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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly - Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st for UPSC 2024 is part of Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly preparation. The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st below.
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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 1

What is one advantage of India's trade deficit, as discussed in the provided content?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 1

India's trade deficit can make exports more competitive globally by potentially leading to a depreciated currency, which in turn can make exports cheaper and more appealing in international markets. This advantage can enhance export activities and contribute to balancing trade dynamics.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding India's trade deficit:

1. India's services trade surplus in FY24 was larger than its merchandise trade deficit.

2. The Current Account Deficit (CAD) as a percentage of GDP was higher in FY24 compared to FY23.

3. The increase in net inflows in the capital account from FY23 to FY24 was primarily due to foreign direct investment (FDI).

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 2

- Statement 1: Correct. In FY24, India's services trade surplus was USD 162.06 billion, which is indeed larger than the merchandise trade deficit of USD 238.3 billion. The services surplus contributes significantly to offsetting the merchandise trade deficit.

- Statement 2: Incorrect. The Current Account Deficit (CAD) was reduced to USD 23.2 billion (0.7% of GDP) in FY24 from USD 67 billion (2% of GDP) in FY23. This indicates a decrease as a percentage of GDP, not an increase.

- Statement 3: Incorrect. The increase in net inflows in the capital account from USD 58.9 billion in FY23 to USD 86.3 billion in FY24 was primarily driven by foreign portfolio investment (FPI), not foreign direct investment (FDI).

Thus, only statement 1 is correct, making Option A the right answer.

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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 3

Consider the following pairs related to India's Trade Deficit:

1. Services Trade Surplus - USD 162.06 billion in FY24

2. Merchandise Exports - USD 776 billion in FY23

3. Current Account Deficit - USD 23.2 billion (2% of GDP, FY24)

4. Capital Account Balance - Net inflows USD 86.3 billion in FY24

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 3

1. Services Trade Surplus - USD 162.06 billion in FY24: This pair is correctly matched. According to the provided content, India's services trade surplus indeed amounted to USD 162.06 billion in FY24.

2. Merchandise Exports - USD 776 billion in FY23: This pair is incorrectly matched. The content mentions that merchandise exports reached USD 776 billion, which is not accurate as the actual figure for merchandise exports was lower. It seems there might be confusion with the overall trade figures.

3. Current Account Deficit - USD 23.2 billion (2% of GDP, FY24): This pair is incorrectly matched. The content states that the current account deficit was USD 23.2 billion but at 0.7% of GDP, not 2% of GDP. The percentage of GDP mentioned is incorrect.

4. Capital Account Balance - Net inflows USD 86.3 billion in FY24: This pair is correctly matched. The given content confirms that net inflows in the capital account increased to USD 86.3 billion in FY24.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India's trade deficit is not necessarily a sign of weak manufacturing but rather reflects its strength in services and attractiveness as an investment destination.

Statement-II: India's current account deficit (CAD) was reduced to USD 23.2 billion (0.7% of GDP, FY24) from USD 67 billion (2% of GDP, FY23).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 4

Statement-I correctly highlights that India's trade deficit is not solely a reflection of weak manufacturing but underscores the strength in services and its attractiveness for investments. Statement-II accurately states the reduction in India's current account deficit from USD 67 billion to USD 23.2 billion, indicating an improvement in the country's financial health. Additionally, the decrease in CAD as a percentage of GDP from 2% to 0.7% further supports the notion that both statements are correct and interconnected.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 5

What was the theme of the Global Soil Conference 2024?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 5

The theme of the Global Soil Conference 2024 was "Caring Soils Beyond Food Security: Climate Change Mitigation & Ecosystem Services." This theme underscores the conference's focus on the broader implications of soil health beyond food security, highlighting the crucial role of soil in mitigating climate change and supporting ecosystem services.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding soil health and management in India:

1. Over 30% of India's soil is affected by degradation due to erosion, salinity, pollution, and loss of organic carbon.

2. Soil erosion in India results in a loss of approximately 15.35 tonnes of soil per hectare annually, leading to a significant reduction in crop productivity.

3. The Soil Health Card (SHC) program in India is aimed at improving soil fertility and providing farmers with insights into the nutrient status of their soil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 6

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Global Soil Conference 2024 highlighted that approximately 30% of India's soil is compromised due to factors such as erosion, salinity, pollution, and loss of organic carbon. This reflects the significant impact of various forms of degradation on soil health, which jeopardizes agricultural productivity and sustainability.

2. Statement 2 is correct. Soil erosion in India is indeed a critical issue, with the country losing approximately 15.35 tonnes of soil per hectare annually. This erosion decreases crop productivity and results in substantial economic losses, as well as environmental issues like increased flooding and drought occurrences.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The Soil Health Card (SHC) program is a government initiative designed to improve soil fertility by providing farmers with detailed information about the nutrient status of their soil. This aids them in making informed decisions regarding fertilizer application and soil management, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity and sustainability.

All three statements accurately reflect the concerns and initiatives related to soil health in India. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 7

Consider the following pairs related to soil and environment in India:

1. Soil Health Card Program: Provides insights into soil nutrient status

2. International Solar Alliance: Co-founded by India for promoting solar energy

3. Urvara Soil: Classified as sterile soil

4. SDG 15: Focuses on water conservation

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 7

1. Soil Health Card Program: This pair is correctly matched. The Soil Health Card Program is designed to give farmers information about the nutrient status of their soil, which aids in making informed decisions about fertilizer use and soil management.

2. International Solar Alliance: This pair is correctly matched. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was indeed co-founded by India with the aim of promoting solar energy among countries, particularly those located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.

3. Urvara Soil: Incorrectly matched. Traditionally in India, Urvara refers to fertile soil, not sterile soil. Usara is the term used for sterile or less fertile soil.

4. SDG 15: Incorrectly matched. SDG 15 focuses on life on land, which includes the protection, restoration, and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainable management of forests, combatting desertification, and halting biodiversity loss. It does not specifically focus on water conservation.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making "Option B: Only two pairs" the correct choice.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Soil degradation poses a risk to productivity and threatens global food security.

Statement-II:
Soil erosion and loss of fertility in India lead to a loss of 13.4 million tonnes of rainfed crops annually.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 8


Statement-I correctly highlights the risk posed by soil degradation to productivity and global food security. Statement-II complements Statement-I by providing a specific consequence of soil degradation in India, where soil erosion and loss of fertility lead to a substantial annual loss of rainfed crops. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of soil degradation identified in Statement-I.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 9

What was a significant outcome of COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan, regarding climate finance goals?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 9

A significant outcome of COP29 was the introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG), aiming to increase climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035. This initiative represents a crucial step towards addressing the financial needs of developing countries in adapting to and mitigating climate impacts.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) as per NFHS-5 (2019-21) is 2.0 children per woman, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.

2. The New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) aims to increase climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035.

3. According to the India Ageing Report 2023, over 20% of India’s population will be aged 60 or above in the coming years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 10

Statement 1 is correct. According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) conducted between 2019 and 2021, India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen to 2.0 children per woman, which is indeed below the replacement level of 2.1. This indicates a potential future population decline if the trend continues.

Statement 2 is correct. The New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) introduced at COP29 does aim to raise climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035. This is a significant increase from the previous target of USD 100 billion, reflecting the growing financial needs to combat climate change.

Statement 3 is correct. According to the India Ageing Report 2023 by the United Nations Population Fund, it is projected that over 20% of India’s population will be aged 60 or above in the coming years. This demographic shift presents challenges related to healthcare and social support systems for the elderly.

Therefore, all three statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer. Each statement aligns with current data and developments as outlined in the provided context.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 11

Consider the following pairs:

1. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India - 2.0 children per woman

2. UNFCCC COP29 Location - Belém, Brazil

3. Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative - Focuses on supporting farmers

4. India's Climate Fund Contribution in 2022 - USD 1.28 billion

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 11

1. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India - 2.0 children per woman: This pair is correctly matched. According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) for 2019-21, India's TFR is 2.0 children per woman, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.

2. UNFCCC COP29 Location - Belém, Brazil: This pair is incorrectly matched. COP29 was held in Baku, Azerbaijan as mentioned in the provided context, not Belém, Brazil.

3. Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative - Focuses on supporting farmers: This pair is correctly matched. The Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative, launched at COP29, aims to consolidate various existing climate initiatives in food and agriculture to ease access for farmers to support and financing.

4. India's Climate Fund Contribution in 2022 - USD 1.28 billion: This pair is correctly matched. It is noted in the context that India contributed USD 1.28 billion to climate finance for other developing countries in 2022.

Only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
India rejected the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) at COP29, deeming it inadequate for addressing climate challenges faced by developing nations.

Statement-II:
India emphasized that developed countries should spearhead climate finance mobilization, as outlined in Article 9 of the Paris Agreement.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 12


Statement-I is correct because India did reject the NCQG at COP29, citing it as inadequate. Statement-II is also correct as India did emphasize that developed countries should lead in climate finance mobilization, aligning with the principles outlined in Article 9 of the Paris Agreement. India's rejection of the NCQG and its emphasis on the responsibility of developed nations in climate finance align with each other, showing that India seeks a more significant commitment from developed countries to address climate challenges.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 13

Why has a NITI Aayog report recommended classifying coking coal as a critical mineral for India?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 13

The NITI Aayog report recommends classifying coking coal as a critical mineral for India due to its unique properties that have limited substitutes, its crucial role in steel production costs, and to align with global standards, emphasizing its economic significance. Coking coal is essential for steel production, has limited substitutes, and plays a significant role in maintaining economic stability, making it a critical mineral for India.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 14

Consider the following statements about coking coal:

1. Coking coal is essential for steel production, making up a significant cost of steel, which is vital for infrastructure development in India.

2. India is self-sufficient in coking coal, with no need for imports to meet its domestic demand.

3. The classification of coking coal as a critical mineral could potentially enhance domestic production and improve the competitiveness of India's steel industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 14

Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal is indeed critical for steel production, accounting for a significant portion of the cost of steel. Steel is a fundamental component in infrastructure development, which is crucial for India's economic growth and job creation.

Statement 2 is incorrect. India imports a substantial portion of its coking coal, around 85%, due to its high import dependence. This reliance highlights the vulnerability of India's steel industry to global supply disruptions.

Statement 3 is correct. By classifying coking coal as a critical mineral, India could potentially stimulate domestic production. This move would encourage investments in mining and technology, reducing costs and enhancing the global competitiveness of the Indian steel industry.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 15

Consider the following pairs related to Coking Coal and Critical Minerals:

1. Coking Coal - Used primarily for electricity generation

2. Coking Coal - Higher carbon content than thermal coal

3. Coking Coal - Essential for the steel industry

4. Coking Coal - India imports 85% of its requirement

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 15

1. Coking Coal - Used primarily for electricity generation: Incorrect. Coking coal is not primarily used for electricity generation; it is used in steel production. Thermal coal is used for electricity generation.

2. Coking Coal - Higher carbon content than thermal coal: Correct. Coking coal typically has a higher carbon content compared to thermal coal, which makes it suitable for producing coke used in steel production.

3. Coking Coal - Essential for the steel industry: Correct. Coking coal is crucial for the steel industry as it is used to produce coke, which is an essential component in the blast furnace process for steelmaking.

4. Coking Coal - India imports 85% of its requirement: Correct. India has a high dependency on imported coking coal, importing approximately 85% of its needs, which impacts the cost and competitiveness of the steel industry.

Three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 2, 3, and 4. Hence, the answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Coking coal is crucial for steel production and accounts for approximately 42% of the total steel cost, essential for infrastructure development and job creation in India.

Statement-II:
India imports around 85% of its coking coal, significantly higher than the European Union's 62%, raising concerns regarding the steel industry and economic stability.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 16


Statement-I correctly highlights the importance of coking coal in steel production, emphasizing its significant role in infrastructure development and job creation. Statement-II accurately points out India's high import dependency on coking coal, which is crucial for understanding the concerns related to the steel industry and economic stability. The high import percentage mentioned in Statement-II adequately supports the significance highlighted in Statement-I, making both statements correct and Statement-II explaining the importance of coking coal as stated in Statement-I.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 17

What is the primary objective of the Design Law Treaty (DLT) recently adopted by member states of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 17

The Design Law Treaty (DLT) aims to establish a comprehensive framework to enhance the protection of industrial designs globally. By streamlining design application procedures and improving the filing process, the treaty seeks to provide a predictable and user-friendly system that removes unnecessary bureaucratic obstacles, making it easier for designers to safeguard their intellectual property.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution originally had a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules.

2. The Constitution of India is the longest written Constitution in the world.

3. The Indian Constitution cannot be amended without a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 18

- Statement 1 is correct. The original Constitution of India, adopted in 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules. This is a well-documented fact about the initial structure of the Constitution at the time of its adoption.

- Statement 2 is also correct. The Indian Constitution is indeed the longest written Constitution in the world. It is known for its detailed and comprehensive nature, addressing a wide array of issues necessary for governing a diverse and populous country like India.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. While amending the Indian Constitution does require a special procedure that may involve a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament, not all amendments require such a majority. Some amendments can be made by a simple majority, while others require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures in addition to a two-thirds majority.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 19

Consider the following pairs:

1. Constitution Day 2024 Celebrations Location - Jammu and Kashmir

2. Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Samman Initiative Launch Date - 26th November 2024

3. First Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

4. Women members of the Constituent Assembly Contribution Recognition Date - 24th January 2024

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 19

1. Constitution Day 2024 Celebrations Location - Jammu and Kashmir: Correct. In 2024, Jammu and Kashmir celebrated Constitution Day for the first time post the abrogation of Article 370.

2. Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Samman Initiative Launch Date - 26th November 2024: Incorrect. The initiative was launched on 24th January 2024, not on 26th November 2024.

3. First Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Correct. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was indeed the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for the Indian Constitution.

4. Women members of the Constituent Assembly Contribution Recognition Date - 24th January 2024: Incorrect. The recognition of the women members of the Constituent Assembly was highlighted as part of the Constitution Day celebrations, not specifically on 24th January 2024.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Design Law Treaty (DLT) aims to establish a predictable and user-friendly system for the protection of industrial designs globally.

Statement-II:
Industrial designs are protected under the Design Act, 2000, based on their functionality and utility.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 20

Statement-I accurately reflects the primary aim of the Design Law Treaty (DLT) to enhance the protection of industrial designs globally by establishing a predictable and user-friendly system. However, Statement-II is incorrect as industrial designs are primarily protected based on their ornamental aspects and distinctive appearance, rather than their functionality and utility, as outlined in the Design Act, 2000. Industrial designs focus on the visual appeal and aesthetics of a product, distinguishing it from others in the market, rather than its functional attributes.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 21

What is the primary purpose of the High Seas Treaty, also known as the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 21

The High Seas Treaty, or BBNJ Agreement, primarily aims to protect and sustainably manage marine biological diversity in ocean areas beyond national jurisdiction. It seeks to address issues such as overexploitation, biodiversity loss, pollution, and ocean acidification in these international waters.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems:

1. EVMs are standalone devices that function without any wired or wireless connections, minimizing the risk of remote manipulation.

2. The Election Commission of India utilizes the EVM Management System (EMS 2.0) to track and manage EVM movements, ensuring security during transportation and storage.

3. VVPAT allows voters to verify that their votes are recorded as intended by displaying a printed slip for verification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 22

All three statements provided about the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems are correct:

1. Statement 1 is correct. EVMs are designed as standalone devices that do not require any external connections, such as wired or wireless, during the voting process. This design is intentional to prevent any form of remote manipulation or tampering, ensuring the integrity of the voting process.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Election Commission of India employs the EVM Management System (EMS 2.0) to effectively track and manage the movements of EVMs. This system plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of EVMs during their transportation and storage, adding an additional layer of administrative oversight.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The VVPAT system provides a mechanism for voters to verify their votes. When a vote is cast, the VVPAT prints a slip that shows the serial number, name, and symbol of the candidate for whom the vote was cast. This slip is visible to the voter for a few seconds through a transparent window, thereby allowing the verification of their vote before it is securely stored in a sealed box.

Therefore, all the statements are accurate and together they illustrate the robustness of India’s electoral voting mechanism. Hence, the correct answer is Option D.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Election Commission of India continuously defends the reliability of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) by citing studies conducted by technical experts.
Statement-II:
The Supreme Court of India dismissed a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) calling for a return to traditional ballot papers, affirming the robustness of the current EVM and VVPAT system.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 23


Statement-I is accurate as the Election Commission indeed defends EVM reliability by referencing studies. Statement-II is also correct; the Supreme Court dismissed a PIL advocating for traditional ballot papers, emphasizing confidence in the current EVM and VVPAT system. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but adds context to the discussion around the EVM and VVPAT system.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 24

What was a key highlight of COP29 held in Baku, Azerbaijan, regarding climate finance?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 24

Answer: C. Introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG)
One of the significant developments of COP29 was the introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG). It aims to increase climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035, up from the previous USD 100 billion target. This goal also envisions mobilizing USD 1.3 trillion annually from various sources to help developing countries adapt to and mitigate climate change impacts.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 25

Why did India reject the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) introduced at COP29?

Detailed Solution for Test: Weekly Current Affairs: November 22nd to 31st - Question 25

Answer: B. The pledged climate finance was deemed insufficient for developing nations' needs.
India criticized the NCQG pledge of USD 300 billion annually as inadequate, emphasizing that a minimum of USD 1.3 trillion annually is needed to meet the climate demands of developing nations. India also called for at least USD 600 billion to be provided as grants or grant-equivalent resources, reiterating the responsibility of developed countries under Article 9 of the Paris Agreement to lead climate finance mobilization.

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