Test: Weekly Current Affairs: March 22 to 31, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

What is ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society)?

• It is a centrally sponsored scheme for 2022-2027, that empowers adults aged 15 and above with basic literacy, numeracy, and critical life skills, promoting lifelong learning through volunteerism and access to regional language content on the DIKSHA Portal and ULLAS mobile app.

• The NPT is a landmark international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament. The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States. Opened for signature in 1968, the Treaty entered into force in 1970. On 11 May 1995, the Treaty was extended indefinitely. A total of 191 States have joined the Treaty, including the five nuclear-weapon States. More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement, a testament to the Treaty’s significance.
• Status and text of the Treaty
• The Treaty is regarded as the cornerstone of the global nuclear non-proliferation regime and an essential foundation for the pursuit of nuclear disarmament. It was designed to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons, to further the goals of nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament, and to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy
• To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA. The Treaty promotes cooperation in the field of peaceful nuclear technology and equal access to this technology for all States parties, while safeguards prevent the diversion of fissile material for weapons use.

• The Ministry of Labour & Employment has launched e-SHRAM portal, a National Database of the Unorganised Workers on 26th August, 2021.
• The e-Shram portal is a centralized database that helps to implement social security services for unorganized workers.
• It also helps to share information with stakeholders and provide a comprehensive database for national crises.
• The portal uses Aadhaar to deliver social security benefits and ensure that the benefits are portable to migrant and construction workers at their workplaces.
• Registration on portal is free.

The Manas river flows through Bhutan and Assam in India before it joins the right bank of the Brahmaputra river.

 

Let's evaluate each statement about the Manas River:

1. It is a river that flows between southern Bhutan and India.
   - This statement is correct. The Manas River flows through southern Bhutan and enters India in the state of Assam.

2. It is a right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
   - This statement is correct. The Manas River is indeed a right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: C: Both 1 and 2

Let's evaluate each statement about the Ring of Fire:

1. The Ring of Fire is a region characterized by high volcanic activity but no seismic activity.
   - This statement is incorrect. The Ring of Fire is actually characterized by both high volcanic activity and high seismic activity. It is known for its frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to the tectonic plate movements.

2. The Ring of Fire is primarily located in the Indian Ocean and is home to numerous coral reefs.
   - This statement is incorrect. The Ring of Fire is not primarily located in the Indian Ocean. It is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. It does not primarily contain coral reefs.

3. It is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic plate movements.
   - This statement is correct. The Ring of Fire is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions because it is located around the edges of the Pacific Ocean basin, where several tectonic plates meet and interact.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: A: Only One

• Context: Central banks, including the European Central Bank and the Bank of Spain, have introduced Project Gaia, utilizing artificial intelligence (AI) to evaluate climate-related financial risks.
• This innovative program addresses the lack of uniform reporting standards by analysing firm carbon emissions, green bonds, and net-zero commitment disclosures.
• The initiative aims to democratize climate risk research by potentially opening Gaia to the public as an online tool.

• Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Context: A modeling study suggests that a dormant subduction zone beneath the Gibraltar Strait could become active and migrate into the Atlantic Ocean, potentially forming an Atlantic “Ring of Fire” in about 20 million years.
• The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Europe from Africa.

About the Summit for Democracy:

• The Summit for Democracy, launched by the US in 2021, is a platform for democracies worldwide to share experiences, strengthen democratic institutions, protect human rights, and combat corruption. It aims to promote collaboration among democratic nations and advance initiatives for democratic renewal, including efforts to enhance technology for democracy and defend free and fair elections.

• The HRA was founded by a group of young men who were disillusioned by Gandhi’s tactics and what they felt was zealous preaching of “non-violence.”
• Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan, both of whom had a flair for poetry, were among the group’s founders. Others included Sachindra Nath Bakshi and trade unionist Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. Figures such as Chandra Shekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh would also join the HRA. Their manifesto released on January 1, 1925, was titled Krantikari (Revolutionary).
• It proclaimed, “The immediate object of the revolutionary party in the domain of politics is to establish a federal Republic of United States of India by an organized and armed revolution.

Gulmarg is located at a distance of 31 km (19 mi) from Baramulla and 49 km (30 mi) from Srinagar.
Kargil, Nubra Valley and Hemis are part of Ladakh

Let's evaluate each statement about the BhashaNet portal:

1. It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
   - This statement is correct. The BhashaNet portal is indeed developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) with support from the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI).

2. It provides an ecosystem to enable citizens to easily create, communicate, transact, process and retrieve information with ease in digital medium without language barrier.
   - This statement is correct. The primary objective of the BhashaNet portal is to provide an ecosystem that enables citizens to create, communicate, transact, process, and retrieve information in digital media without language barriers.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: C: Both 1 and 2

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

1. It applies uniformly to all states of India with tribal populations.
   - This statement is **incorrect**. The provisions of the 6th Schedule do not apply uniformly to all states with tribal populations. It specifically applies to certain tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

2. It provides for the administration of tribal areas by autonomous district councils.
   - This statement is **correct**. The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas by autonomous district councils. These councils have the power to make laws on certain specified matters, as provided in the Constitution.

3. It primarily deals with the division of powers between the Union government and the state governments.
   - This statement is incorrect. The 6th Schedule primarily deals with the administration and governance of tribal areas and the autonomous district councils. It does not deal with the division of powers between the Union government and the state governments, which is covered under other provisions of the Constitution.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: A: Only One

• Fourth Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) 2024 Report: The report is a collaboration between UNITAR’s SCYCLE Programme, ITU, and Fondation Carmignac. UNITAR specializes in innovative learning solutions to enhance global decision-making and support country-level action for a better future.
• WMO’s State of the Global Climate 2023 report
• Lancet’s ‘Global Burden of Disease’ Study

• Context: The United Nations World Water Development Report 2024, published by UNESCO on behalf of UN-Water on World Water Day
• World Water Day, observed annually on March 22, is a global initiative supported by the United Nations, dating back to 1993. This year’s theme is “Leveraging water for peace”

Let's evaluate each statement regarding Elections in India:

1. Absentee voters are those who are unable to physically cast their vote due to their service conditions.
   - This statement is correct. Absentee voters are those who cannot be physically present at their polling station to cast their vote due to their service conditions, such as members of the armed forces, government officials on duty, etc.

2. There is a facility for absentee voters to vote through postal ballots.
   - This statement is correct. Absentee voters in India can vote through postal ballots. This facility is provided to them so they can participate in the electoral process despite being away from their constituency.

3. The Returning Officer is appointed by the Election Commission of India and is the highest authority in the constituency.
   - This statement is correct. The Returning Officer (RO) is indeed appointed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and is the highest authority in the constituency for the conduct of elections. They are responsible for overseeing all aspects of the election process in the constituency.

4. Generally, the District Magistrate is the ex-officio Returning Officer in Lok Sabha elections.
   - This statement is correct. The District Magistrate (DM) of the district in which the constituency falls is generally appointed as the ex-officio Returning Officer for the Lok Sabha elections. The DM is responsible for the overall management of the electoral process in the district.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is correct.
- Statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: D: All four

• Context: Seven countries – Ecuador, India, Kenya, Laos, Philippines, Uruguay, and Vietnam – have initiated a program called the Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM) to address pollution from pesticides and plastics in agriculture.
• This initiative aims to combat the release of toxic persistent organic pollutants (POPs) into the environment caused by the use of harmful chemicals in farming
• FARM, led by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with support from the Global Environment Facility (GEF), intends to shift financial incentives towards farmers to adopt low- and non-chemical alternatives, promoting sustainable practices.
• By phasing out hazardous pesticides and Agri-plastics and encouraging better management standards, the program aims to prevent the release of over 51,000 tons of hazardous pesticides and 20,000 tons of plastic waste, while also reducing carbon dioxide emissions and protecting over 3 million hectares of land.

Who was Usha Mehta?

• She was a prominent figure in India’s freedom struggle, known for her role in establishing Congress Radio during the Quit India Movement in 1942. A law student in Bombay at the time, Mehta was deeply inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s call for civil disobedience. She played a pivotal role in setting up Congress Radio as an underground radio station to counter British censorship and provide uncensored news and information to the Indian public.
• Despite challenges, they succeeded in providing a vital voice for India’s freedom struggle, amplifying the call for independence and inspiring generations. When Mehta was released from Pune’s Yerawada Jail in March 1946, she was hailed in the nationalist media as “Radio-ben”. Conferred the Padma Vibhushan in 1998, Mehta died after a brief illness in 2000.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding postal ballots:

1. Members of the armed forces and government employees posted outside India are entitled to vote only by post.
   - This statement is correct. Members of the armed forces and government employees posted outside India are entitled to vote by post. They are considered as "service voters" and they vote through postal ballots.

2. Voters under preventive detention cannot vote by post.
   - This statement is incorrect. Voters under preventive detention are eligible to vote by post. In fact, they are specifically provided with the option to vote through postal ballots.

3. President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers have the option to vote by post.
   - This statement is correct. The President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers have the option to vote by post. This is due to their official duties and often being away from their registered constituencies.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: B: Only two

• S1: Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body. The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. The Commission celebrated its Golden Jubilee in 2001.
• S2: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• S3: The Commission transacts its business by holding regular meetings and also by circulation of papers. All Election Commissioners have equal say in the decision making of the Commission. The Commission, from time to time, delegates some of its executive functions to its officers in its Secretariat.

Nationally-determined contributions (NDCs) are voluntary commitments made by countries as part of the Paris Agreement on climate change. These commitments outline the actions that each country intends to take to address climate change, including targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to the impacts of climate change. Unlike legally binding agreements, NDCs are determined by each individual country based on their national circumstances, capabilities, and priorities. While the Paris Agreement itself is a legally binding international treaty, the NDCs themselves are not legally binding obligations. Therefore, option B is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the nature of NDCs as voluntary commitments.

• Context: Researchers at Jawaharlal Nehru University’s School of Biotechnology have developed an Artificial Intelligence-based tool to predict the metabolite content in neem fruits, specifically azadirachtin, which is used as a biopesticide.
• The AI model analyses images of neem leaves and fruits to classify them as having either low or high azadirachtin content, eliminating the need for expensive and cumbersome analytical equipment like high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).
• The model, trained using deep learning frameworks and synthetic image augmentation, achieved high accuracy in classifying fruit metabolite content.

Let's evaluate each statement about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):

1. It is an independent judicial body established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
   - This statement is correct. The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) is an independent judicial body established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

2. It has jurisdiction over disputes related to conservation and management of the living resources of the sea, protection and preservation of the marine environment and marine scientific research.
   - This statement is correct. ITLOS has jurisdiction over disputes concerning the interpretation and application of UNCLOS, including issues related to conservation and management of living resources of the sea, protection and preservation of the marine environment, and marine scientific research.

Based on the evaluation:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: C: Both 1 and 2

The statements most accurately refer to the Chalukyas. Let's break down why:

1. They developed the Vesara style of architecture.
   - The Vesara style of architecture, which combines elements of both the Nagara and Dravida styles, was indeed developed by the Chalukyas.

2. Their structural temples exist at Aihole, Badami, and Pattadakal.
   - These sites, Aihole, Badami, and Pattadakal, are famous for their structural temples built by the Chalukyas, showcasing their architectural achievements.

3. Their administration was highly centralized.
   - The Chalukyas had a highly centralized administration, especially under notable rulers like Pulakeshin II, who established a strong and efficient administrative system.

Based on the above analysis, the statements accurately refer to the Chalukyas.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Answer: B: Chalukyas

• Preventive detention entails the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court, aiming to prevent future offences rather than punish past ones.
• Governments enact preventive detention laws to ensure public safety and maintain social order.
• In India, Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards for individuals detained under such laws.
• It limits the duration of preventive detention to three months unless an Advisory Board approves an extension.
• The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention and make representations against it.
• Parliament has exclusive power to enact preventive detention laws for defence, foreign affairs, or national security reasons, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can enact laws for maintaining public order or essential services.
• Various laws in India, such as the National Security Act (NSA) and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), allow for preventive detention for up to 12 months without formal charges, with periodic review by an advisory board.

• Context: After five and a half months of conflict in Gaza, with significant casualties and displacement, the UN Security Council called for an immediate ceasefire.
• The Gaza Strip is a self-governing Palestinian territory on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea. It borders Egypt on the southwest and Israel on the east and north.