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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis - UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS)

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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 1

Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Q. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 1

The first communist ministry ever to come to office through popular elections was the ministry headed by Comrade E.M.S. Namboodiripad in Kerala. In the 1957 elections the undivided Communist Party of India won the elections to the Kerala Legislative assembly. Though this ministry was later dismissed undemocratically by an authoritarian Congress regime ruling at the Centre, it drew world-wide attention. Presently, the CPI(M) heads three governments in the states of West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura.
The Imperial Bank of India, which became the State Bank of India after independence, came into existence on January 27, 1921. On July 1, 1955, as per the State Bank of India Act 1955, the State Bank of India (SBI) was constituted and it took over the business and undertaking of the Imperial Bank. In the same year the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Bank) Act was passed, with the State Bank of Hyderabad becoming the first subsidiary of the SBI
The Air Corporation Bill was legislated into an Act which brought forth two nationalized Air Corporation, viz Indian airlines Corporation (for operation of internal air services in the country and adjacent countries like Burma, Ceylon and Pakistan) and the Air India International for operation of long distance International Services, was constituted on 15th June 1953 and took over the undertakings of the nine air transport companies with effect from 1st August 1953. The Indian air transport system was composed of the following airlines: 1. Air India Ltd. 2. Air Services of India Ltd. 3. Airways India 4. Bharat Airways 5. Deccan Airways 6. Himalayan Aviation Ltd. 7. Indian National Airways 8. Kalinga Airlines 9.Air India International Ltd.
On December 19, 1961, Goa officially became part of India and two years later, held its first general election.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 2

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately and appropriately imply the above statement?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 2

The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court has unanimously delivered its judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India holding that privacy is a constitutionally protected right which not only emerges from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the constitution, but also arises in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognised and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III of the Indian constitution. 

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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 3

Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
Q. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 3

Barley, Finger millet (Ragi), Groundnut, Sesamum, are covered under MSP fixed by GOI.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 4

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 4

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36’ – 93°09'E and 26°54 – 27°16'N) lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in 1977, and was earlier part of the Khellong Forest Division. It has been recently declared a tiger reserve in 2002 based on a proposal in 1999.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 5

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLV is launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 5

Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to SunSynchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude.
The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth from pole-to-pole (at about 98 deg orbital-plane inclination). An orbit is called sun-synchronous when the angle between the line joining the centre of the Earth and the satellite and the Sun is constant throughout the orbit. GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 6

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 6

B is the correct option. The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this not has been steady as the statement 1 says, so, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct.To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.for example the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 7

Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?​

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 7

The correct answer is C as Fish processed and canned is not exempted from GST while all other options are exempted.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 8

Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 8

The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas. Habitat rights for primitive and vulnerable tribal groups are decided by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 9

Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Q. Which of the above spread plant diseases?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 9

Birds, Dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing all spread plant diseases.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 10

​With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 10

• Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001
• APEDA functions as the secretariat for the implementation of NPOP
• Sikkim becomes the first fully organic state of India 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 11

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 11

Money Bills
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
7. Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 12

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 12

Statement 1 is correct. The value of each MLA is determined according to the population of the state so it varies. The value of MPs from both the houses is same.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 13

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 13

• The most natural result of ratifying the additional protocol will be greater ease to International Atomic Energy Agency to monitor India’s civilian atomic programme. It does not give India automatic membership of NSG.
• Military nuclear establishments will not be kept under the inspection of IAEA. Under the deal Indo-U.S. nuclear cooperation agreement, India was to sign and ratify the Additional Protocol of the IAEA. A separation plan was chalked out after the deal, segregating the military and civilian reactors. The civilian reactors were to be placed under the IAEA safeguards by December 2014, which will enable India to use the much needed international fuel for civilian reactors.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 14

Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Q. Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 14

ASEAN has five free trade agreements (FTAs) with six Dialogue Partners, namely China, Japan, Republic of Korea, India, and Australia and New Zealand. All Parties have ratified the FTA Agreements.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 15

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA); which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 15

India is not a member of GACSA, hence it did not play a role in establishing it.
Being a member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities. It started working in 2014, hence it cannot be the outcome of Paris summit, 2015

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 16

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 16

In order to transform the entire ecosystem of public services through the use of information technology, the Government of India has launched the Digital India programme with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
Under the Digital India Plan, NII would integrate the network and cloud infrastructure in the country to provide high speed connectivity and cloud platform to various government departments up to the panchayat level. Cities with population of over 1 million and tourist centres would be provided with public wi-fi hotspots to promote digital cities. The scheme would be implemented by DoT and Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 17

Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Q. ​Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 17

Aleppo is in Syria, Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq while Majar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan. These cities have been in recent news due to war and violence. 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 18

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 18

The Government of India Act of 1935 envisaged an all-India federation consisting of eleven Governor’s provinces, six Chief Commissioner’s provinces, and such Indian States as would agree to join the federation. The governmental subjects were divided into three Lists i.e. Federal, Provincial and Concurrent. The provincial legislatures were given exclusive power to legislate with respect to matters in the Provincial list. The federal legislature had the exclusive power to make law on matters in the Federal List. The federal and the provincial legislatures had concurrent jurisdiction with respect to matters in the Concurrent List. In case of conflict between a provincial law and a federal law on a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, the latter was to prevail, and the former would, to the extent of the repugnancy be void. Residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, who could, in his discretion, assign any such power by a public notification to the federal legislature or the provincial legislature.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 19

Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 19

The Correct option is A: 1 only

Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
2. if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice. 
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Article 179 of the Indian Constitution provides that whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 20

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 20

The term 'liberty' means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individuals.
However, liberty does not mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws. The concept of liberty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 21

Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 21

Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 22

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 22

Bani Thani is an Indian painting in the Kishangarh school of paintings. Bani Thani was painted by an artist by the name of Nihâl Chand. The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Savant Singh.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 23

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 23

The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense, or simply abbreviated as THAAD, is a American missile defence system that is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles in their final flight phase. First proposed in 1987 and then finally deployed in 2008, the THAAD cannot be used as a form of attack against an enemy.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 24

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtana are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 24

Statement 1 is not correct. Most of Tyagaraja’s songs were in praise of Rama, who, like Krishna, is believed to be an incarnation of the god Vishnu.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is credited with various musical innovations, including the use of a structured variation of musical lines within the performance, a practice that may have been derived from improvisatory techniques.
Statement 3 is not correct. Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and Annamacharya to the 15th century. Statement 4 is correct. Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 25

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 25

Fundamental rights enshrined in part III of the constitution is a restriction on the law making power of the Indian Parliament. The state has got no power to deprive a person of his life and liberty without the authority of law.
The secondary meaning of rule of law is that the government should be conducted within a framework of recognized rules and principles which restrict discretionary powers. Dicey’s Concept of Rule of Law-In his book, the law and the constitution, published in the year 1885, Dicey attributed three meanings to the doctrine of rule of law: 1. Supremacy Of Law
2. Equality Before The Law
3. Predominance Of Legal Spirit

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 26

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 26

CHARTER ACT OF 1813: The Act incorporated the principle of encouraging learned Indians and promoting knowledge of modern sciences in the country. The Act directed the. Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for this purpose. However, even this petty amount was not made available till 1823, mainly because of the controversy raged on the question of the direction that this expenditure should take. In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10(ten) European members belonging to 2 groups Anglicists and Orientalists. Hence, it promoted both Indian and english education.
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST  CONTROVERSY: Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 27

Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 27

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 28

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 28

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 29

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “ Swarajya Sabha”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 29

Gandhi had become the president of the All India Home Rule League in 1920. Its name was changed to 'Swaraj Sabha'

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 30

Which among the following events happened earliest?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2018: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 30

1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj - 1875
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan - 1858-59
3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath - 1882 
4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination – 1863

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