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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis - UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS)

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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 1

​In the context of Digital Technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.


Q. Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 1

Virtual reality (VR) immerses users in a fully artificial digital environment.

Augmented reality (AR) overlays virtual objects on the real-world environment.

Mixed reality (MR) not just overlays but anchors virtual objects to the real world.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 2

The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 2
  • Scientists have uncovered the most complete remains yet from the mysterious ancient-hominin group known as the Denisovans. The jawbone, discovered high on the Tibetan Plateau and dated to more than 160,000 years ago, is also the first Denisovan specimen found outside the Siberian cave in which the hominin was uncovered a decade ago confirming suspicions that Denisovans were more widespread than the fossil record currently suggests.
  • The research marks the first time an ancient human has been identified solely through the analysis of proteins. With no usable DNA, scientists examined proteins in the specimen’s teeth, raising hopes that more fossils could be identified even when DNA is not preserved.
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UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 3

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 3

OPTION B: In a major step toward creating artificial life, US researchers have developed a living organism that incorporates both natural and artificial DNA and is capable of creating entirely new, synthetic proteins. Hence, option (b) is correct.

OPTION C: A wide variety of double-stranded DNA templates are replicated extensively in an in vitro DNA replication system containing the purified proteins specified by seven T4 bacteriophage DNA replication genes (32, 41, 43, 44, 62, 45, and 61). Hence, option (c) is correct.

OPTION D: Through micropropagation plant can be developed in laboratory and chlamydomonas cells can be replicated in culture through light variations. Hence, option (d) is correct.

So, the incorrect statement is (a)

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is:

1. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 4

It is an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged. Hence statement 3 is correct. Digital signatures are easily transportable and cannot be imitated by someone else.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 5

In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is /are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 5
  • Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic devices (electronic device with micro-controllers) that are worn close to and/or on the surface of the skin, where they detect, analyze, and transmit information concerning e.g. body signals such as vital signs, and/or ambient data and which allow in some cases immediate biofeedback to the wearer.
     
  • Wearable devices such as activity trackers are an example of the Internet of Things, since "things" such as electronics, software, sensors, and connectivity are effectors that enable objects to exchange data (including data quality through the internet with a manufacturer, operator, and/or other connected devices, without requiring human intervention.
     
  • Wearable technology has a variety of applications which grows as the field itself expands. It appears prominently in consumer electronics with the popularization of the smartwatch and activity tracker. Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced textiles, and healthcare.
UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 6

RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens​

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 6
  • RNA interference (RNAi), regulatory system occurring within eukaryotic cells (cells with a clearly defined nucleus) that controls the activity of genes.
  • RNAi functions specifically to silence, or deactivate, genes.
  • RNAi is being explored as a form of treatment for a variety of diseases, including macular degeneration, hepatitis, AIDS, Huntington disease, and cancer.
  • RNAi is used as a natural defense mechanism against molecular parasites such as jumping genes and viral genetic elements.
UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 7

Recently scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 7
  • When the two supermassive black holes in each of these systems finally come together in millions of years, their encounters will produce strong gravitational waves.
  • Gravitational waves produced by the collision of two stellar-mass black holes have already been detected by the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO).
  • Observatories such as the planned NASA/ESA space-based Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) will be able to detect the lower-frequency gravitational waves from supermassive black-hole mergers, which are a million times more massive than those detected by LIGO.
UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 8

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 8

Antibiotic consumption in Humans
In 2014, India was the highest consumer of antibiotics, followed by China and the United States. In India, antibiotic FDCs are heavily prescribed even without the knowledge of a proven advantage over single compounds. Injudicious use of antibiotic FDCs could lead to emergence of bacterial strains resistant to multiple antibiotics. (However, the per capita consumption of antibiotics in India is much lower than in several other high-income countries).

Antibiotic consumption in Animals
The use of antibiotics in food animals plays a major role in human health, as antibiotic-resistant bacteria can be transmitted between humans and animals through contact, in food products, and from the environment.

Hence, 2 and 3 are correct. 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 9

What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 9

CRISPR Cas9 is an acronym for “Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.” CRISPR genome engineering technology enables scientists to easily and precisely edit the DNA of any genome.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 10

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 10

The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. The hepatitis B vaccine is also known as the first “anti-cancer” vaccine because it prevents hepatitis B, the leading cause of liver cancer worldwide.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 11

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 11

High courts can strike down central laws also.  For example Madras high court while disposing of a Writ petition seeking a declaration to the effect that the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) (Six Months Training) Rules, 2014 declared it beyond the scope of the Pre-conceptional and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, and inconsistent with Medical Council of India Act, 1956 and Regulations.

The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void. This was further reaffirmed in Golak Nath v. State of Punjab and Minerva Mill’s case. Therefore as it stands the constitutional amendment comes under a law for judicial review if it violates any fundamental rights and Basic structure of our constitution.
 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 12

Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.​

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 12

The ‘Purchasing Power Parity’ is the exchange rate that allows one to buy the same amount of goods and services in every country. It is a theoretical rate as it is used by no country and is only used by the Government agencies to compare the output of countries that use different exchange rates.

It basically describes what would a thing cost, if it was sold in the US Dollars. The World Bank calculates the PPP for each country, depicting a map that shows the PPP ratio compared to the United States. This shows a comparison between the economic productivity and standards of living between all the countries. On the PPP basis, China is the world's largest economy in 2018, followed by United States at 2nd and India at 3rd position.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 13

With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

​Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 13

Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice crop was 43.86 million hectares during 2014-15. While the area under wheat is around 30 Million hectares in 2017-18.

Statement 2 is not correct: Area under cultivation of Jowar is 5.14 million hectares in 2016-17 while that under oilseed is 26.21 million hectares in 2016-17.

Statement 3 is correct: Area under cotton cultivation in India is 10.85 million hectares.

Statement 4 is not correct: Area under Sugarcane has increased in India from 4.42 million hectares in 2008-09 to 5.04 million hectares in 2012-13 to 4.39 million hectares in 2016-17.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 14

​Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 14

The import of vegetable oils in India is highest in last five years due to a cut in duty as mandatory under the Malaysia-India Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (MICECA). Signed in October 2010 with South East Asian countries.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 15

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 15

Liberty is narrow sense is absence of restraints. But wider interpretation of liberty is positive. It is facilitating overall development of an individual.

Provision of reservation, protection of minority rights etc. provide for creating an enabling atmosphere where the individual can develop themselves fully.

Provision of reservation, protection of minority rights etc. provide for creating an enabling atmosphere where individual can develop themselves fully.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 16

Which one of the following are not the most likely measure the government/ RBI takes to stop the side of Indian rupee?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 16
  1. Curbing imports of non essential goods will lessen the demand for dollars and promoting export will help in increasing the flow of dollars into the country - helping control rupee depreciation.
  2. The Masala bond is directly pegged to the Indian Currency. If Indian borrowers issues more rupee denominated Masala bonds, this would increase liquidity in the market or increase in the rupee stock against few currencies in the market and this would help in supporting the rupee.
  3. ECB - It is a type of loan in foreign currencies, made by non-resident lenders. Thus easing conditions of ECB's helps in receiving more loans in foreign currencies that would in increase of forex inflow - leading to rupee appreciation.
  4. Expansionary Monetary Policy - A set of policy measures such as increase in money supply by the RBI to stimulate economy. It cannot influence the variations of rupee value.  
UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 17

Consider the following statement:
The reserve bank of India’s directives relating to “Storage of Payment System Data” popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 17

The Storage of Payment System Data directive issued by RBI requires all System Providers to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system in India only. Also, System Providers shall provide a System Audit Report (SAR) and the audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empaneled auditors.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 18

Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as “General Data Protection Regulation” in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 18

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) standardizes data protection law across all 28 EU countries and imposes strict new rules on controlling and processing personally identifiable information (PII). It also extends the protection of personal data and data protection rights by giving control back to EU residents. GDPR replaces the 1995 EU Data Protection Directive, and went into force on May 25, 2018.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 19

Recently, India signed a deal known as “action plan for prioritization and implementation for cooperation areas in nuclear field” with which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 19

During the visit of H. E. Vladimir Putin, President of the Russian Federation to India, Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field. Identified Jointly by India and Russia was signed on 5th October, 2018 in New Delhi.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 20

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 20

The money-multiplier is the maximum amount of broad money (M3 Money) that could be created by the commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money or reserve ratios. Or, simply it can be stated that the maximum amount of money that the banking system generates with each rupees of reserves.

So, more the people will be linked with the banking system or have the habit of banking more will be the money in use in the form of loans, credits etc. that results an increase in economic activity. This will directly help in increase money multiplier in an economy. The money multiplier goes up because of the reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR). 

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 21

With reference to Asian infrastructure investment bank (AIIB), consider the following statement:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 21

Headquartered in Beijing, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a development bank established to boost lending for projects in sectors like energy, transportation, urban construction, logistics, education and healthcare. AIIB presently has 97 approved members worldwide. The Bank has invested in 13 member regions; it has members from outside Asia in Egypt (Middle East), Azerbaijan (Asia and Europe) and others. The largest shareholders of the bank is China followed by India and Russia.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 22

What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 22

Indian banks and financial institutions signed an Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) on July 23, 2018 to fast-track the resolution of stressed assets of Rs 500 crore or above that are under consortium lending. The ICA, a part of Project Sashakt, was signed by 22 public sector banks including SBI, India Post Payments Bank; 19 private sector banks; and 32 foreign banks.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 23

The chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 23

The Department of Personnel and Training deals with appointment to posts of Chairman, Managing Director, and full-time Director / Member of various Public Sector Undertakings, Corporations, Banks and financial institutions. The appointment of the Chairman of public sector bank follows the recommendations of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), an autonomous body of Government that works to improve governance of Public Sector Banks, recommends selection of bank chiefs and helps banks in developing strategies.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 24

Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Q. Which one of the statements given above is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 24

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under ‘The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006’ to protect the interests of consumers and organisations engaged in petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas sector.

The Board works to foster fair trade and competition amongst the entities. The appeals against the decisions of the Board go before the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 25

With reference to communication technology, what is/are the difference(s) between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice only technology.

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 25

LTE stands for ‘Long Term Evolution’ and VoLTE stands for ‘Voice over Long Term Evolution’. LTE is a mobile network and transmits only data; while VoLTE is software and transmits both voice and data. LTE is a term used for the particular type of 4G network that delivers the fastest mobile Internet experience. The VoLTE enables one to make calls over the LTE network, it allows phone's dialer to place call through internet and sends voice and data over the network.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 26

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and 3 months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

​Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 26

The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 provides for 26 weeks paid maternity leave for women employees. Women, who are expecting after having 2 children, get 12 weeks paid maternity leave. The maternity leave can be availed 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery. The Act mandates for establishing creche facility at organisations employing 50 or more employees. The women employees are permitted to visit the creche facility 4 times during the day.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 27

Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 27

World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index' ranks countries on the basis of Distance to Frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global best practice. It covers 10 indicators or sub-indexes which span the lifecycle of a business - Starting a Business, Dealing with Construction Permits, Getting Electricity, Registering Property, Getting Credit, Protecting Minority Investors, Paying Taxes, Trading Across Borders, Enforcing Contracts and Resolving Insolvency.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 28

In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 28

The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. It introduced ‘extended producer responsibility', that is, the responsibility of producers of electronic equipment towards effective channelisation of e-waste to the registered recyclers.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 29

The economic cost of food grains to the food cooperation of India is minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 29

The economic cost of food grains procured by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a total of minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

The economic cost has three main components - procurement cost, procurement price, and distribution cost. The procurement incidentals are the initial costs incurred during procurement of foodgrains. The FCI buys foodgrains from the farmers at the pre-announced Minimum Support Price. The distribution costs include freight, handling charges, storage charges, losses during transit and establishment cost.

UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 30

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

Detailed Solution for UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2019: Paper 1 (GS) - Question 30

Social capital is the willingness of people to help each other. It replaces money through which people buy the same help. The social capital of any country is measured through the level of trust and harmony among the people.

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