelections, marking a significant shift in the governance structure of the nation. This legislative change allows the President to potentially hold office for an indefinite number of terms, impacting the political landscape of El Salvador.

The main goal of ICRISAT's AI-based Agromet Advisory Service is to offer real-time, tailored climate advisory services to smallholder farmers by leveraging Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning technologies. This service aims to provide localized, actionable weather and climate insights to assist farmers in making critical decisions related to sowing, irrigation, and pest management, thereby enhancing agricultural practices and supporting farmers in adapting to climate change.

Statement-I correctly mentions the occurrence of the third United Nations Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries (LLDC3) in Awaza, Turkmenistan, focusing on the challenges faced by 32 landlocked developing nations. Statement-II accurately describes the Awaza Programme of Action (2024–2034) and its emphasis on various priority areas such as Structural Transformation, Trade Facilitation, and Enhancing Adaptive Capacity. Statement-II elaborates on the theme of the conference and complements Statement-I by providing additional relevant information. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the context provided in Statement-I.

1. Dardistan - This pair is correctly matched. Dardistan includes regions like Chitral, Gilgit, Gurez Valley, and parts of Ladakh. These areas are historically associated with the Dard-Shin tribe.

2. Shina - This pair is correctly matched. Shina is indeed a language distinct from Kashmiri, spoken by the Dard-Shin tribe.

3. Chak Dynasty - This pair is incorrectly matched. The Chak Dynasty ruled Kashmir in the 16th century, but the British colonial period began much later, in the 19th century. Thus, it is incorrect to say they ruled before the British colonial period.

4. J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 - This pair is correctly matched. The Act allows the Lieutenant-Governor to nominate members to the J&K Assembly, including those from marginalized groups.

Three pairs are correctly matched, making Option C the correct choice.

1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Dard-Shin tribe is indeed primarily located in the regions of Dardistan, which includes areas such as Chitral, Yasin, Gilgit, Chilas, Bunji, Gurez Valley, and parts of northern Afghanistan. These regions are historically and geographically significant to the tribe.

2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Shina language spoken by the Dard-Shin tribe is not a dialect of the Kashmiri language. It is a distinct language with its own linguistic heritage, separate from Kashmiri.

3. Statement 3 is Correct: The Dard-Shin tribe is known for preserving their cultural traditions, including the practice of burning juniper leaves for land purification. This reflects their unique cultural practices among the Himalayan tribes.

The correct answer is Option C. Statements 1 and 3 accurately describe the cultural and geographical aspects of the Dard-Shin tribe, while Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the linguistic classification of the Shina language.

To determine which statements about the Indo-Burma Ramsar Regional Initiative (IBRRI) are correct, let's analyze each statement:
1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The IBRRI was indeed collaboratively developed by Ramsar National Focal Points from five countries, including Cambodia and Thailand, with the support of IUCN’s Asia Regional Office.
2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The governance structure of the IBRRI includes a Stakeholder Committee that provides technical and strategic guidance, promoting inclusive and transparent multi-stakeholder engagement in IBRRI activities.
3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The IBRRI Secretariat operates from the IUCN Asia Regional Office located in Bangkok, not from the Ramsar Convention Bureau in Gland, Switzerland.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B, as both statements 1 and 2 are accurate, while statement 3 is not.

1. Treaty of Tordesillas - Division of newly discovered lands between Spain and Portugal: Correct. The Treaty of Tordesillas, signed in 1494, was an agreement between Spain and Portugal to divide the newly discovered lands outside Europe along a meridian 370 leagues west of the Cape Verde islands (off the west coast of Africa).

2. Treaty of Versailles - Ended the First World War: Correct. The Treaty of Versailles was signed in 1919 and officially ended the state of war between Germany and the Allied Powers. It is one of the most famous treaties in history due to its harsh reparations and territorial changes imposed on Germany.

3. Treaty of Nanking - Ended the Opium War between the United States and China: Incorrect. The Treaty of Nanking, signed in 1842, ended the First Opium War between the United Kingdom and China. It marked the beginning of the era known as the "Century of Humiliation" for China, with significant concessions made to the British, including the cession of Hong Kong.

4. Treaty of Westphalia - Ended the Thirty Years' War in Central Europe: Correct. The Peace of Westphalia, signed in 1648, ended the Thirty Years' War in Central Europe and the Eighty Years' War between Spain and the Dutch Republic. It is often credited with laying the groundwork for modern state sovereignty and the international order.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

The relics discovered in Piprahwa are significant as they shed light on the distribution and preservation of Buddha's relics after his death. They contribute to the understanding of how relics were divided among various kingdoms and individuals following the Buddha's Mahaparinirvana. This archaeological find helps trace the journey of Buddha's relics across ancient India, highlighting the cultural and historical importance of stupas as centers of Buddhist worship and pilgrimage.

The Assam government's intensified eviction drives primarily aim to protect the interests of the local community. These actions are rooted in a commitment to safeguarding land and heritage for the benefit of the local population. By initiating these drives, the government seeks to address concerns related to encroachments on forest and government lands, particularly affecting specific communities while upholding the rights and interests of the local populace.

1. Statement 1: Correct. The eviction drives in Assam trace back to a Gauhati High Court order in 2016, which sought the reclamation of forestlands. This aligns with the historical background provided, indicating that the first eviction drive was indeed initiated in September 2016 following the court's directive.

2. Statement 2: Incorrect. While inter-State border disputes are exacerbated by the eviction drives, the primary aim of the Assam eviction policy is rooted in an anti-infiltration narrative targeting specific communities, such as Bengali-speaking Muslims. It is not primarily focused on addressing border disputes, though these disputes are a consequence of the evictions.

3. Statement 3: Correct. The 2021 eviction incident in Darrang district did result in fatalities and raised significant concerns regarding human rights violations and political motivations. This incident amplified the controversy surrounding the eviction drives and highlighted the potential underlying political motivations and human rights issues involved.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

The Balfour Declaration, issued in 1917, was a pivotal event that significantly impacted the geopolitical landscape of the region by expressing Britain's support for a Jewish homeland in Palestine. This declaration played a crucial role in shaping the dynamics and conflicts in the Middle East, particularly in relation to Israel and Palestine.

Statement-I correctly defines legal insanity as a mental state that can excuse legal responsibility for a crime by establishing that the defendant was unable to comprehend the nature of their actions or discern right from wrong. Statement-II complements this by explaining the evidential requirement for proving legal insanity, emphasizing the need for psychiatric evaluations to demonstrate the lack of control over reasoning faculties during the incident. Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II indeed explains Statement-I.

1. Hyblaea puera: Major pest of teak trees - This pair is correctly matched. Hyblaea puera is indeed a significant pest that severely affects teak trees and mangroves. It is known for its destructive impact on teak plantations, causing defoliation.

2. HpNPV virus: Chemical pesticide used for teak pests - This pair is incorrectly matched. The Hyblaea puera Nucleopolyhedrosis Virus (HpNPV) is not a chemical pesticide; it is a biocontrol agent. It is a virus that provides an eco-friendly solution to combat the teak defoliator moth by causing lethal infections in pest larvae.

3. Legal Insanity: Defense in criminal law due to mental incapacity - This pair is correctly matched. Legal insanity is indeed a defense in criminal law. It is based on the premise that the accused was unable to understand the nature of their actions due to severe mental illness, thus negating legal responsibility for the crime.

4. Emotional Insanity: Temporary mental state at the time of crime - This pair is incorrectly matched. Emotional insanity refers to a mental condition characterized by intense emotional disturbance, but it is not specifically synonymous with a temporary mental state at the time of the crime. Temporary insanity is a separate legal concept that may exist at the time of the crime, but emotional insanity is not defined in these terms.

Thus, two pairs (1 and 3) are correctly matched.

The Hyblaea puera Nucleopolyhedrosis Virus (HpNPV) serves as a biocontrol agent aimed at combating the teak defoliator moth by preventing widespread defoliation of teak trees. By infecting the pest larvae, this virus helps in controlling the population of the moth and protecting teak plantations from economic losses caused by extensive defoliation.

The correct answer is (a) because the District Flood Severity Index (DFSI) does not solely focus on the magnitude of floods in a district. Statement-I is incorrect in isolation because the DFSI considers multiple parameters like mean flood duration, historical flood mapping, population impact, and casualties due to floods to provide a comprehensive assessment of flood severity. Hence, Statement-II is correct and provides a more accurate representation of the DFSI's methodology.

- Statement 1 is correct: The information provided indicates that the headline CPI inflation indeed decreased from 4.8% in May 2024 to 2.82% by May 2025, while food inflation remained problematic, evidenced by the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) reaching 10.87% in October 2024. This highlights a significant disparity between general and food inflation rates, affirming the correctness of the statement.

- Statement 2 is incorrect: The decline in the Gini coefficient reflects improvements primarily limited to the formal sector, not across both formal and informal sectors. The vast informal workforce remains largely excluded from these gains, which questions the extent of income equality improvement across the entire economy. Thus, the statement incorrectly suggests broader equality improvements than actually observed.

- Statement 3 is correct: The government's target to lower the fiscal deficit from 6.4% in 2022-23 to 4.4% in 2025-26 indicates significant fiscal pressure. High deficits necessitate substantial borrowing, potentially crowding out private investment and hindering economic growth. This accurately reflects the economic challenges related to fiscal policy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

1. International Court of Justice (ICJ) - The ICJ is indeed the main judicial body of the United Nations, but its rulings, especially advisory opinions, are not binding. Thus, the pair is incorrectly matched.

2. Indian Flapshell Turtle - This species is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This pair is correctly matched.

3. Eco-Sensitive Zone (BESZ) Regulations - These regulations have not been effectively enforced in Uttarakhand, as evidenced by the disasters resulting from governance failures and policy negligence. The pair is incorrectly matched.

4. Paris Agreement - This is a legally binding international treaty on climate change aiming to limit global warming to below 2 degrees Celsius. This pair is correctly matched.

Pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The concept of the creamy layer was indeed introduced following the Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) judgment. This landmark judgment laid down the principles for excluding the "creamy layer" from OBC reservation benefits to ensure that the most disadvantaged among the OBCs could benefit from reservations.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The creamy layer income ceiling has been revised several times since its inception. Starting with ₹1 lakh in 1993, it was increased to ₹2.5 lakh in 2004, ₹4.5 lakh in 2008, ₹6 lakh in 2013, ₹6.5 lakh in 2014, and finally to ₹8 lakh in 2017. These periodic revisions reflect the intent to adjust the income threshold in response to changing economic conditions.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The revision of the creamy layer income ceiling is mandated every three years according to Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) norms, not every five years. This ensures that the income criteria remain relevant and aligned with economic realities, thereby maintaining the efficacy of the reservation policy.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as these statements accurately reflect the information regarding the creamy layer policy in OBC reservations.

The main objective of the 'MERITE' Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet is to enhance technical education in government engineering institutions and polytechnics across all States and Union Territories in India. This scheme aims to improve the quality, equity, and governance in technical education, aligning with the National Education Policy-2020.

Statement-I

“India enjoys a merchandise trade surplus with the U.S. amounting to $41.18 billion in 2024–25.”
This is correct. India’s exports to the U.S. during FY 2024–25 were approximately $86.51 billion, while imports from the U.S. were around $45.33 billion, yielding a trade surplus of $41.18 billion 

Statement-II

“The U.S. tariffs targeting Indian exports and crude oil imports may lead to a decline in GDP growth and an increase in the current account deficit.”
This is also correct. U.S. tariffs on Indian goods—including a looming 50% rate tied to oil imports—are expected to reduce export competitiveness and shave off GDP growth, with estimates ranging from a 0.3 percentage point to up to a full 1 percentage point hit.
Moreover, avoiding these tariffs—particularly by reducing Russian oil imports—could raise India’s oil import bill by $9 billion to $12 billion, thereby widening the current account deficit.

Relationship Between the Statements

Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

• Statement-I simply states a fact about the trade surplus in FY 2024–25.

• Statement-II highlights potential future economic consequences from U.S. tariffs, which, while significant, do not explain why the trade surplus exists.

The correct option is:  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement 1 is correct. OCO-2 was indeed launched in July 2014 as a replacement for the failed OCO-1 mission. It has been operational and continues to provide valuable data on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.

Statement 2 is correct. The OCO program includes the capability to measure solar-induced chlorophyll fluorescence, which is used to assess plant photosynthesis. This feature helps in understanding the health and productivity of vegetation globally.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While data from the OCO program can have various applications, including environmental and climate change monitoring, its primary focus is not on military applications or national security. Instead, it is mainly used for climate science, identifying carbon sinks and sources, and supporting climate treaties.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Animal Birth Control (ABC) Program was indeed established under the Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, 2001, which fall under the broader Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. This legal framework provides the basis for the humane control of stray dog populations and the reduction of rabies.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023, explicitly prohibit the relocation of stray dogs as a population control measure. Instead, the rules mandate that sterilised dogs be returned to the area from which they were captured. This approach is intended to manage the stray dog population without resorting to relocation or culling.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: While the ABC Program does aim to sterilise at least 70% of the stray dog population within one reproductive cycle, it prioritises female sterilisation over male sterilisation at a ratio of 70:30 (female to male), not the other way around. The focus on female sterilisation is due to its greater impact on controlling the population growth.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

The core issue being examined by the Jammu and Kashmir High Court revolves around the constitutional validity of the 2023 amendments to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act. The High Court is assessing whether these amendments, which allow the Lieutenant-Governor to nominate members to the Assembly, violate the basic structure of the Constitution. This constitutional question is crucial as it delves into the fundamental principles of governance and democratic accountability in the Union Territory.

Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Satpura Tiger Reserve is indeed located in the Narmadapuram district (previously known as Hoshangabad district) of Madhya Pradesh. It encompasses three significant protected areas: Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary, and Pachmarhi Sanctuary. These areas collectively contribute to the reserve’s biodiversity and geological significance.

Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Indian government plans to significantly expand its nuclear energy capacity, and part of this plan includes the use of Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs). The recent policy changes allow private companies to engage in the financing and construction of these reactors, highlighting a strategic move towards energy self-reliance and innovation.

Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Operation Sindoor is not related to economic self-reliance through the reduction of petroleum imports. Instead, it is a defence initiative aimed at enhancing India's defensive capabilities using indigenous weapons to address security challenges. Therefore, it does not pertain to economic strategies for reducing petroleum import dependency.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

The National Gopal Ratna Awards 2025 primarily aim to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds to enhance productivity and sustainability in the dairy and livestock industry. By recognizing and rewarding outstanding contributions from various stakeholders like dairy farmers, cooperatives, and technicians, these awards play a crucial role in fostering the development of indigenous breeds, which are essential for the economy and sustainability of the sector.

1. Thunderstorms - 1,942 incidents: Correct. The data indicates that thunderstorms are indeed the most common extreme weather event in Jammu & Kashmir, with 1,942 incidents reported between 2010 and 2022.

2. Heavy Snowfall - 552 deaths: Incorrect. The number of deaths attributed to extreme weather events between 2010 and 2022 is 552, but heavy snowfall specifically caused 182 deaths during this period.

3. Landslides - 409 incidents: Incorrect. The number of heavy rain incidents is 409, while landslides accounted for 186 incidents.

4. Western Disturbances - Affecting only in winter months: Incorrect. Western Disturbances are now affecting regions outside their traditional winter months, increasing the likelihood of heavy rainfall and floods throughout the year.

Thus, only the first pair is correctly matched, and the correct answer is that only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.