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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test - Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th

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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

1. India's fiscal deficit for FY 2024-25 was 4.8% of GDP, amounting to Rs 15.77 lakh crore.

2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, was amended in 2018 to include a glide path for fiscal deficit reduction.

3. India's fiscal consolidation efforts include increasing capital expenditure, which rose from 1.6% of GDP in FY 2014-15 to a planned 3.1% in FY 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 1

- Statement 1 is correct. India's fiscal deficit for FY 2024-25 was indeed 4.8% of GDP, which translates to Rs 15.77 lakh crore. This figure aligns with the fiscal targets set by the government for that financial year.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, originally enacted in 2003, was amended in 2018 to set new fiscal targets and a glide path for fiscal deficit reduction. This amendment aimed to provide a structured approach to reducing the deficit post-COVID-19 and aligning with recommendations for fiscal prudence.

- Statement 3 is correct. Part of India's fiscal consolidation efforts involves increasing capital expenditure to spur economic growth. The government has planned to increase capital expenditure from 1.6% of GDP in FY 2014-15 to a projected 3.1% of GDP in FY 2025-26. This increase is intended to enhance infrastructure development and is a critical component of fiscal policy aimed at stimulating long-term economic growth.

All three statements are accurate, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer. The solution confirms the veracity of each statement, ensuring that the answer aligns perfectly with the facts provided.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Reliable irrigation enables farmers to shift from traditional crops to high-value crops, enhancing land use efficiency.

Statement-II:
The Ladakh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) advocated for Ladakh's inclusion in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution for the protection of their land, jobs, and cultural identity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 2


Statement-I is accurate as reliable irrigation indeed allows farmers to transition from subsistence crops to high-value crops, thereby enhancing land use efficiency. Statement-II is also correct as it highlights the advocacy of LAB and KDA for Ladakh's inclusion in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution to safeguard their land, jobs, and cultural identity. Moreover, the second statement elaborates on the specific demands and movements within the region, providing a comprehensive view of the situation. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 3

What is one of the key demands of Ladakhis regarding their status under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 3

One of the significant demands of Ladakhis regarding their status under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is the implementation of land ownership restrictions. This demand aims to prevent outsiders from buying land in Ladakh to protect its delicate ecosystem and maintain the region's cultural and environmental integrity. Such restrictions are crucial for safeguarding the interests of the local population and preserving Ladakh's unique identity and heritage.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding money laundering in online gaming:

1. The process of money laundering in online gaming typically includes three stages: Placement, Layering, and Integration.

2. Online Real Money Gaming (RMG) platforms in India are currently regulated under a unified central gaming regulatory framework.

3. The Public Gambling Act, 1867, and the Prize Competitions Act, 1955, govern the gaming sector in India, but state laws vary widely.

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 4

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. The process of money laundering in online gaming does indeed include three primary stages: Placement (where illicit funds are introduced into the system), Layering (where the origins of the funds are obscured through transactions), and Integration (where the laundered money is withdrawn as legitimate earnings).

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Online Real Money Gaming (RMG) platforms in India are not currently regulated under a unified central gaming regulatory framework. Instead, the gaming sector is governed by the Public Gambling Act, 1867, and the Prize Competitions Act, 1955, along with varying state laws, leading to a fragmented regulatory environment.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The gaming sector in India is indeed governed by the Public Gambling Act, 1867, and the Prize Competitions Act, 1955, but state laws vary widely, contributing to regulatory fragmentation.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 is India's first comprehensive data protection law aimed at safeguarding individual privacy.

Statement-II:
The DPDP Act requires consent for processing personal data and includes specific provisions for minors and individuals with disabilities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 5


Statement-I correctly identifies the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 as India's first comprehensive data protection law aimed at safeguarding individual privacy. This aligns with the key takeaway from the provided information.
Statement-II accurately highlights that the DPDP Act requires consent for processing personal data and includes specific provisions for minors and individuals with disabilities. This statement complements Statement-I by providing additional details on the consent requirements of the DPDP Act, thus explaining Statement-I's assertion regarding the Act's focus on safeguarding individual privacy.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 6

What is the primary reason for the significant decrease in India's net foreign direct investment (FDI) from 2023-24 to 2024-25?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 6

The sharp decline in India's net FDI from 2023-24 to 2024-25 can be primarily attributed to increased repatriation and disinvestment by foreign firms. This outflow of funds back to their home countries impacted the net FDI inflows into India significantly during this period.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 7

Consider the following pairs regarding agricultural subsidies in India:

1. Fertilizer Subsidy - Provides free fertilizers to farmers.

2. PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) - Offers insurance against crop failure.

3. PM KISAN - Direct income support in cash to farmers.

4. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - Provides financial assistance for irrigation systems.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 7

1. Fertilizer Subsidy - Incorrectly matched. The Fertilizer Subsidy does not provide free fertilizers; instead, it makes fertilizers affordable by covering the difference between the production cost and the selling price.

2. PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) - Correctly matched. PMFBY offers insurance against crop failure, with a premium of 1.5-5% covered by the government, protecting farmers from financial loss due to adverse weather events or other natural calamities affecting crops.

3. PM KISAN - Correctly matched. PM KISAN provides direct income support in cash to farmers. Under this scheme, eligible farmers receive Rs 6,000 per year in three equal installments, directly transferred to their bank accounts.

4. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - Incorrectly matched. MSP is not related to financial assistance for irrigation systems. Instead, it guarantees minimum prices for 22 crops, aiming to ensure farmers receive a fair price for their produce and to prevent distress sales.

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 1 and 4 are incorrectly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

1. KS Puttaswamy Judgment - Recognized privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21

2. Data Fiduciaries - Individuals must maintain data accuracy and notify breaches

3. Data Protection Board of India - Responsible for grievance redressal and imposing penalties

4. Consent Requirement - Allows personal data processing without withdrawal options

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 8

1. KS Puttaswamy Judgment - Correctly matched. The KS Puttaswamy judgment indeed recognized privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Data Fiduciaries - Correctly matched. Data Fiduciaries are responsible for maintaining data accuracy, implementing security measures, notifying individuals in case of breaches, and erasing personal data once its purpose is fulfilled.

3. Data Protection Board of India - Correctly matched. The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is responsible for monitoring compliance, imposing penalties, and handling grievance redressal.

4. Consent Requirement - Incorrectly matched. The DPDP Act requires personal data to be processed for lawful purposes with the consent of the Data Principal, who can withdraw consent at any time. The statement inaccurately suggests that there are no withdrawal options.

Thus, only pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 9

What is the primary objective of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 9

The primary objective of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, is to ensure lawful data processing and protect digital personal data. This act is designed to safeguard individual privacy by requiring consent for processing personal data and imposing obligations on data fiduciaries to maintain data accuracy and security. By aligning with global frameworks like the EU's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the DPDP Act aims to establish a comprehensive data protection framework in India.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Daojali Hading is a Neolithic habitation site dating back over 2,700 years, situated in the Langting-Mupa Reserve Forest.

Statement-II:
The Neolithic Age marked the final phase of the Stone Age, characterized by the introduction of agriculture, permanent settlements, polished stone tools, and social structures.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 10


Statement-I correctly identifies Daojali Hading as a Neolithic habitation site in the Langting-Mupa Reserve Forest dating back over 2,700 years, as mentioned in the provided information. Statement-II accurately describes key features of the Neolithic Age, such as the introduction of agriculture, permanent settlements, polished stone tools, and social structures. Moreover, Statement-II explains the context and significance of Statement-I by providing additional information about the characteristics of the Neolithic Age that align with the archaeological findings at Daojali Hading. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II effectively elaborates on the relevance of Daojali Hading in the historical context of the Neolithic Age.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 11

What key aspect characterizes the Neolithic Age, also referred to as the New Stone Age?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 11

The Neolithic Age, or New Stone Age, is distinguished by the development of agriculture, including the cultivation of crops like wheat, barley, rice, and millet, as well as the domestication of animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats. This fundamental shift from a nomadic lifestyle to settled agriculture marked a significant advancement in human societal development during this era.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 12

What is the main purpose of the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system in India's agricultural sector?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 12

The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system in India's agricultural sector aims to provide direct income support to farmers by transferring subsidies directly in cash. This system helps ensure that the benefits reach the intended beneficiaries without leakages and inefficiencies commonly associated with indirect subsidies.

(Note: The DBT system is an important tool in enhancing transparency, reducing corruption, and empowering farmers to make independent financial decisions.)

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 13

Consider the following pairs regarding Neolithic sites and their key findings:

1. Daojali Hading, Assam - Polished double-shouldered celts and jadeite stones

2. Mehrgarh, Baluchistan - Potter's wheel and advanced metallurgy

3. Burzahom, Kashmir - Mud-brick houses and burial pits

4. Brahmagiri, Karnataka - Cord-marked pottery and grinding stones

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 13

1. Daojali Hading, Assam - Polished double-shouldered celts and jadeite stones: This pair is correctly matched. Daojali Hading is known for its polished double-shouldered celts and the discovery of jadeite stones, indicating potential trade links with East and Southeast Asia.

2. Mehrgarh, Baluchistan - Potter's wheel and advanced metallurgy: This pair is incorrectly matched. Mehrgarh is an early Neolithic site known primarily for early agriculture and mud-brick houses. The potter's wheel emerged later around 4500 BCE, and advanced metallurgy is not a key feature associated with Mehrgarh.

3. Burzahom, Kashmir - Mud-brick houses and burial pits: This pair is incorrectly matched. Burzahom is noted for its pit dwellings and burial pits, not mud-brick houses. The site is known for its evidence of early human habitation and unique burial practices.

4. Brahmagiri, Karnataka - Cord-marked pottery and grinding stones: This pair is incorrectly matched. Brahmagiri is primarily known for its megalithic structures and evidence of Neolithic habitation, but not specifically for cord-marked pottery and grinding stones.

Thus, only the first pair is correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the Neolithic site of Daojali Hading in Assam:

1. Daojali Hading is located within the Langting-Mupa Reserve Forest and was first discovered in the 1960s by T.C. Sharma and M.C. Goswami.

2. The site has yielded artefacts such as polished double-shouldered celts and cord-marked pottery, indicating the presence of advanced metallurgical activities.

3. The discovery of jadeite stones at Daojali Hading suggests ancient trade links with regions in East and Southeast Asia.

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 14

1. Statement 1 is correct. Daojali Hading is indeed situated within the Langting-Mupa Reserve Forest in Assam, and it was first uncovered during the 1960s by archaeologists T.C. Sharma and M.C. Goswami. This statement accurately reflects the historical discovery and geographical location of the site.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Daojali Hading has yielded artefacts such as polished double-shouldered celts and cord-marked pottery, there is no evidence from the provided information indicating advanced metallurgical activities at the site. The artefacts mentioned are indicative of Neolithic cultural practices rather than metallurgical advancements.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The presence of jadeite stones at Daojali Hading, which are also found in China, indicates potential ancient trade links with East and Southeast Asia. This discovery suggests a connection between the Neolithic inhabitants of the site and distant regions, highlighting the broader trade networks of the time.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as statements 1 and 3 are both accurate while statement 2 is not supported by the information provided.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 15

Why is the regulation of online gaming under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) deemed necessary in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 15

The regulation of online gaming under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in India is essential to mitigate financial crimes and protect user interests. By bringing online real money gaming under the purview of the PMLA, the authorities aim to enhance financial integrity, prevent money laundering, and safeguard users from fraudulent activities. This step is crucial in maintaining a secure and transparent online gaming environment, ensuring that users are not exploited by illicit operators and that financial transactions are conducted with integrity.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 16

Consider the following statements about the Indian pharmaceutical industry and recent technological advancements:

1. India is the largest producer of pharmaceuticals by volume globally and ranks 14th by value.

2. Generative AI is primarily used for improving supply chain efficiency in the pharmaceutical sector.

3. Blockchain technology is utilized for ensuring privacy, transparency, and traceability in the pharmaceutical supply chain.

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 16

- Statement 1 is correct. India is indeed the largest producer of pharmaceuticals by volume globally and ranks 14th by value. This is a well-documented fact that highlights India's significant role in the global pharmaceutical landscape, producing a large volume of generics and fulfilling a substantial portion of global vaccine demand.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. While Generative AI is used in the pharmaceutical sector, its primary applications include predicting molecular behavior, identifying new uses for existing medicines, and personalizing treatments. It is not primarily focused on improving supply chain efficiency, which is more associated with technologies like IoT and blockchain.

- Statement 3 is correct. Blockchain technology is extensively used in the pharmaceutical industry to ensure privacy, transparency, and traceability in the supply chain. It helps in securing access to medical records, tracking drug prices, and detecting counterfeit medicines, thereby enhancing the integrity and security of pharmaceutical operations.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023:

1. The DPDP Act applies only to personal data processed within India and excludes any data processing done outside India.

2. Data Fiduciaries are obligated to notify individuals in case of data breaches and erase personal data once its purpose is fulfilled.

3. The DPDP Act includes provisions for the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) to handle grievance redressal and impose penalties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 17

1. Statement 1: The statement is incorrect. The DPDP Act applies to personal data processed within India and also to data processing outside India if it pertains to offering goods or services in India. Therefore, it is not limited only to data processed within India.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. Under the DPDP Act, Data Fiduciaries have several obligations, including maintaining data accuracy, implementing security measures, notifying individuals in case of data breaches, and erasing personal data once its purpose is fulfilled.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The DPDP Act mandates the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI), which is responsible for monitoring compliance, handling grievance redressal, and imposing penalties.

Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 18

Consider the following pairs regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India:

1. Automatic Route: Requires prior approval from the relevant Ministry.

2. Government Approval Route: No need for prior approval, just inform RBI.

3. FDI Regulation: Governed by FDI Policy 2020 and FEMA (Non-debt Instrument) Rules, 2019.

4. Outward FDI: Investment by Indian companies in foreign countries.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 18

1. Automatic Route: Requires prior approval from the relevant Ministry.- Incorrect. Under the Automatic Route, investors do not require prior approval from the government. They only need to inform the RBI after making the investment.

2. Government Approval Route: No need for prior approval, just inform RBI.- Incorrect. The Government Approval Route requires investors to obtain prior approval from the relevant Ministry or department before proceeding with the investment.

3. FDI Regulation: Governed by FDI Policy 2020 and FEMA (Non-debt Instrument) Rules, 2019- Correct. FDI in India is indeed regulated by the FDI Policy of 2020 and the FEMA (Non-debt Instrument) Rules, 2019, under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

4. Outward FDI: Investment by Indian companies in foreign countries.- Correct. Outward FDI refers to investments made by Indian companies in foreign countries, indicating a shift in investment strategies.

Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 19

What was the theme of World Environment Day in 2025?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 19

The theme of World Environment Day in 2025 was "Beat Plastic Pollution." This theme aimed to raise awareness about the usage and disposal of plastic, highlighting the urgent need to address plastic pollution for environmental sustainability.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 20

Consider the following pairs regarding Ladakh's demand for Sixth Schedule status and related regulations:

1. Article 370: Special status to Ladakh.

2. Sixth Schedule: Provides for Autonomous District Councils in tribal areas.

3. LAHDC Act, 1997: Provides reservation for women in Leh and Kargil councils.

4. Article 244(2): Deals with the administration of tribal areas in northeastern states.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 20

1. Article 370: Incorrectly matched. Article 370 provided special autonomy to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, not specifically to Ladakh. After the abrogation of Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir lost its special status, and Ladakh was made a Union Territory without a legislature.

2. Sixth Schedule: Correctly matched. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas through Autonomous District Councils in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

3. LAHDC Act, 1997: Correctly matched. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) Act, 1997, includes provisions for governance in the Leh and Kargil regions, including the reservation of one-third of the seats for women in LAHDCs.

4. Article 244(2): Correctly matched. Article 244(2) relates to the administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule in the northeastern states of India.

Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India ranks among the top countries globally in solar, wind, and total renewable energy capacity.

Statement II: Solar capacity in India increased from 2.63 GW in 2014 to 108 GW in 2025, marking a 41-fold rise.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 21

Statement I: India indeed ranks among the top countries globally in solar, wind, and total renewable energy capacity, as mentioned in the additional details of the provided content.

Statement II: The statement correctly highlights the significant increase in solar capacity in India from 2.63 GW in 2014 to 108 GW in 2025, indicating a 41-fold rise. However, this statement does not directly explain why India ranks among the top countries in renewable energy capacity, hence both statements are correct independently but not interrelated to explain each other.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

1. World Environment Day 2025 Host - South Korea

2. World Environment Day 2025 Theme - Beat Plastic Pollution

3. India's Plastic Waste Contribution - 9.3 million tonnes per year

4. India's Solar Capacity in 2025 - 51 GW

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 22

1. World Environment Day 2025 Host - South Korea: This pair is correctly matched. South Korea is indeed the host for World Environment Day 2025.

2. World Environment Day 2025 Theme - Beat Plastic Pollution: This pair is correctly matched. The theme for World Environment Day 2025 is "Beat Plastic Pollution."

3. India's Plastic Waste Contribution - 9.3 million tonnes per year: This pair is correctly matched. India contributes approximately 9.3 million tonnes of plastic waste per year.

4. India's Solar Capacity in 2025 - 51 GW: This pair is incorrectly matched. India's solar capacity in 2025 is 108 GW, not 51 GW. The 51 GW figure refers to India's wind capacity.

Hence, three pairs are correctly matched: Pairs 1, 2, and 3. Pair 4 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

1. India contributes approximately 9.3 million tonnes of plastic waste per year, making it one of the top plastic-polluting countries globally.

2. The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' initiative is part of India's National Green Hydrogen Mission.

3. In 2023, 43% of India's plastic waste was single-use plastic, with weak enforcement of bans in some states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 23

- Statement 1 is correct. India contributes approximately 9.3 million tonnes of plastic waste per year, positioning it as a significant contributor to global plastic pollution.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' initiative is not part of India's National Green Hydrogen Mission. It is related to environmental sustainability efforts but is not directly linked to the Green Hydrogen Mission.

- Statement 3 is correct. In 2023, 43% of India's plastic waste consisted of single-use plastics, and there was weak enforcement of bans in certain states.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 24

Consider the following pairs related to the regulation and challenges of online gaming in India:

1. Placement: Illicit funds are introduced into the gaming ecosystem.

2. Tiered KYC Approach: Implemented to enhance accessibility based on user activity levels.

3. Cross-Border Issues: Easy coordination with foreign registered platforms.

4. Algorithmic Accountability: Ensures regular audits for fair gaming practices.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 24

1. Placement: Illicit funds are introduced into the gaming ecosystem. - This is correctly matched. Placement is the first stage in the process of money laundering, where illicit funds are introduced into the financial system.

2. Tiered KYC Approach: Implemented to enhance accessibility based on user activity levels. - This is correctly matched. A tiered KYC approach involves varying levels of user verification based on their activity, aimed at enhancing accessibility while ensuring security.

3. Cross-Border Issues: Easy coordination with foreign registered platforms. - This is incorrectly matched. Cross-border issues in online gaming refer to the difficulty in coordinating regulations with foreign-registered platforms, not ease.

4. Algorithmic Accountability: Ensures regular audits for fair gaming practices. - This is correctly matched. Algorithmic accountability involves regular audits of gaming platforms to ensure they operate fairly and ethically.

Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, but the question asks how many are correctly matched, and since pair 3 is incorrect, only pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the irrigation and cropping patterns in India:

1. Reliable irrigation infrastructure allows farmers to transition from traditional subsistence crops to high-value commercial crops.

2. The availability of irrigation alone is the primary determinant of cropping decisions in Indian agriculture.

3. Synchronizing irrigation infrastructure timing with the sowing season is crucial for maximizing agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: June 1st to 7th - Question 25

1. Statement 1 is Correct: Reliable irrigation infrastructure indeed allows farmers to shift from traditional subsistence crops, such as millets, to high-value commercial crops, like fruits, sugarcane, and cotton. This transition is facilitated by the increased assurance of water availability, which supports the growth of these more water-intensive and economically rewarding crops.

2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: While irrigation is a critical component in determining cropping patterns, it is not the sole factor. The data from 2011-12 to 2022-23 indicate that cropping decisions are influenced by a combination of factors including rainfall, market conditions, and immediate resource availability. Therefore, irrigation is one of many factors affecting crop choices.

3. Statement 3 is Correct: The timing of irrigation infrastructure is crucial. To maximize agricultural productivity and ensure sustainability, irrigation must be synchronized with the sowing season. If infrastructure is delayed, farmers might rely more on immediate factors like current rainfall and market prices, which can lead to suboptimal cropping decisions.

Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

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