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CLAT Practice Test- 25


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | CLAT Practice Test- 25

CLAT Practice Test- 25 for CLAT 2023 is part of Mock Test Series for CLAT preparation. The CLAT Practice Test- 25 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus.The CLAT Practice Test- 25 MCQs are made for CLAT 2023 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for CLAT Practice Test- 25 below.
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CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 1

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. What does the word 'precipice' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 1 This question can be answered if you know the meaning of the word precipice - "a dangerous situation".

If you not aware of its meaning, you can infer the meaning from the context in which it is used in the passage. The passage says that the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice which should be even more alarming for policymakers. Since it should more alarming, it can be inferred that the situation is not very bright. The only answer choice that has that tone is (b).

Incorrect Answers

(a), (c) and (d) does not say the situation is negative.

In fact, each of these answer choices has a positive connotation which goes against the tone in which the sentence in the passage is framed.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 2

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Which one of the following CANNOT be inferred from the information given in the fifth paragraph?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 2 You are asked to identify the statement which cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage says that West Asia contributes to more than 50% of the total remittance to India. It is not necessary that more than 50% of Indians work in that region.

There is no data which can help us arrive at that claim.

[Consider this example: Say there are two countries A and B. Remittance from A is 100 and remittance from B is 50. If there are 20 people in A and 50 people in B (each person in A sends 5 and each person in B sends 1), it is possible that there can be less number of Indians working in A than in B even though the remittance from A is higher] Since answer choice (d) cannot be inferred, it is the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - Refer to this sentence: "Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return.". "many more will return" suggests that there have been people who have returned in the past. Answer choice (a) can be inferred.

(b) - The author states that "A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to..." The author states that the places Indians return to will be under pressure if there is a sudden jolt. Answer choice (b) can be inferred.

(c) The author states that more than 50% of all remittances to India is from West Asia. So, all the other region put together would be less than 50% and therefore it would be less than the remittance from West Asia. Answer choice (c) can be inferred.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 3

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 3 In the passage the author raises the concern that the US-Iran conflict will have for India. In the passage the author discusses the impact it will have on Indians working in the region and the danger it poses to Indian economy. Answer choice (c) captures this idea completely and accurately.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - This answer choice only considers the impact on Indian worker and leaves out the impact on Indian economy.

(b) - The issue of remittance is a specific issue that the author discusses in the passage. It is a supporting detail of the argument put forth by the author.

(d) - This looks to be a good option; however, it is misleading. The problem is with the word 'unnecessary'. Whether or not the military intervention is unnecessary is something that the author does not discuss. The author talks about the impact of the conflict with regards to India.

Author does not make a judgement on whether the conflict was necessary or unnecessary. This makes answer choice (d) incorrect.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 4

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Why does the author believe that the heightened tension (fourth paragraph) could jeopardise jobs of Indian working abroad?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 4 This question asks you to identify the reason as to why the author believes that the Iran conflict could jeopardise jobs of Indians. This is mentioned in paragraph 4. Author justifies this claim by alluding to the events in the past - "inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.". The author apparently believes that since certain events in the region had hurt Indian jobs in the past, the current conflict is also likely to hurt the Indian jobs. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answer

(a) - The problem with this answer choice is the mention of "outright war". A possibility of outright war is mentioned by the author (paragraph 3).

However, this question specifically asks about the impact of "heightened tension" (paragraph 4). Since this answer choice does not address the question at hand, it is an incorrect answer choice.

(b) - This answer choice has the same problem as answer choice (a). The impact of oil prices is discussed much later.

(d) - Whether or not India can handle the tension is irrelevant to the discussion at hand. The question specifically asks to identify the reason for an author's claim. Author DOES NOT say that India's inability to handle the tension is the reason for the impact on jobs.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 5

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Why do the analysts expect that the international price of oil will not increase substantially?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 5 Paragraph 6 discusses oil price. The author states that the analysts do not expect the oil price to get much further based on the assumption that it not in the interest of both US and Iran. This is captured in answer choice (a).

Incorrect Answers

(b) - The stability of the price before the war is not discussed in the passage.

(c) - The author does not specifically mention World War 3 in paragraph 6. What is mentioned is that the countries want to avoid an outright conflict. This outright conflict does not refer to World War 3.

Hence answer choice (c)is incorrect.

(d) - While it is true that an outright war would cause destabilising effect in the region, the question is specifically asking the reason why analysts believe that the price would not get much higher. Not just the destabilising effect in the region - the analyst presume that it will impact US as well. This answer does not capture the specific reason stated by the author. Hence answer choice (d) is incorrect.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 6

Every man must have a vocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.

There are schools for teaching medicine and engineering, accountancy and computer science. There are as many types of institutions for imparting vocational training as there are vocations. A person trained in one of these institutions will find greater scope to show his merits than one untrained. This is more than ever so today when vocations are multiplying, but ceased to be hereditary and child labour is becoming unlawful.

An untrained man in the modern world may even be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'. Hence if there is any trouble anywhere, - breakdown in a machine, or mistake in a ledger, a mat-functioning of the gadget, he only pleads helplessness, grumbles and patches up the trouble anyhow, leading to a more serious fault.

Reality there is no place for the untrained worker, in these days of specialised work.

In all technically advanced countries, like England, America, Russia, Germany, Japan - only a few are encouraged to go up for a general education. The majority of youngmen have to attend a preparatory school till their eighteenth year or thereabout, and then join some vocational school. It may be a technical school for learning the intricacies of bookkeeping and accountancy or handling a computer. Hence there is now craze for a specialised degree. It must be some school that makes him a specialist; otherwise, he finds himself handicapped in struggle for earning a decent living.

In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too. In most cases far too much stress is laid on theory. In a good system, theory and practice must be combined. To ensure this, along with class-work, there must be proper arrangements for ensuring practical training in a factory or a firm.

The Apprenticeship system, which attaches a boy to a firm or a factory, has some admirable features.

In Russia, technical classes are attached to factories and agricultural farms, which provide workers with excellent opportunities for improving their knowledge and skill.

There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained. A shop assistant or a sales representative who has learnt the theories of business organization or salesmanship, will be all the better for his job. A physician acquires invaluable experience if he puts in several years at a hospital as an intern.

For all these reasons, we need an extensive network of all sorts of vocational schools. Today if one has to learn the higher techniques of wireless telegraphy, one must go to Poona; for learning agriculture one has to go to PUSA, near Delhi, for aeronautics, computer technology, to Bangalore, and so on. The scope is limited, compared with the needs.

The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.

Q. What is vocational training?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 6 Ev ery man must hav e a v ocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 7

Every man must have a vocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.

There are schools for teaching medicine and engineering, accountancy and computer science. There are as many types of institutions for imparting vocational training as there are vocations. A person trained in one of these institutions will find greater scope to show his merits than one untrained. This is more than ever so today when vocations are multiplying, but ceased to be hereditary and child labour is becoming unlawful.

An untrained man in the modern world may even be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'. Hence if there is any trouble anywhere, - breakdown in a machine, or mistake in a ledger, a mat-functioning of the gadget, he only pleads helplessness, grumbles and patches up the trouble anyhow, leading to a more serious fault.

Reality there is no place for the untrained worker, in these days of specialised work.

In all technically advanced countries, like England, America, Russia, Germany, Japan - only a few are encouraged to go up for a general education. The majority of youngmen have to attend a preparatory school till their eighteenth year or thereabout, and then join some vocational school. It may be a technical school for learning the intricacies of bookkeeping and accountancy or handling a computer. Hence there is now craze for a specialised degree. It must be some school that makes him a specialist; otherwise, he finds himself handicapped in struggle for earning a decent living.

In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too. In most cases far too much stress is laid on theory. In a good system, theory and practice must be combined. To ensure this, along with class-work, there must be proper arrangements for ensuring practical training in a factory or a firm.

The Apprenticeship system, which attaches a boy to a firm or a factory, has some admirable features.

In Russia, technical classes are attached to factories and agricultural farms, which provide workers with excellent opportunities for improving their knowledge and skill.

There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained. A shop assistant or a sales representative who has learnt the theories of business organization or salesmanship, will be all the better for his job. A physician acquires invaluable experience if he puts in several years at a hospital as an intern.

For all these reasons, we need an extensive network of all sorts of vocational schools. Today if one has to learn the higher techniques of wireless telegraphy, one must go to Poona; for learning agriculture one has to go to PUSA, near Delhi, for aeronautics, computer technology, to Bangalore, and so on. The scope is limited, compared with the needs.

The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.

Q. How does vocational training help common man?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 7 There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 8

Every man must have a vocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.

There are schools for teaching medicine and engineering, accountancy and computer science. There are as many types of institutions for imparting vocational training as there are vocations. A person trained in one of these institutions will find greater scope to show his merits than one untrained. This is more than ever so today when vocations are multiplying, but ceased to be hereditary and child labour is becoming unlawful.

An untrained man in the modern world may even be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'. Hence if there is any trouble anywhere, - breakdown in a machine, or mistake in a ledger, a mat-functioning of the gadget, he only pleads helplessness, grumbles and patches up the trouble anyhow, leading to a more serious fault.

Reality there is no place for the untrained worker, in these days of specialised work.

In all technically advanced countries, like England, America, Russia, Germany, Japan - only a few are encouraged to go up for a general education. The majority of youngmen have to attend a preparatory school till their eighteenth year or thereabout, and then join some vocational school. It may be a technical school for learning the intricacies of bookkeeping and accountancy or handling a computer. Hence there is now craze for a specialised degree. It must be some school that makes him a specialist; otherwise, he finds himself handicapped in struggle for earning a decent living.

In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too. In most cases far too much stress is laid on theory. In a good system, theory and practice must be combined. To ensure this, along with class-work, there must be proper arrangements for ensuring practical training in a factory or a firm.

The Apprenticeship system, which attaches a boy to a firm or a factory, has some admirable features.

In Russia, technical classes are attached to factories and agricultural farms, which provide workers with excellent opportunities for improving their knowledge and skill.

There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained. A shop assistant or a sales representative who has learnt the theories of business organization or salesmanship, will be all the better for his job. A physician acquires invaluable experience if he puts in several years at a hospital as an intern.

For all these reasons, we need an extensive network of all sorts of vocational schools. Today if one has to learn the higher techniques of wireless telegraphy, one must go to Poona; for learning agriculture one has to go to PUSA, near Delhi, for aeronautics, computer technology, to Bangalore, and so on. The scope is limited, compared with the needs.

The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.

Q. Why is vocational education not that popular in our country?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 8 In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 9

Every man must have a vocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.

There are schools for teaching medicine and engineering, accountancy and computer science. There are as many types of institutions for imparting vocational training as there are vocations. A person trained in one of these institutions will find greater scope to show his merits than one untrained. This is more than ever so today when vocations are multiplying, but ceased to be hereditary and child labour is becoming unlawful.

An untrained man in the modern world may even be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'. Hence if there is any trouble anywhere, - breakdown in a machine, or mistake in a ledger, a mat-functioning of the gadget, he only pleads helplessness, grumbles and patches up the trouble anyhow, leading to a more serious fault.

Reality there is no place for the untrained worker, in these days of specialised work.

In all technically advanced countries, like England, America, Russia, Germany, Japan - only a few are encouraged to go up for a general education. The majority of youngmen have to attend a preparatory school till their eighteenth year or thereabout, and then join some vocational school. It may be a technical school for learning the intricacies of bookkeeping and accountancy or handling a computer. Hence there is now craze for a specialised degree. It must be some school that makes him a specialist; otherwise, he finds himself handicapped in struggle for earning a decent living.

In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too. In most cases far too much stress is laid on theory. In a good system, theory and practice must be combined. To ensure this, along with class-work, there must be proper arrangements for ensuring practical training in a factory or a firm.

The Apprenticeship system, which attaches a boy to a firm or a factory, has some admirable features.

In Russia, technical classes are attached to factories and agricultural farms, which provide workers with excellent opportunities for improving their knowledge and skill.

There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained. A shop assistant or a sales representative who has learnt the theories of business organization or salesmanship, will be all the better for his job. A physician acquires invaluable experience if he puts in several years at a hospital as an intern.

For all these reasons, we need an extensive network of all sorts of vocational schools. Today if one has to learn the higher techniques of wireless telegraphy, one must go to Poona; for learning agriculture one has to go to PUSA, near Delhi, for aeronautics, computer technology, to Bangalore, and so on. The scope is limited, compared with the needs.

The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.

Q. Why is an untrained man a burden to the society?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 9 An untrained man in the modern world may ev en be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 10

Every man must have a vocation - a trade, a business, or a profession - in order to earn his livelihood. There are institutions for imparting various types of specialized training to help men qualify for this. The specialist is in demand everywhere, - in the office as well as in factories, and even in educational institutions.

There are schools for teaching medicine and engineering, accountancy and computer science. There are as many types of institutions for imparting vocational training as there are vocations. A person trained in one of these institutions will find greater scope to show his merits than one untrained. This is more than ever so today when vocations are multiplying, but ceased to be hereditary and child labour is becoming unlawful.

An untrained man in the modern world may even be a liability or burden to society. He is a quack; he knows only the 'how' of things; he has no idea of its 'why'. Hence if there is any trouble anywhere, - breakdown in a machine, or mistake in a ledger, a mat-functioning of the gadget, he only pleads helplessness, grumbles and patches up the trouble anyhow, leading to a more serious fault.

Reality there is no place for the untrained worker, in these days of specialised work.

In all technically advanced countries, like England, America, Russia, Germany, Japan - only a few are encouraged to go up for a general education. The majority of youngmen have to attend a preparatory school till their eighteenth year or thereabout, and then join some vocational school. It may be a technical school for learning the intricacies of bookkeeping and accountancy or handling a computer. Hence there is now craze for a specialised degree. It must be some school that makes him a specialist; otherwise, he finds himself handicapped in struggle for earning a decent living.

In our country, vocational education is yet to become popular. Very few students go in for the vocational stream in the H.S. Course; also very insignificant arrangements are made for it. They are expensive too. In most cases far too much stress is laid on theory. In a good system, theory and practice must be combined. To ensure this, along with class-work, there must be proper arrangements for ensuring practical training in a factory or a firm.

The Apprenticeship system, which attaches a boy to a firm or a factory, has some admirable features.

In Russia, technical classes are attached to factories and agricultural farms, which provide workers with excellent opportunities for improving their knowledge and skill.

There is no doubt that vocational training makes a man more competent for his job. As a rule, a trained teacher would be more efficient than one untrained. A shop assistant or a sales representative who has learnt the theories of business organization or salesmanship, will be all the better for his job. A physician acquires invaluable experience if he puts in several years at a hospital as an intern.

For all these reasons, we need an extensive network of all sorts of vocational schools. Today if one has to learn the higher techniques of wireless telegraphy, one must go to Poona; for learning agriculture one has to go to PUSA, near Delhi, for aeronautics, computer technology, to Bangalore, and so on. The scope is limited, compared with the needs.

The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.

Q. How can scope for vocational training be improved and promoted in our country?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 10 The best plan would be to attach training classes to various industrial organizations. The theoretical classes can be held in a school or a college and can be supplemented by a course of practical training in these institutions.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 11

The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The state's disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.

By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.

Q. According to the author, the idea of political secularism in Europe, emerged in the backdrop of

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 11 The correct answer is (a) - The background of emergence of political secularism in Europe is mentioned as religious homogenisation, which included expulsion of dissenters and adherents of minority groups. This clearly points towards majoritarianism. None of the other options are discussed in the context.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 12

The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The state's disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.

By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.

Q. The many 'roads' that the author talks about, is a metaphor for

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 12 The correct answer is option (b). Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as the passage doesn't talk about either of these. Option (a) is incorrect as the passage states there are as many roads as there are individuals in the world, if roads were a metaphor for people, it would make the comparison meaningless. Option (b) is the correct answer as the passage states that Gandhiji understood the fact that India has deep religious diversity and is referring to the same while making this comparison.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 13

The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The state's disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.

By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.

Q. With this passage, the author tries to

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 13 The correct answer is Option (c). Option (d) is incorrect because the passage doesn't talk about evolution of political system of India. Option (b) is incorrect as the passage doesn't talk about Gandhiji's contribution, but rather about his ideology regarding the relation between different religions and God. Option (a) is incorrect as it is not the main theme of the passage. Option (c) is correct as the passage clearly talks about the same.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 14

The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The state's disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.

By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.

Q. Tackling religious diversity to achieve 'Church-State separation 'was not an issue, because

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 14 The correct answer is (c). Options (a) and (d) are not discussed in the passage. Option (b) is correct only for Indian scenario, which doesn't talk about Church-State separation. Option (c) is correct as the passage talks about religious homogenisation in the beginning itself, which would have eliminated religious diversity.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 15

The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The state's disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.

By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.

Q. As per Gandhiji's concept of religious diversity, which of these analogies best describes the relation between the different religions and God:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 15 The correct answer is option (d). Option(a) is not correct because a flame is the only means of making a candle useful, thus doesn't talk about diversity.

Option(b) is not correct because the ultimate goal of a fish is not to unite with a source of water, its a just a necessity for it to be alive. Option (c) is not correct because countries are just parts of the whole i.e a continent, it doesn't compare any means or the end. Option (d) is the correct answer because there are different varieties of career options, but the ultimate goal is to become successful.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 16

Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.

Ethos is a speaker's way of convincing the audience that she is a credible source. An audience will consider a speaker credible if she seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in many ways. For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education she has in the field.

After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a dentist than a fire fighter. A speaker can also create ethos by convincing the audience that she is a good person who has their best interests at heart. If an audience cannot trust you, you will not be able to persuade them.

Pathos is a speaker's way of connecting with an audience's emotions. For example, a speaker who is trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible war.

These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him. Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show pictures of injured dogs and cats to an audience. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity. If the audience feels bad for the animals, they will be more likely to donate money.

Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convincing.

An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have data to back up your claims. For example, a commercial for soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kills all 7,000,000 of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy their brand of soap.

Presenting this evidence is much more convincing than simply saying "our soap is the best!" Use of logos can also increase a speaker's ethos; the more facts a speaker includes in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.

Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are used together.

Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos, and logos to persuade their audiences. The next time you listen to a speech, watch a commercial, or listen to a friend try to convince you to lend him some money, be on the lookout for these ancient Greek tools of persuasion.

Q. The main idea of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 16 Option (a) is wrong because persuasion is not the tool of ethos, pathos, and logos. Rather the opposite is true. Option (b) is wrong because persuasion is just one part of conviction. Option (c) is wrong because marketing is too broad a subject. Option (d) is the correct answer.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 17

Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.

Ethos is a speaker's way of convincing the audience that she is a credible source. An audience will consider a speaker credible if she seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in many ways. For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education she has in the field.

After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a dentist than a fire fighter. A speaker can also create ethos by convincing the audience that she is a good person who has their best interests at heart. If an audience cannot trust you, you will not be able to persuade them.

Pathos is a speaker's way of connecting with an audience's emotions. For example, a speaker who is trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible war.

These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him. Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show pictures of injured dogs and cats to an audience. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity. If the audience feels bad for the animals, they will be more likely to donate money.

Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convincing.

An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have data to back up your claims. For example, a commercial for soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kills all 7,000,000 of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy their brand of soap.

Presenting this evidence is much more convincing than simply saying "our soap is the best!" Use of logos can also increase a speaker's ethos; the more facts a speaker includes in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.

Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are used together.

Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos, and logos to persuade their audiences. The next time you listen to a speech, watch a commercial, or listen to a friend try to convince you to lend him some money, be on the lookout for these ancient Greek tools of persuasion.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 17 According to the last paragraph, a combination of the three tools pathos, ethos, and logos makes one an effective co
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 18

Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.

Ethos is a speaker's way of convincing the audience that she is a credible source. An audience will consider a speaker credible if she seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in many ways. For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education she has in the field.

After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a dentist than a fire fighter. A speaker can also create ethos by convincing the audience that she is a good person who has their best interests at heart. If an audience cannot trust you, you will not be able to persuade them.

Pathos is a speaker's way of connecting with an audience's emotions. For example, a speaker who is trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible war.

These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him. Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show pictures of injured dogs and cats to an audience. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity. If the audience feels bad for the animals, they will be more likely to donate money.

Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convincing.

An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have data to back up your claims. For example, a commercial for soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kills all 7,000,000 of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy their brand of soap.

Presenting this evidence is much more convincing than simply saying "our soap is the best!" Use of logos can also increase a speaker's ethos; the more facts a speaker includes in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.

Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are used together.

Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos, and logos to persuade their audiences. The next time you listen to a speech, watch a commercial, or listen to a friend try to convince you to lend him some money, be on the lookout for these ancient Greek tools of persuasion.

Q. According to the passage, persuasion is

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 18 Option (a) twists the facts given in the paragraph. It is used as an example. Option (b) is wrong because one theory can't show the prowess of a race. Option (d) missed out on logos. Hence option (c) is the answer. It can be inferred from the first line of the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 19

Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.

Ethos is a speaker's way of convincing the audience that she is a credible source. An audience will consider a speaker credible if she seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in many ways. For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education she has in the field.

After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a dentist than a fire fighter. A speaker can also create ethos by convincing the audience that she is a good person who has their best interests at heart. If an audience cannot trust you, you will not be able to persuade them.

Pathos is a speaker's way of connecting with an audience's emotions. For example, a speaker who is trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible war.

These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him. Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show pictures of injured dogs and cats to an audience. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity. If the audience feels bad for the animals, they will be more likely to donate money.

Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convincing.

An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have data to back up your claims. For example, a commercial for soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kills all 7,000,000 of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy their brand of soap.

Presenting this evidence is much more convincing than simply saying "our soap is the best!" Use of logos can also increase a speaker's ethos; the more facts a speaker includes in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.

Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are used together.

Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos, and logos to persuade their audiences. The next time you listen to a speech, watch a commercial, or listen to a friend try to convince you to lend him some money, be on the lookout for these ancient Greek tools of persuasion.

Q. Which of the following is an antonym of the word "trustworthy" as it is used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 19 Options (a) and (b) are synonyms of the word.

Trustworthy means reliable. Unreliable is the right answer.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 20

Persuasion is the art of convincing someone to agree with your point of view. According to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, there are three basic tools of persuasion: ethos, pathos, and logos.

Ethos is a speaker's way of convincing the audience that she is a credible source. An audience will consider a speaker credible if she seems trustworthy, reliable, and sincere. This can be done in many ways. For example, a speaker can develop ethos by explaining how much experience or education she has in the field.

After all, you would be more likely to listen to advice about how to take care of your teeth from a dentist than a fire fighter. A speaker can also create ethos by convincing the audience that she is a good person who has their best interests at heart. If an audience cannot trust you, you will not be able to persuade them.

Pathos is a speaker's way of connecting with an audience's emotions. For example, a speaker who is trying to convince an audience to vote for him might say that he alone can save the country from a terrible war.

These words are intended to fill the audience with fear, thus making them want to vote for him. Similarly, a charity organization that helps animals might show pictures of injured dogs and cats to an audience. These images are intended to fill the viewers with pity. If the audience feels bad for the animals, they will be more likely to donate money.

Logos is the use of facts, information, statistics, or other evidence to make your argument more convincing.

An audience will be more likely to believe you if you have data to back up your claims. For example, a commercial for soap might tell you that laboratory tests have shown that their soap kills all 7,000,000 of the bacteria living on your hands right now. This piece of information might make you more likely to buy their brand of soap.

Presenting this evidence is much more convincing than simply saying "our soap is the best!" Use of logos can also increase a speaker's ethos; the more facts a speaker includes in his argument, the more likely you are to think that he is educated and trustworthy.

Although ethos, pathos, and logos all have their strengths, they are often most effective when they are used together.

Indeed, most speakers use a combination of ethos, pathos, and logos to persuade their audiences. The next time you listen to a speech, watch a commercial, or listen to a friend try to convince you to lend him some money, be on the lookout for these ancient Greek tools of persuasion.

Q. The tone of the author is

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 20 The author explains the concept of Persuasion.

Option (b) means thoughtful. It is not appropriate.

Critical is too negative. The author doesn't give view and counterview. Hence, Option (c) can be ruled out.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 21

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 21 Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage deals with introducing and explaining the infrastructure plan of the government initially and then it discusses the cost, affordability and viability of the gigantic project. All other options are incorrect as they mention only a specific point of the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 22

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. Which of the following suggests that the NIP has done its work quite thoroughly?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 22 Option (c) is the correct answer as the number and scale of the project is vast. The act of going projectby-project indicates the thorough nature of the work.

Option (a) is incorrect as the passage doubts the ability of the funding sources to meet their share.

Option (b) is incorrect as 42% of the projects are already under implementation, so the planning can't be out of scratch. Option (d) is incorrect as the passage argues in favour of frequently reviewing the projects in the future, but no such pre-existent detail about the future has been mentioned in the passage.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 23

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. Which of the following factor has been a major cause of the derailment of economic growth?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 23 Option (c) is correct as it is a factual statement that has been mentioned initially in the concluding paragraph. All other options are incorrect as they do not find reference in the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 24

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. As used in the passage, the word "perilous" is synonymous to

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 24 Option (b) is correct as the term "perilous" has been used to represent the dire financial status of the states. Thus, menacing is the most appropriate word to express this dire state.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 25

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. As mentioned in the passage, the word "window" most nearly means

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 25 Option (a) is the correct answer as NIP has been called in the passage as an access point to the future.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 26

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. The government's investment in infrastructure has been welcomed by the author from which point of view?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 26 Option (b) is the correct answer as the primary reason for welcoming the investment push is the creation of jobs and boost to good's demand. All other options are incorrect as they are the subsidiary and consequent repercussions of increase in the demand for primary goods and of job creation. These effects have not been directly mentioned in the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 27

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. Which of the following indicated that the NIP wants the centre and states to completely cooperate on this investment plan?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 27 Option (a) is correct as there could be no stronger evidence for the establishment of equal footings for states and centre than the equality in funding the projects. Options (b) and (c) are incorrect as they are presumptuous in nature and do not find a direct mention in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect as the Finance Ministry has promised the review and thus it may not necessarily be conducting the review itself solely.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 28

For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category.

Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identified projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage.

The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome.

Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years.

The financial position of States is even more perilous.

Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals.

Q. Why could financing be a problem for this infrastructure investment push?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 28 Option (d) is the correct answer as the problem on the financing of these projects is related to the apprehensions of the banks, given their history in infrastructure financing. Option (a) is incorrect as the shortage of funds with the banks, is an absurd point in itself, besides it has not been mentioned as the cause of the problem. Option (b) is incorrect as the private sector should not to be blamed for the apprehensions of the banking sector. This is no correlation in the scope of this passage to establish any correlation between the two factors.

Option (c) is incorrect as the passage has no mention of government policies over the issue of lending by banks.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 29

It is a matter of life or death: that’s a concept that gets our attention, whether chuckling over it in a B-grade film, or engrossed by it in an A-grade medical book such as this year’s Pulitzer Prize winner for nonfiction, The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee.

It isn’t hyperbole to call Emperor a literary masterpiece.

The Pulitzer citation describes it as, “an elegant inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that, despite treatment breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science.”

“Elegant” is an apposite description of the New York based oncologist’s prose, whether he is rephrasing Tolstoy: “Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in unique ways”; or explaining the book’s provocative title: “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour”; or extrapolating, from cancer’s ability to mutate, into the realm of philosophy: “If we, as a species, are the ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”

Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying.

Emperor is a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of death – as a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat, the more you know, the more aware you are of how much you don’t know.

Tales related to surgery, with its inherent drama, has the edge on our medical reading lists. Some medical books fall into the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today. While the genre can attract those looking to make a quick buck by peddling to people’s insecurities, there are some useful tomes too. Author Tim Parks in Teach Us to Sit Still shares how reading a famous self-help book, A Headache in the Pelvis helped with his chronic pelvic pain syndrome.

Medical books deal with a subject close to our hearts — us, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we are most drawn to – thrillers aside – are those that give us a deeper insight into how the mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get better — and, unhappily, sometimes, why we can’t.

Q. According to the author, medical books catch our attention because

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 29 It follows from the passage that medical books engage our attention primarily because they deal with matters of life and death which we can associate with.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 30

It is a matter of life or death: that’s a concept that gets our attention, whether chuckling over it in a B-grade film, or engrossed by it in an A-grade medical book such as this year’s Pulitzer Prize winner for nonfiction, The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee.

It isn’t hyperbole to call Emperor a literary masterpiece.

The Pulitzer citation describes it as, “an elegant inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that, despite treatment breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science.”

“Elegant” is an apposite description of the New York based oncologist’s prose, whether he is rephrasing Tolstoy: “Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in unique ways”; or explaining the book’s provocative title: “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour”; or extrapolating, from cancer’s ability to mutate, into the realm of philosophy: “If we, as a species, are the ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”

Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying.

Emperor is a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of death – as a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat, the more you know, the more aware you are of how much you don’t know.

Tales related to surgery, with its inherent drama, has the edge on our medical reading lists. Some medical books fall into the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today. While the genre can attract those looking to make a quick buck by peddling to people’s insecurities, there are some useful tomes too. Author Tim Parks in Teach Us to Sit Still shares how reading a famous self-help book, A Headache in the Pelvis helped with his chronic pelvic pain syndrome.

Medical books deal with a subject close to our hearts — us, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we are most drawn to – thrillers aside – are those that give us a deeper insight into how the mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get better — and, unhappily, sometimes, why we can’t.

Q. What is the “biographical” aspect of Mukherjee’s book?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 30 Refer to the line - “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour.” Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 31

It is a matter of life or death: that’s a concept that gets our attention, whether chuckling over it in a B-grade film, or engrossed by it in an A-grade medical book such as this year’s Pulitzer Prize winner for nonfiction, The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee.

It isn’t hyperbole to call Emperor a literary masterpiece.

The Pulitzer citation describes it as, “an elegant inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that, despite treatment breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science.”

“Elegant” is an apposite description of the New York based oncologist’s prose, whether he is rephrasing Tolstoy: “Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in unique ways”; or explaining the book’s provocative title: “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour”; or extrapolating, from cancer’s ability to mutate, into the realm of philosophy: “If we, as a species, are the ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”

Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying.

Emperor is a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of death – as a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat, the more you know, the more aware you are of how much you don’t know.

Tales related to surgery, with its inherent drama, has the edge on our medical reading lists. Some medical books fall into the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today. While the genre can attract those looking to make a quick buck by peddling to people’s insecurities, there are some useful tomes too. Author Tim Parks in Teach Us to Sit Still shares how reading a famous self-help book, A Headache in the Pelvis helped with his chronic pelvic pain syndrome.

Medical books deal with a subject close to our hearts — us, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we are most drawn to – thrillers aside – are those that give us a deeper insight into how the mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get better — and, unhappily, sometimes, why we can’t.

Q. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 31 Option (b) follows directly from the passage - “the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today.”
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 32

It is a matter of life or death: that’s a concept that gets our attention, whether chuckling over it in a B-grade film, or engrossed by it in an A-grade medical book such as this year’s Pulitzer Prize winner for nonfiction, The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee.

It isn’t hyperbole to call Emperor a literary masterpiece.

The Pulitzer citation describes it as, “an elegant inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that, despite treatment breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science.”

“Elegant” is an apposite description of the New York based oncologist’s prose, whether he is rephrasing Tolstoy: “Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in unique ways”; or explaining the book’s provocative title: “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour”; or extrapolating, from cancer’s ability to mutate, into the realm of philosophy: “If we, as a species, are the ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”

Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying.

Emperor is a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of death – as a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat, the more you know, the more aware you are of how much you don’t know.

Tales related to surgery, with its inherent drama, has the edge on our medical reading lists. Some medical books fall into the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today. While the genre can attract those looking to make a quick buck by peddling to people’s insecurities, there are some useful tomes too. Author Tim Parks in Teach Us to Sit Still shares how reading a famous self-help book, A Headache in the Pelvis helped with his chronic pelvic pain syndrome.

Medical books deal with a subject close to our hearts — us, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we are most drawn to – thrillers aside – are those that give us a deeper insight into how the mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get better — and, unhappily, sometimes, why we can’t.

Q. Which of the following statements follows from the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 32 Option (b) follows from “If we, as a species, are the ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 33

As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called [1].

Earlier this week, guided missile destroyer INS Kochi, the flagship destroyer of Indian Western Naval fleet, with its two integral Sea King-42B helicopters, arrived at Port Al Jubail during its Persian Gulf deployment. Further, Flag officer commanding India’s western fleet, Rear Admiral Ajay Kochhar, held discussions with Saudi Eastern Fleet commander, Rear Admiral on bilateral defence cooperation aspects and ongoing first Naval exercise. Besides, an exchange of mementos was undertaken at the fleet headquarters. ‘[1] 2021’ comprises a number of shores and sea based exercises between the two friendly navies. On its arrival at the Jubail port, INS Kochi was given a warm welcome by the officials of Royal Saudi Naval Forces, Border Guards and the Indian Embassy. India’s defence ties also received major boost when the Indian Army chief visited Saudi Arabia last december.

Q. Which of the following replaces [1]?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 33 “Al-Mohed Al-Hind”: The first-ever joint naval exercise between India & Saudi Arabia. As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first-ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called “Al-Mohed Al-Hind”.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 34

As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called [1].

Earlier this week, guided missile destroyer INS Kochi, the flagship destroyer of Indian Western Naval fleet, with its two integral Sea King-42B helicopters, arrived at Port Al Jubail during its Persian Gulf deployment. Further, Flag officer commanding India’s western fleet, Rear Admiral Ajay Kochhar, held discussions with Saudi Eastern Fleet commander, Rear Admiral on bilateral defence cooperation aspects and ongoing first Naval exercise. Besides, an exchange of mementos was undertaken at the fleet headquarters. ‘[1] 2021’ comprises a number of shores and sea based exercises between the two friendly navies. On its arrival at the Jubail port, INS Kochi was given a warm welcome by the officials of Royal Saudi Naval Forces, Border Guards and the Indian Embassy. India’s defence ties also received major boost when the Indian Army chief visited Saudi Arabia last december.

Q. Who is the Indian Ambassador to Saudi Arabia?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 34 Dr. Ausaf Sayeed is an Indian career diplomat from the Indian Foreign Service who represents India in Saudi Arabia as the Ambassador.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 35

As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called [1].

Earlier this week, guided missile destroyer INS Kochi, the flagship destroyer of Indian Western Naval fleet, with its two integral Sea King-42B helicopters, arrived at Port Al Jubail during its Persian Gulf deployment. Further, Flag officer commanding India’s western fleet, Rear Admiral Ajay Kochhar, held discussions with Saudi Eastern Fleet commander, Rear Admiral on bilateral defence cooperation aspects and ongoing first Naval exercise. Besides, an exchange of mementos was undertaken at the fleet headquarters. ‘[1] 2021’ comprises a number of shores and sea based exercises between the two friendly navies. On its arrival at the Jubail port, INS Kochi was given a warm welcome by the officials of Royal Saudi Naval Forces, Border Guards and the Indian Embassy. India’s defence ties also received major boost when the Indian Army chief visited Saudi Arabia last december.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. INS Kochi is the 2nd ship of Kolkata class stealth guided missile destroyers built under code name Project 15A for the India Navy.

II. INS Kochi was constructed by the Cochin Shipyard Ltd in Kochi.

III. INS Kochi was commissioned in 2015.

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 35 INS Kochi is the second ship of the Kolkata-class stealth guided-missile destroyers built under the code name Project 15A for the Indian Navy. She was constructed by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai. After undergoing extensive sea trials, she was commissioned to Indian Navy service on 30 September 2015.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 36

As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called [1].

Earlier this week, guided missile destroyer INS Kochi, the flagship destroyer of Indian Western Naval fleet, with its two integral Sea King-42B helicopters, arrived at Port Al Jubail during its Persian Gulf deployment. Further, Flag officer commanding India’s western fleet, Rear Admiral Ajay Kochhar, held discussions with Saudi Eastern Fleet commander, Rear Admiral on bilateral defence cooperation aspects and ongoing first Naval exercise. Besides, an exchange of mementos was undertaken at the fleet headquarters. ‘[1] 2021’ comprises a number of shores and sea based exercises between the two friendly navies. On its arrival at the Jubail port, INS Kochi was given a warm welcome by the officials of Royal Saudi Naval Forces, Border Guards and the Indian Embassy. India’s defence ties also received major boost when the Indian Army chief visited Saudi Arabia last december.

Q. Recently Saudi invited PM Modi to participate in which summit?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 36 Saudi Arabia had invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi for the Middle East Green Initiative Summit, which will take place in October. Through the initiative, the country aims to lead regional efforts in combating climate change.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 37

As part of the continuing upward trajectory in growing defence ties with the Gulf countries, India is conducting its first ever naval exercise with Saudi Arabia called [1].

Earlier this week, guided missile destroyer INS Kochi, the flagship destroyer of Indian Western Naval fleet, with its two integral Sea King-42B helicopters, arrived at Port Al Jubail during its Persian Gulf deployment. Further, Flag officer commanding India’s western fleet, Rear Admiral Ajay Kochhar, held discussions with Saudi Eastern Fleet commander, Rear Admiral on bilateral defence cooperation aspects and ongoing first Naval exercise. Besides, an exchange of mementos was undertaken at the fleet headquarters. ‘[1] 2021’ comprises a number of shores and sea based exercises between the two friendly navies. On its arrival at the Jubail port, INS Kochi was given a warm welcome by the officials of Royal Saudi Naval Forces, Border Guards and the Indian Embassy. India’s defence ties also received major boost when the Indian Army chief visited Saudi Arabia last december.

Q. Navy day is celebrated on _____ every year?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 37 Navy Day in India is celebrated on 4 December every year to recognize the achievements and role of the Indian Navy to the country. 4 December was chosen as on that day in 1971, during Operation Trident, the Indian Navy sank four Pakistani vessels including PNS Khaibar, killing hundreds of Pakistani Navy personnel.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 38

Trade Talks between Australia and European Union have been postponed as a row with [1] over the so called AUKUS security partnership deepens.

Last month, Canberra cancelled a $37bn deal with [1] to build a fleet of conventional submarines.

Instead it will build at least eight nuclear powered submarines with US and UK technology.

Infact, soon after the AUKUS agreement was announced, [1] recalled its ambassadors from both Canberra and Washington.

The ambassador to washington will now return to his post, but its not clear whether the ambassador to Canberra will do the same.

European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen has previously questioned whether the EU would be able to strike a trade deal with Australia, in solidarity with [1].

Q. Australia cancelled $37bn deal for submarines with which country?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 38 Under this “contract of the century”, agreed to between Paris and Canberra in 2016, France was to provide Australia with diesel-electric Barracuda submarines for a total of 34 billion euros (A$55 billion) over a 25-year period.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 39

Trade Talks between Australia and European Union have been postponed as a row with [1] over the so called AUKUS security partnership deepens.

Last month, Canberra cancelled a $37bn deal with [1] to build a fleet of conventional submarines.

Instead it will build at least eight nuclear powered submarines with US and UK technology.

Infact, soon after the AUKUS agreement was announced, [1] recalled its ambassadors from both Canberra and Washington.

The ambassador to washington will now return to his post, but its not clear whether the ambassador to Canberra will do the same.

European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen has previously questioned whether the EU would be able to strike a trade deal with Australia, in solidarity with [1].

Q. Australia will become only the _____ country with which US has shared it’s nuclear submarine technology?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 39 The U.S. is taking the very rare step of sharing its nuclear-powered submarine technology. For more than 60 years, the U.S. has only shared with the United Kingdom, but a new pact is going to include Australia as well.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 40

Trade Talks between Australia and European Union have been postponed as a row with [1] over the so called AUKUS security partnership deepens.

Last month, Canberra cancelled a $37bn deal with [1] to build a fleet of conventional submarines.

Instead it will build at least eight nuclear powered submarines with US and UK technology.

Infact, soon after the AUKUS agreement was announced, [1] recalled its ambassadors from both Canberra and Washington.

The ambassador to washington will now return to his post, but its not clear whether the ambassador to Canberra will do the same.

European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen has previously questioned whether the EU would be able to strike a trade deal with Australia, in solidarity with [1].

Q. Which of the following are correct statements?

I. Sharing of US Nuclear submarine to Australia

II. Security grouping AUKUS to advance strategic interests in the Indo Pacific

III. Nuclear submarines are quieter than conventional counterparts are more capable of being deployed for longer periods and needing to surface less frequently

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 40 Australia is 2nd country after UK to get submarine technology from the USA. AUKUS is meant to perform strategic interests in the Indo Pacific region as a counterbalance to China and Nuclear submarines are far better in compatibility than their conventional counterparts.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 41

Trade Talks between Australia and European Union have been postponed as a row with [1] over the so called AUKUS security partnership deepens.

Last month, Canberra cancelled a $37bn deal with [1] to build a fleet of conventional submarines.

Instead it will build at least eight nuclear powered submarines with US and UK technology.

Infact, soon after the AUKUS agreement was announced, [1] recalled its ambassadors from both Canberra and Washington.

The ambassador to washington will now return to his post, but its not clear whether the ambassador to Canberra will do the same.

European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen has previously questioned whether the EU would be able to strike a trade deal with Australia, in solidarity with [1].

Q. Presently how many countries operate nuclear powered submarines in the world?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 41 Today, six countries deploy some form of nuclear-powered strategic submarines: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, China, and India.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 42

Trade Talks between Australia and European Union have been postponed as a row with [1] over the so called AUKUS security partnership deepens.

Last month, Canberra cancelled a $37bn deal with [1] to build a fleet of conventional submarines.

Instead it will build at least eight nuclear powered submarines with US and UK technology.

Infact, soon after the AUKUS agreement was announced, [1] recalled its ambassadors from both Canberra and Washington.

The ambassador to washington will now return to his post, but its not clear whether the ambassador to Canberra will do the same.

European Commission president Ursula von der Leyen has previously questioned whether the EU would be able to strike a trade deal with Australia, in solidarity with [1].

Q. Which of the following is not a part of Five Eyes Intelligence Alliance?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 42 The Five Eyes is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 43

President [1] has said Iran wants closer ties with its regional neighbours and rejected the United States’ “unilateralism” as his country became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO). Iran said on Friday it had been accepted as the full member of SCO. Senior officials from other member states - China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan were in attendance.

Iran had held observer status for the past [2]. It expects the full membership to boost its economy and regional standing.

In a speech to the summit, newly elected [1] predominantly emphasised his main stated foriegn policy goal, which is to expand political, economic and cultural ties with the countries across the region and protect Iran from unilateral punishments from the West.

Q. Who is the president of Iran as redacted by [1] from the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 43 Sayyid Ebrahim Raisolsadati, commonly known as Ebrahim Raisi, is an Iranian hardline, Islamist, principlist politician, Muslim jurist, and the eighth and current president of Iran since 3 August 2021, having been elected to the presidency in the 2021 election.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 44

President [1] has said Iran wants closer ties with its regional neighbours and rejected the United States’ “unilateralism” as his country became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO). Iran said on Friday it had been accepted as the full member of SCO. Senior officials from other member states - China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan were in attendance.

Iran had held observer status for the past [2]. It expects the full membership to boost its economy and regional standing.

In a speech to the summit, newly elected [1] predominantly emphasised his main stated foriegn policy goal, which is to expand political, economic and cultural ties with the countries across the region and protect Iran from unilateral punishments from the West.

Q. India and Pakistan became members of SCO in which year?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 44 India and Pakistan became members in 2017. Iran is the ninth and the newest member of SCO.

India was made an observer at the SCO in 2005 and has generally participated in the ministerial-level meetings of the grouping which focus mainly on security and economic cooperation in the Eurasian region.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 45

President [1] has said Iran wants closer ties with its regional neighbours and rejected the United States’ “unilateralism” as his country became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO). Iran said on Friday it had been accepted as the full member of SCO. Senior officials from other member states - China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan were in attendance.

Iran had held observer status for the past [2]. It expects the full membership to boost its economy and regional standing.

In a speech to the summit, newly elected [1] predominantly emphasised his main stated foriegn policy goal, which is to expand political, economic and cultural ties with the countries across the region and protect Iran from unilateral punishments from the West.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 45 SCO has its headquarters in Shanghai

The Headquarter of SCO is located in Beijing, China.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 46

President [1] has said Iran wants closer ties with its regional neighbours and rejected the United States’ “unilateralism” as his country became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO). Iran said on Friday it had been accepted as the full member of SCO. Senior officials from other member states - China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan were in attendance.

Iran had held observer status for the past [2]. It expects the full membership to boost its economy and regional standing.

In a speech to the summit, newly elected [1] predominantly emphasised his main stated foriegn policy goal, which is to expand political, economic and cultural ties with the countries across the region and protect Iran from unilateral punishments from the West.

Q. The 21st Summit of SCO Council of Heads of States was held in which country?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 46 The 21st Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Council of Heads of State was held recently via video Conferencing in Dushanbe, Tajikistan.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 47

President [1] has said Iran wants closer ties with its regional neighbours and rejected the United States’ “unilateralism” as his country became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO). Iran said on Friday it had been accepted as the full member of SCO. Senior officials from other member states - China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan were in attendance.

Iran had held observer status for the past [2]. It expects the full membership to boost its economy and regional standing.

In a speech to the summit, newly elected [1] predominantly emphasised his main stated foriegn policy goal, which is to expand political, economic and cultural ties with the countries across the region and protect Iran from unilateral punishments from the West.

Q. Iran was observer country for how many years?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 47 Iran’s bid to become a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was approved after almost 15 years by the bloc’s seven permanent members.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 48

India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1] position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from [2] rank last year. However, in 2020, its rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan. Japan and Singapore top the index.

The current rankings are for first quarter of 2022 and India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda.

Since 2005, Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without prior visa and is based on data from International Air Transport Association (IATA).

India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest additions. India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.

A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said.

Q. Rank of India in HPI 2022 is ____

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 48 The Indian passport has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide in Q1 2022, as compared to 58 destinations in Q4 of 2021. Oman and Armenia are the latest destinations where Indian passport holders can visit without obtaining a visa.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 49

India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1] position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from [2] rank last year. However, in 2020, its rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan. Japan and Singapore top the index.

The current rankings are for first quarter of 2022 and India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda.

Since 2005, Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without prior visa and is based on data from International Air Transport Association (IATA).

India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest additions. India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.

A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said.

Q. For the 3rd consecutive year which country has secured the 1st position?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 49 Japan has restored its place as the top country in the HPI Index for the 3rd term.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 50

India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1] position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from [2] rank last year. However, in 2020, its rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan. Japan and Singapore top the index.

The current rankings are for first quarter of 2022 and India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda.

Since 2005, Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without prior visa and is based on data from International Air Transport Association (IATA).

India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest additions. India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.

A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said.

Q. Worst ranking country is which of the following?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 50 Afghanistan and Iraq continue to be in the 'worst passports to hold' category.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 51

India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1] position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from [2] rank last year. However, in 2020, its rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan. Japan and Singapore top the index.

The current rankings are for first quarter of 2022 and India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda.

Since 2005, Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without prior visa and is based on data from International Air Transport Association (IATA).

India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest additions. India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.

A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said.

Q. Which country ranks 1st with visa-free visit to 192 countries?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 51 Japan and Singapore have retained the joint top position in the Henley Global Mobility Report 2022 Q1. Their passports holders are allowed to travel visa-free to 192 countries. Afghanistan has the world’s least powerful passports, with a visa-free score of 26.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 52

India’s passport power has improved this quarter compared to 2021. It now ranks at [1] position in the Henley Passport Index, climbing seven places from [2] rank last year. However, in 2020, its rank stood at 84 while in 2016, India was ranked 85th along with Mali and Uzbekistan. Japan and Singapore top the index.

The current rankings are for first quarter of 2022 and India shares the position with Sao Tome and Principe in Central Africa, behind Rwanda and Uganda.

Since 2005, Henley Passport Index ranks world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without prior visa and is based on data from International Air Transport Association (IATA).

India now has visa-free access to 60 destinations worldwide with Oman and Armenia being the latest additions. India has added 35 more destinations since 2006.

A statement by Henley and Partners said that in 2006 an individual could, on average, visit 57 countries visa-free. “Today, that number has risen to 107, but this overall increase marks a growing disparity between countries in the global north and those in the global south, with nationals from countries such as Sweden and the US able to visit more than 180 destinations visa-free, while passport holders from Angola, Cameroon, and Laos can only enter about 50,” the statement said.

Q. Indians have access to visa free destinations in how many countries?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 52 Oman and Armenia were the latest addition to visa free destinations. Now the country’s with visa free destination go to 59.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 53

The Government on Friday challenged India’s poor ranking in the the Global Hunger Index 2021 and the methodology used calling it “devoid of ground reality and facts”.

The Index launched on Thursday ranked India at 101 position of 116 countries. India is also among the 31 countries where hunger has been identified as serious. India ranked 94 among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) released last year

Four-question opinion poll

“The publishing agencies of the Global Hunger Report, Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe have not done their due diligence before releasing the report. The methodology used by FAO is unscientific. They have based their assessment on the results of a ‘four question’ opinion poll, which was conducted telephonically by Gallup,” the Ministry of Women and Child Development said in a statement.

According to the Index, only 15 countries fare worse than India. They are Papua New Guinea (102), Afghanistan and Nigeria (103), Congo (105), Mozambique and Sierra Leone (106), Timor-Leste (108), Haiti (109), Liberia (110), Madagascar (111), Democratic Republic of Congo (112), Chad (113), Central African Republic (114), Yemen (115) and Somalia (116).

India was also behind most of the neighbouring countries. Pakistan was placed at 92, Nepal and Bangladesh at 76 and Sri Lanka at 65.

The Government has contested the performance of these neighbouring countries on the Index.

“It is noted with surprise, from the FAO report ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2021’, that other four countries of this region — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka — have not been affected at all by COVID-19 pandemic induced loss of job/business and reduction in income levels, rather they have been able to improve their position on the indicator ‘proportion of undernourished population’ by 4.3%, 3.3%, 1.3% and 0.8% points respectively during the period 2018-20 over 2017-19," the statement adds.

Q. What is rank of India in GHI 2021?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 53 India has slipped to 101st position in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2021 of 116 countries, from its 2020 position of 94th.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 54

The Government on Friday challenged India’s poor ranking in the the Global Hunger Index 2021 and the methodology used calling it “devoid of ground reality and facts”.

The Index launched on Thursday ranked India at 101 position of 116 countries. India is also among the 31 countries where hunger has been identified as serious. India ranked 94 among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) released last year

Four-question opinion poll

“The publishing agencies of the Global Hunger Report, Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe have not done their due diligence before releasing the report. The methodology used by FAO is unscientific. They have based their assessment on the results of a ‘four question’ opinion poll, which was conducted telephonically by Gallup,” the Ministry of Women and Child Development said in a statement.

According to the Index, only 15 countries fare worse than India. They are Papua New Guinea (102), Afghanistan and Nigeria (103), Congo (105), Mozambique and Sierra Leone (106), Timor-Leste (108), Haiti (109), Liberia (110), Madagascar (111), Democratic Republic of Congo (112), Chad (113), Central African Republic (114), Yemen (115) and Somalia (116).

India was also behind most of the neighbouring countries. Pakistan was placed at 92, Nepal and Bangladesh at 76 and Sri Lanka at 65.

The Government has contested the performance of these neighbouring countries on the Index.

“It is noted with surprise, from the FAO report ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2021’, that other four countries of this region — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka — have not been affected at all by COVID-19 pandemic induced loss of job/business and reduction in income levels, rather they have been able to improve their position on the indicator ‘proportion of undernourished population’ by 4.3%, 3.3%, 1.3% and 0.8% points respectively during the period 2018-20 over 2017-19," the statement adds.

Q. When is world food day observed?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 54 World Food Day is an international day celebrated every year worldwide on 16 October to commemorate the date of the founding of the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organisation in 1945.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 55

The Government on Friday challenged India’s poor ranking in the the Global Hunger Index 2021 and the methodology used calling it “devoid of ground reality and facts”.

The Index launched on Thursday ranked India at 101 position of 116 countries. India is also among the 31 countries where hunger has been identified as serious. India ranked 94 among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) released last year

Four-question opinion poll

“The publishing agencies of the Global Hunger Report, Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe have not done their due diligence before releasing the report. The methodology used by FAO is unscientific. They have based their assessment on the results of a ‘four question’ opinion poll, which was conducted telephonically by Gallup,” the Ministry of Women and Child Development said in a statement.

According to the Index, only 15 countries fare worse than India. They are Papua New Guinea (102), Afghanistan and Nigeria (103), Congo (105), Mozambique and Sierra Leone (106), Timor-Leste (108), Haiti (109), Liberia (110), Madagascar (111), Democratic Republic of Congo (112), Chad (113), Central African Republic (114), Yemen (115) and Somalia (116).

India was also behind most of the neighbouring countries. Pakistan was placed at 92, Nepal and Bangladesh at 76 and Sri Lanka at 65.

The Government has contested the performance of these neighbouring countries on the Index.

“It is noted with surprise, from the FAO report ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2021’, that other four countries of this region — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka — have not been affected at all by COVID-19 pandemic induced loss of job/business and reduction in income levels, rather they have been able to improve their position on the indicator ‘proportion of undernourished population’ by 4.3%, 3.3%, 1.3% and 0.8% points respectively during the period 2018-20 over 2017-19," the statement adds.

Q. Which of the following is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 55 GHI is jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe every year since 2006.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 56

The Government on Friday challenged India’s poor ranking in the the Global Hunger Index 2021 and the methodology used calling it “devoid of ground reality and facts”.

The Index launched on Thursday ranked India at 101 position of 116 countries. India is also among the 31 countries where hunger has been identified as serious. India ranked 94 among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) released last year

Four-question opinion poll

“The publishing agencies of the Global Hunger Report, Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe have not done their due diligence before releasing the report. The methodology used by FAO is unscientific. They have based their assessment on the results of a ‘four question’ opinion poll, which was conducted telephonically by Gallup,” the Ministry of Women and Child Development said in a statement.

According to the Index, only 15 countries fare worse than India. They are Papua New Guinea (102), Afghanistan and Nigeria (103), Congo (105), Mozambique and Sierra Leone (106), Timor-Leste (108), Haiti (109), Liberia (110), Madagascar (111), Democratic Republic of Congo (112), Chad (113), Central African Republic (114), Yemen (115) and Somalia (116).

India was also behind most of the neighbouring countries. Pakistan was placed at 92, Nepal and Bangladesh at 76 and Sri Lanka at 65.

The Government has contested the performance of these neighbouring countries on the Index.

“It is noted with surprise, from the FAO report ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2021’, that other four countries of this region — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka — have not been affected at all by COVID-19 pandemic induced loss of job/business and reduction in income levels, rather they have been able to improve their position on the indicator ‘proportion of undernourished population’ by 4.3%, 3.3%, 1.3% and 0.8% points respectively during the period 2018-20 over 2017-19," the statement adds.

Q. Which SDG agenda seeks to end all hunger and all forms of malnutrition and double agricultural productivity in next 15 years?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 56 Sustainable Development Goal 2 aims to achieve "zero hunger". It is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations in 2015. The official wording is: "End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture".
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 57

The Government on Friday challenged India’s poor ranking in the the Global Hunger Index 2021 and the methodology used calling it “devoid of ground reality and facts”.

The Index launched on Thursday ranked India at 101 position of 116 countries. India is also among the 31 countries where hunger has been identified as serious. India ranked 94 among 107 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) released last year

Four-question opinion poll

“The publishing agencies of the Global Hunger Report, Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe have not done their due diligence before releasing the report. The methodology used by FAO is unscientific. They have based their assessment on the results of a ‘four question’ opinion poll, which was conducted telephonically by Gallup,” the Ministry of Women and Child Development said in a statement.

According to the Index, only 15 countries fare worse than India. They are Papua New Guinea (102), Afghanistan and Nigeria (103), Congo (105), Mozambique and Sierra Leone (106), Timor-Leste (108), Haiti (109), Liberia (110), Madagascar (111), Democratic Republic of Congo (112), Chad (113), Central African Republic (114), Yemen (115) and Somalia (116).

India was also behind most of the neighbouring countries. Pakistan was placed at 92, Nepal and Bangladesh at 76 and Sri Lanka at 65.

The Government has contested the performance of these neighbouring countries on the Index.

“It is noted with surprise, from the FAO report ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2021’, that other four countries of this region — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka — have not been affected at all by COVID-19 pandemic induced loss of job/business and reduction in income levels, rather they have been able to improve their position on the indicator ‘proportion of undernourished population’ by 4.3%, 3.3%, 1.3% and 0.8% points respectively during the period 2018-20 over 2017-19," the statement adds.

Q. World Food programme got Nobel Peace Prize in which year?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 57 The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to United Nations World Food Programme (WFP) "for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict."
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 58

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. Which of the following is the main point of the author in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 58 Assumption of the passage is centered around the commission and omission of Recusal and Nonrecusal. Option (a) and (c) are completely inconsistent with the given passage. Option (b) is unsuitable to choose because the effect of nonrecusal can't be inferred from any statements provided in the passage. Only appropriate answer is Option (d).
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 59

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. As per the passage if right-minded persons entertain a feeling that there is any likelihood of bias on the part of the Judge, he must recuse. Does the passage also mentions about the recourse to be taken if there is mere possibility of such a feeling is

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 59 Passage is completely silent on the aspect of likelihood or mere possibility of bias. Whatever information has to be assumed must be drawn from the paragraph. Therefore only option which logically extends is Option (a).
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 60

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. If a judge reflects a predisposition so strong that it seems he had already made up his mind as to the outcome of the case, will it be according to judicial norms to ask for a recusal by the litigants?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 60 The guiding consideration is that the administration of justice should reasonably appear to be disinterested as well as be so in fact. Taking this into account option b is a suitable answer.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 61

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. If a Judge recused from hearing the review petition of four death row convicts in the gang rape-murder case after finding the name of his/her nephew, in the orders of the review petitions. Is the recusal consistent with the essence of recusal provided in the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 61 In the first two paragraphs dictum of Lord Chief Justice Hewart is mentioned. Justice Hewart said "It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done." Going by the first two paragraphs it can be safely concluded that Option d is the most appropriate to choose.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 62

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. Suppose a situation arises where a recusal by a Judge is used as a means to allow a party to choose its own bench, will it be axiomatic from the passage that such a recusal is proper, morally or/and constitutionally?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 62 Idea of the paragraph is that a recusal should be taken if the presence of a judge on the bench causes bias against the right minded individuals.

Applying this principle on the given situation where a litigant attributing bias on the Judge will have the bench of his/her choice will lead to a phenomenon of forum shopping. Thus, Option b captures the fact situation and essence of the passage the routine recusal would give room to an "unscrupulous litigant to have a Judge of their choice".

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 63

One of the reasons for recusal of a Judge is that litigants/ the public might entertain a reasonable apprehension about his impartiality. As Lord Chief Justice Hewart said:

"It is not merely of some importance but is of fundamental importance that justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution, the Judge recuses from hearing the case.

A Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, while assuming Office, takes an oath as prescribed under Schedule III to the Constitution of India, that:

"… I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established, that I will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India, that I will duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws."

Called upon to discharge the duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will, it is only desirable, if not proper, that a Judge, for any unavoidable reason like some pecuniary interest, affinity or adversity with the parties in the case, direct or indirect interest in the outcome of the litigation, family directly involved in litigation on the same issue elsewhere, the Judge being aware that he or someone in his immediate family has an interest, financial or otherwise that could have a substantial bearing as a consequence of the decision in the litigation, etc., to recuse himself from the adjudication of a particular matter. No doubt, these examples are not exhaustive.

The simple question is, whether the adjudication by the Judge concerned, would cause a reasonable doubt in the mind of a reasonably informed litigant and fair-minded public as to his impartiality. Being an institution whose hallmark is transparency, it is only proper that the Judge discharging high and noble duties, at least broadly indicate the reasons for recusing from the case so that the litigants or the well-meaning public may not entertain any misunderstanding.

Once reasons for recusal are indicated, there will not be any room for attributing any motive for the recusal. To put it differently, it is part of his duty to be accountable to the Constitution by upholding it without fear or favour, affection or ill- will. Therefore, I am of the view that it is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one's oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a Judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case.

Q. What kind of institution the judiciary is referred to in the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 63 In the last line of the Second paragraph mentioning "And therefore, in order to uphold the credibility of the integrity institution". Therefore option c is the right answer.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 64

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. Which of these is not an action usually performed by the US state and federal appellate courts?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 64 The third paragraph is about the functions of the courts.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 65

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. What does the word "discretionary" mean in the context of this passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 65 The word is used in the last sentence, and means that the courts decide whether to review a case or not.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 66

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. What is the correct order in which the final verdict of a case is decided?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 66 The trial court giv es the initial v erdict, which may be appealed in the appellate court, and further appealed in the Supreme Court.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 67

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. Which of the following courts is authorized to initially determine the facts of the cases?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 67 Refer to the first paragraph. The clue is 'initially'.

It's the duty of the trial court.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 68

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author in this passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 68 The author neither preaches nor makes biased conclusions in the passage. So, (c) and (d) can be easily eliminated. Between (a) and (b), the latter is a better choice. The author doesn't structure the passage as a story. Rather, the author gives definitions and explains these in a comprehensive manner with a legal tone. Hence, (b) is the correct choice.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 69

An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court. Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.

The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another.

In some places, the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.

In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court. Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in the appeal.

In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome.

However, appeals may be costly, and the appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review, meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.

Q. Which of the following is not one of the effects an appellate court's judgment produced?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 69 The appellate court's judgment only affects the verdict, and there is no mention of retrial, since the trial court has already given its verdict after trial.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 70

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 70 The correct answer is (c)

The idea of privacy as a basic right is not adequately addressed in the Bill in its current form. The very essence of the author's view is that despite the right to privacy as a basic right, the Bill in its current form does not sufficiently protect the right to privacy of individuals.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 71

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. Suppose the Supreme Court passed a judgement to link Aadhar card to social media accounts. In such a case, based on the author's reasoning, what is the likely impact it will have on Cybercrime investigating agencies?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 71 Correct Answer is (a)

Cybercrime investigation agencies will be amenable to the proposition that the platforms are bound by the Indian laws and falls within the Indian jurisdiction.

All other options cannot be inferred from the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 72

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. Where there is a clash between two Fundamental Rights, the right which would advance the public morality or public interest, would alone be enforced through the process of court. M was suffering from AIDS and was undergoing treatment at a City Hospital.

Chief Medical Officer of the Hospital demanded 50 Lakhs from M for keeping the secret. M denied. Chief Medical Officer issued a news bulletin and named X as an AIDS patient. This information was misused by business rivals of M for defaming him. M filed a suit against the Hospital and Chief Medical Officer.

Choose the correct option:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 72 Correct Answer is (c) There is a clash here between right of public to know and M's right to privacy. But in this case, information was not revealed in public interest but for personal vendetta and hence, option (C) is the best possible answer.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consist

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 73

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. Carrying an identity card should be made mandatory for everyone in the India as this would make the society a safer place to live in. Most people carry an ID with them anyway, so this proposal would be easy to implement too. Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument above?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 73 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) weakens the argument, because if it is true it makes it unconstitutional to be required to carry identification. Anything unconstitutional can't be mandated.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is just a counter argument that states the opposite and does not present any logic to weaken the argument.

  • Option (b) is incorrect because it talks about privacy, which can be sacrificed since the argument is about having a safe society.

  • Option (d) doesn't weaken the argument. The idea of making the ID cards mandatory is to be able to prove or discredit the identity of an individual by checking their ID cards in case such a need arises. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 74

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. The author is concerned about the constitution of the DPA under the Bill because:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 74 Correct Answer is (b)

The author seems concerned when he says "while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence."

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 75

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. Article 21 of the Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his right to life and liberty. It also includes citizens/persons right to leisure, right to breathe fresh air, right to water, right to travel etc.

Right to privacy has also been held to be an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Baba Vasudev held a camp in Pragati Maidan in Delhi with the motto Remove Corruption. He had been granted permission to hold satyagraha camp at Pragati Maidan which had more than fifty thousand men and women as his followers. Convinced that Baba Vasudev would not finish the protest, at 11:30 p.m., a team of police informed Baba Vasudev that the permission to hold the camp has been withdrawn and that he would be detained. At 12:30 a.m., a large number of police personnel reached Pragati Maidan. At that time, the supporters were peacefully sleeping. By 2:10 a.m., almost all the supporters had been driven out of the Pragati Maidan. Baba Vasudev filed a writ against the brutality of police action towards his followers who were sleeping, since sleeping is a part of the fundamental right to privacy. Decide.

The sudden retraction of the permission from holding the camp is malafide and violates the freedom of association and speech and expression under the Constitution.

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 75 Correct Answer is (c)

Right to sleep is included under the right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy guaranteed under the constitution. The courts have read these provisions in expanded horizons. In the current situation, there did not appear to be any plausible reason for the police to resort to blows on a sleeping crowd and to throw them out of their camps abruptly.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 76

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Life and personal liberty includes the right to personal privacy except in cases of exigent conditions harming the personal being of someone. Jamshed was an HIV positive patient. He was consulting Dr.

Bhanu, a doctor in the Government Hospital who was aware of Jamshed's HIV positive status. Rakhi, Jamshed's girlfriend was not aware of his HIV positive status. One day Rakhi met Dr. Bhanu and told him that she is getting married to Jamshed. It was then that Dr. Bhanu told Rakhi that he is HIV positive which resulted in their breakup. Jamshed, upset by this, filed a writ petition before the Supreme Court alleging violation of his life and personal liberty by a Government Institution (viz the Government Hospital).

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 76 Correct Answer is (c)

Though the right of privacy of Jamshed is being infringed over here by Dr. Bhanu but still he will not succeed because a person being of Rakhi is getting harmed over here. Options (b) and (c) are very close to each other but since option (b) is general and (c) is specific, option (b) has to give way to option (c).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 77

The report by a German cybersecurity firm that medical details of millions of Indian patients were leaked and are freely available on the Internet is worrying. The firm listed 1.02 million studies of Indian patients and 121 million medical images, including CT Scans, MRIs and even photos of the patients, as being available. Such information has the potential to be mined for deeper data analysis and for creating profiles that could be used for social engineering, phishing and online identity theft, among other practices that thrive on the availability of such data on the Darknet - restricted computer networks which exchange information using means such as peerto-peer file sharing. Public data leaks have been quite common in India - from government websites enabling the download of Aadhaar numbers to electoral data rolls being downloaded in bulk, among others. Unlike the data protection regulations in place in the European Union and in the U.S., India still lacks a comprehensive legal framework to protect data privacy.

The Draft Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 is still to be tabled but could enable protection of privacy. The draft Bill follows up on the provisions recommended by Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee in 2018. The committee sought to codify the relationship between individuals and firms/state institutions as one between "data principals" (whose information is collected) and "data fiduciaries" (those processing the data) so that privacy is safeguarded by design. While the 2019 version of the Bill seeks to retain the intent and many of the recommendations of the Justice Srikrishna committee, it has also diluted a few provisions. For example, while the Bill tasks the fiduciary to seek the consent in a free, informed, specific, clear form (and which is capable of being withdrawn later) from the principal, it has removed the proviso from the 2018 version of the Bill that said selling or transferring sensitive personal data by the fiduciary to a third party is an offence. There are other substantive issues with the Bill pertaining to the situations when state institutions are granted exemption from seeking consent from principals to process or obtain their information. Yet, considering the manner in which public data are being stored and used by both the state and private entities, a comprehensive Data Protection Act is the need of the hour.

Q. No person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty, except in accordance with procedure established by law. Procedure established by law includes only such statutes and law which may be enacted by the state only. Right to life includes the right to privacy. But such right may be restricted when other persons' rights are likely to be affected. Sonal, a nurse employed at Kate's Hospital was scheduled to marry Karan, a leading neurosurgeon. When it was revealed by George's hospital that Karan was HIV positive, Sonal called the marriage off. Karan sought to file a case against the hospital alleging that his right to privacy had been violated. Has Karan's right been violated?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 77 Correct Answer is (d)

Keeping in mind the serious nature of the information and impact on the fiancé of Karan, it was justifiable for the doctors to disclose the information.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 78

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following statements is least inferential with respect to introduction of creamy layer in the SC/ST reservation made in the passage above?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 78 Correct Answer is (b)

Statement given "SC/ST reservation policy resulted into inequality and conferred unequal benefits to some castes or communities who swept the benefits at the expense of others." cannot be inferred from the passage and do not flow from any argument given by the author. Choice b become least inferential as a part of the argument made in the above passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Option a, c and d can be inferred, directly or indirectly, from the author's argument. All the options can be inferred from the passage itself.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 79

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Based on the author's arguments that may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments, which of the following would be most correct:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 79 Correct Answer is (d)

Second paragraph says "Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions. Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority." Only option which is aligned is option d.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about demonstration of any tangible improvement and amelioration of oppressed and marginalized sections.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about reservation policy created inequity, inequality and social.

  • Choice (c) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as the passage nowhere suggests unconstitutional since it has led to societal injustice, emotional oppression and inadequate representation in the public employment.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 80

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Under Article 235 of the Constitution of India, the administrative control over the members of district and subordinate judiciary in the States vest with the concerned High Court. Further, the State Government, in consultation with the High Court, frames the Rules and Regulations regarding the issues of appointment, promotion, and reservations etc. of Judicial Officers in the State Judicial Service.

Therefore, Central Government has no role in this regard. Based only on the principle of law and argument identified by the author above, would such a reservation be valid if made by the Central Government?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 80 Correct Answer is (d)

Question says "Further, the State Government, in consultation with the High Court, frames the Rules and Regulations regarding the issues of appointment, promotion, and reservations etc. of Judicial Officers in the State Judicial Service.

Therefore, Central Government has no role in this regard." Thus, only option which is aligned is option d.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the efficiency and representation in the employment.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument reservation policy is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

  • Choice (c) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as nowhere the Central Government cannot make the provisions with respect to appointment, promotion, and reservations etc. of Judicial Officers.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 81

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Teacher's recruitment to Sainik School is strictly merit based through a competitive exam and medical fitness. It has been decided on 10th January, 2020 to have 27% reservation for SC/ST in admissions to align with the constitutional mandate. However, reservation in promotion to SC/STs are denied if they fall in creamy layer i.e. 10 lakh salary p.a. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the creamy layer in the SC/ST reservation?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 81 Correct Answer is (c)

Second paragraph says "While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections." Only option which is aligned is option c.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the given indication regarding the targeting of rightful and legitimate beneficiaries of reservation

  • Choice (b) - It seems to be an appropriate option. However, there is nothing in the passage to support the argument help in excluding the individual who had been benefitting successively and including those who didn't benefit from the reservation historically.

  • Choice (d) - Given statement is accurate and appropriate to choose but does not give sufficient reasoning unlike choice (c).

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 82

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Article 16(6) have been inserted in the constitution.

This enables the State to provide the benefits of reservation on preferential basis to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) in civil posts and services in the Government of India without adversely affecting the proportionate seats of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Based on the author's argument and given information, will the EWS reservation adversely affect the SC/STs reservation?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 82 Correct Answer is (d)

Only choice (d) assimilate the inference and the principle of law given. Questions talks about the reservation and says "Article 16(6) have been inserted in the constitution. This enables the State to provide the benefits of reservation on preferential basis to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) in civil posts and services in the Government of India without adversely affecting the proportionate seats of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes."

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the limit of 50% limit of the reservation.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about how the policy of EWS reservation will not adversely affect the SC/STs reservation and its consistency with the morality, philosophy and equality norms of the constitution

  • Choice (c) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as nowhere the passage suggests reservation policy will not promote socioeconomic and political justice.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 83

The Union government has called upon the Supreme Court to form a seven-judge Bench to reconsider the formulation in M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006) that it should be applied to the SC and ST communities.

This verdict was a reality check to the concept of reservation. Even while upholding Constitution amendments meant to preserve reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority; it contained an exposition of the equality principle that hedged reservation against a set of constitutional requirements, without which the structure of equal opportunity would collapse. These were 'quantifiable data' to show the backwardness of a community, the inadequacy of its representation in service, and the lack of adverse impact on "the overall efficiency of administration". In Jarnail Singh (2018), another Constitution Bench reaffirmed the applicability of creamy layer norms to SC/STs. However, it ruled that Nagaraj was wrong to require a demonstration of backwardness for the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, as it was directly contrary to the nine-judge Bench judgment in Indra Sawhney (1992).

It is curious that Jarnail Singh accepted the presumption of the backwardness of Scheduled Castes and Tribes, but favoured applying the 'means test' to exclude from the purview of SC/ST reservation those who had achieved some level of economic advancement. While the Centre has accepted that the 'creamy layer' norm is needed to ensure that only those genuinely backward get reservation benefits, it is justifiably upset that this principle has been extended to Dalits, who have been acknowledged to be the most backward among the backward sections. Another problem is the question whether the exclusion of the advanced sections among SC/ST candidates can be disallowed only for promotions.

Most of them may not fall under the 'creamy layer' category at the entry level, but after some years of service and promotions, they may reach an income level at which they fall under the 'creamy layer'. This may result in the defeat of the object of the Constitution amendments that the court itself had upheld to protect reservation in promotions as well as consequential seniority. Another landmark verdict in the history of affirmative action jurisprudence may be needed to settle these questions.

Q. Constitution has no provision for the reservation in the private sector. Government has notified the reservation in jobs in the private sector companies where Government has even partial shares. In the absence of Constitutional provision, the notification is challenged, would the petition deserve to be dismissed?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 83 Correct Answer is d

It can be inferred from the question asked and the principle of law that Constitution has no provision for the reservation in the private sector. In the absence of any source notification introducing the reservation in the private sector is liable to be dismissed. Thus, only option which is aligned is option d.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) – Given choice is contrary to the author’s favour towards reservation therefore reservation is not a solution

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument that private sector needs to expand the recruitment policy for the marginalized section, especially the SC and ST.

  • Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage to support that private sector needs to encourage the skill development and training especially for the SC and ST

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 84

In 2015, the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as unconstitutional. That decision, Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, was heaped with praise by domestic and foreign media alike. But none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi in October 2017, for allegedly committing a crime under Section 66A - for posting some comments on Facebook. Mr. Tyagi's case is not alone.

Media outlets have reported other instances where Section 66A has been invoked by the police, all of which points to an obvious, and serious, concern: what is the point of that landmark decision if the police still jail persons under unconstitutional laws?

From police stations, to trial courts, and all the way up to the High Courts, we found Section 66A was still in vogue throughout the legal system. Equally disturbing was the discovery that this issue of applying unconstitutional penal laws long preceded Shreya Singhal and Section 66A. Before the recent decisions that held provisions in the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional (in whole or in part), the Supreme Court had famously done this, in 1983, by striking down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code in Mithu v. State of Punjab.

In 2012, years after Section 303 had been struck down, the Rajasthan High Court intervened to save a person from being hanged for being convicted under that offence.

We argue that a primary reason for poor enforcement of judicial declarations of unconstitutionality is signal failures between different branches of government. Commonly, in this context one thinks of active non-compliance that can undermine the work of courts - for instance, the aftermath of the Sabarimala verdict. But these publicised acts of defiance have hidden what is a systemic problem within the Indian legal system: there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary.

Thus, enforcing unconstitutional laws is sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 84 Correct Answer is (d)

The author, in the fourth paragraph mentions the systemic failure of the legal system. Only option d aligns with the author's reasoning that Legal Administration needs re-structuring to pass on the latest information concerning administration of justice.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the need of engagement of the executive and the judiciary.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support declaring any law unconstitutional.

  • Choice (c) - Right to life and personal liberty though significant but the given statement cannot be inferred from the passage.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 85

In 2015, the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as unconstitutional. That decision, Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, was heaped with praise by domestic and foreign media alike. But none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi in October 2017, for allegedly committing a crime under Section 66A - for posting some comments on Facebook. Mr. Tyagi's case is not alone.

Media outlets have reported other instances where Section 66A has been invoked by the police, all of which points to an obvious, and serious, concern: what is the point of that landmark decision if the police still jail persons under unconstitutional laws?

From police stations, to trial courts, and all the way up to the High Courts, we found Section 66A was still in vogue throughout the legal system. Equally disturbing was the discovery that this issue of applying unconstitutional penal laws long preceded Shreya Singhal and Section 66A. Before the recent decisions that held provisions in the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional (in whole or in part), the Supreme Court had famously done this, in 1983, by striking down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code in Mithu v. State of Punjab.

In 2012, years after Section 303 had been struck down, the Rajasthan High Court intervened to save a person from being hanged for being convicted under that offence.

We argue that a primary reason for poor enforcement of judicial declarations of unconstitutionality is signal failures between different branches of government. Commonly, in this context one thinks of active non-compliance that can undermine the work of courts - for instance, the aftermath of the Sabarimala verdict. But these publicised acts of defiance have hidden what is a systemic problem within the Indian legal system: there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary.

Thus, enforcing unconstitutional laws is sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights.

Q. A Bill is introduced in the Parliament obliging the Constitutional Courts and the Superior Judiciary to issue circulars to subordinate courts apprising about the recent orders and judgments. In such a situation, according to the author:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 85 Correct Answer is (a) The Bill would deliver on its promise to protect the rights, fundamental and human, of the citizens. The bill seeks to remedy the situation described in the fourth paragraph of the passage, where the author suggests that the "there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary."

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (b) - Option is directly contradictory to the situation described in the fourth paragraph of the passage, and so cannot be the right option.

  • Choice (c) & Choice (d) - There is nothing in the passage to support either of the option.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 86

In 2015, the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as unconstitutional. That decision, Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, was heaped with praise by domestic and foreign media alike. But none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi in October 2017, for allegedly committing a crime under Section 66A - for posting some comments on Facebook. Mr. Tyagi's case is not alone.

Media outlets have reported other instances where Section 66A has been invoked by the police, all of which points to an obvious, and serious, concern: what is the point of that landmark decision if the police still jail persons under unconstitutional laws?

From police stations, to trial courts, and all the way up to the High Courts, we found Section 66A was still in vogue throughout the legal system. Equally disturbing was the discovery that this issue of applying unconstitutional penal laws long preceded Shreya Singhal and Section 66A. Before the recent decisions that held provisions in the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional (in whole or in part), the Supreme Court had famously done this, in 1983, by striking down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code in Mithu v. State of Punjab.

In 2012, years after Section 303 had been struck down, the Rajasthan High Court intervened to save a person from being hanged for being convicted under that offence.

We argue that a primary reason for poor enforcement of judicial declarations of unconstitutionality is signal failures between different branches of government. Commonly, in this context one thinks of active non-compliance that can undermine the work of courts - for instance, the aftermath of the Sabarimala verdict. But these publicised acts of defiance have hidden what is a systemic problem within the Indian legal system: there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary.

Thus, enforcing unconstitutional laws is sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights.

Q. It is commonly observed that even after a law is declared unconstitutional, law remains a part of statute repository published on India Code. Based on the author's reasoning, which of the following would be most correct:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 86 Correct Answer is (c)

Option c is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. In the fourth paragraph of the passage, where the author says "enforcing unconstitutional laws is a sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights."

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) & Choice (d) - There is nothing in the passage to support any of the options. The author offers no such reason.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 87

In 2015, the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as unconstitutional. That decision, Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, was heaped with praise by domestic and foreign media alike. But none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi in October 2017, for allegedly committing a crime under Section 66A - for posting some comments on Facebook. Mr. Tyagi's case is not alone.

Media outlets have reported other instances where Section 66A has been invoked by the police, all of which points to an obvious, and serious, concern: what is the point of that landmark decision if the police still jail persons under unconstitutional laws?

From police stations, to trial courts, and all the way up to the High Courts, we found Section 66A was still in vogue throughout the legal system. Equally disturbing was the discovery that this issue of applying unconstitutional penal laws long preceded Shreya Singhal and Section 66A. Before the recent decisions that held provisions in the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional (in whole or in part), the Supreme Court had famously done this, in 1983, by striking down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code in Mithu v. State of Punjab.

In 2012, years after Section 303 had been struck down, the Rajasthan High Court intervened to save a person from being hanged for being convicted under that offence.

We argue that a primary reason for poor enforcement of judicial declarations of unconstitutionality is signal failures between different branches of government. Commonly, in this context one thinks of active non-compliance that can undermine the work of courts - for instance, the aftermath of the Sabarimala verdict. But these publicised acts of defiance have hidden what is a systemic problem within the Indian legal system: there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary.

Thus, enforcing unconstitutional laws is sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights.

Q. Ignorance of law is no excuse is a well-entrenched principle in the legal system. Considering the essence of the passage, is the arrest of Tyagi consistent with the law?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 87 Correct Answer is (b)

The author, in the first paragraph mentions "none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi….. under Section 66A ". Only option b aligns with the author's reasoning and the principle Ignorance of law is no excuse.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Arrest is illegal when the Section 66A is unconstitutional. This option states mutually contradictory principle. As the person can only be charged with the constitutional provisions.

  • Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage with respect to anti-social elements.

  • Choice (d) - Arrest of any kind and of anyone requires the information of verdict is contrary to the essence of the passage as well as the given legal principle.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 88

In 2015, the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as unconstitutional. That decision, Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, was heaped with praise by domestic and foreign media alike. But none of this stopped the police in Muzaffarnagar, Uttar Pradesh, from arresting and detaining 18-year-old Tyagi in October 2017, for allegedly committing a crime under Section 66A - for posting some comments on Facebook. Mr. Tyagi's case is not alone.

Media outlets have reported other instances where Section 66A has been invoked by the police, all of which points to an obvious, and serious, concern: what is the point of that landmark decision if the police still jail persons under unconstitutional laws?

From police stations, to trial courts, and all the way up to the High Courts, we found Section 66A was still in vogue throughout the legal system. Equally disturbing was the discovery that this issue of applying unconstitutional penal laws long preceded Shreya Singhal and Section 66A. Before the recent decisions that held provisions in the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional (in whole or in part), the Supreme Court had famously done this, in 1983, by striking down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code in Mithu v. State of Punjab.

In 2012, years after Section 303 had been struck down, the Rajasthan High Court intervened to save a person from being hanged for being convicted under that offence.

We argue that a primary reason for poor enforcement of judicial declarations of unconstitutionality is signal failures between different branches of government. Commonly, in this context one thinks of active non-compliance that can undermine the work of courts - for instance, the aftermath of the Sabarimala verdict. But these publicised acts of defiance have hidden what is a systemic problem within the Indian legal system: there exists no official method for sharing information about such decisions, even those of constitutional import such as Shreya Singhal. We found that there is no formal system on information sharing in the hierarchical set-up of the Indian judiciary.

Thus, enforcing unconstitutional laws is sheer wastage of public money. But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable. They will suffer the indignity of lawless arrest and detention, for no reason other than their poverty and ignorance, and inability to demand their rights.

Q. Mansfield has filed a defamation suit against the Facepalm Inc, a social media platform. The allegation of the Mansfield is that various defamatory remarks and information including videos are being disseminated over the Facepalm Inc., The allegations contained in the videos, which have been uploaded on the Facepalm are in fact defamatory allegations.

There was a court order restraining Facepalm from publishing the alleged information without deleting the offending portions. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 88 Correct Answer is (d)

Option d is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. In the fourth paragraph of the passage, where the author suggests that "But more importantly, until this basic flaw within is addressed, certain persons will remain exposed to denial of their right to life and personal liberty in the worst possible way imaginable."

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - Option is directly contradictory so cannot be the right option.

  • Choice (b) & Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage to support either of the option.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 89

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. Which of the following is the plausible inference, in support of Judicial Activism, can be attributed to the author of the above passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 89 Correct Answer is (a)

The author's tone in the entire passage is to justify Judicial Activism born out of impatience and helplessness due to the failings of Parliament and Executive. Only option (a) aligns with the author's reasoning concerning administration of justice in view of the utter failure of other institutions.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (b) - Passage is completely silent about any cogent and clearly identifiable reasons behind judicial activism. Paragraph mentions "But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective?" it further adds that "We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary." From the reading it cannot be clearly said about the reasons about the legitimacy of the judicial activism.

  • Choice (c) & Choice (d) - There is nothing in the passage to support the statements provided.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 90

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 90 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) is the correct choice. Option (c) correctly identifies the dual nature of judicial activism.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Historical experiences are not mentioned which can be taken as a justification for judicial activism.

  • Choice (b) - Though it is mentioned in the passage however it can be taken as an essential argument/idea of the paragraph.

  • Choice (d) - Loggerhead argument cannot be said as the essence of the passage. It is only a fact demonstrating the fallout of the Judicial Activism.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 91

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a judicial innovation.

Recently, Apex Court recently remarked that "The problems facing the people of India have to be solved by the people themselves by using their creativity and by scientific thinking and not by using judicial crutches like PIL". Based on the Author's reasoning and considering the apex court statement regarding PIL, will the author become concerned?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 91 Correct Answer is (b)

Author will be concerned about the statement.

Statement can be viewed as the strict stance taken by the Judiciary against Judicial Activism in the form of PIL.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - An extreme choice to choose which is contradictory to the essence of the passage

  • Choice (c) - It can be the effect of the statement but it cannot be inferred from the idea of the passage.

  • Choice (d) - Authors has not shown inclination towards legislature and executive.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 92

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. With reference to the passage, the author is concerned about the Judicial Activism because:

  1. The age and gender of the members of the judiciary may affect their judicial decisions.

  2. The accountability of the judiciary, even when judicial activism is not legitimate, is limited.

  3. Author believes that policymaking is not within the remit and jurisdiction of the Judiciary.

  4. Every decisions taken in the Parliament are against the public interest.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 92 Correct Answer is (c)
  • Assumption 1 can be made based on the sentence 'the democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers'.

  • Assumption 2 is referred to when the author speaks of judicial accountability.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Assumption 3 - Passage is completely silent about policymaking prerogative of the Judiciary.

  • Assumption 4- There is nothing in the passage to support the statements provided. It only says "After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke." Every decision points towards an extreme which cannot be inferred from the passage.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 93

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. Public Interest Litigation (PILs) was conceived and created as a judicial tool by the courts in this country for helping the poor, weaker and oppressed sections of society, truth is that PILs are being entertained by many courts as a routine and the dockets of most of the superior courts are flooded with PILs, most of which are frivolous or for which the judiciary has no remedy. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 93 Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) upholds the idea that judicial activism is the only choice considering the weakness of political process, executive failure and Pro-active judiciary for protecting the democratic ideals. However in the entire passage author has not spoken against or negated the idea of Judicial Activism. Therefore only possible and appropriate choice is choice (d).

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - An extreme choice to choose which is contradictory to the essence of the passage

  • Choice (b) - It counters the essence of the passage.

  • Choice (c) - Passage is completely silent on the same.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 94

The weakness of the political process provides a propitious ground for judicial activism. In many instances the executive has almost invited the judiciary in; in many states, governments routinely seek judicial dispensation to give them political cover for unpopular decisions they might have to make. Judicial activism can mean many things: scrutiny of legislation to determine constitutionality, the creation of law, and the exercise of policy prerogatives normally reserved for the executive.

But whatever its form, judicial activism raises two questions. Is it legitimate? Is it effective? The democrat in all of us is rightly suspicious of a few old (mostly) men assuming such broad powers over our destiny without much accountability. We may ruminate that we can throw the politicians out once in a while, but judges are shielded from accountability. On the other hand, our impatience with a debilitating political process whose usual results are inaction makes us thankful for an assertive judiciary.

At least the judiciary can protect our rights, clean our air, call politicians to account and so forth. And it must be an unenviable task for judges to steer a middle course between usurping too much power on the one hand, and doing too little to sustain fundamental values on the other.

But the prickly question remains: what justifies judicial activism? One possible answer is that judicial activism is justified to the extent that it helps preserve democratic institutions and values. After all, transient majorities in Parliament can barter away our democratic rights; representative institutions are too often burdened with the imperatives of money, power or inertia, that to call their decisions democratic and in the public interest is often something of a joke. If judges use their power to restore integrity to the democratic process, to make our rights, including social and economic ones more meaningful, if they advance the public interest, an assertive judiciary can be an instrument of democracy.

This is the most plausible defence of an assertive judiciary.

Q. Recently various matters came to light such as grievances relating to civil matters involving properties worth hundreds of millions of rupees, criminal cases in which persons sentenced to death facing gallows, persons are sentenced to life imprisonment and kept in incarceration for long years and detenus expecting their release from the detention orders. However these matters has witness Government's apathy. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 94 Correct Answer is (c)

Matters mentioned in the passage are significant and appropriate for the court's intervention. Idea of the passage is that protection of rights of the individuals through Judicial intervention.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - An extreme choice to choose which is contradictory to the essence of the passage

  • Choice (b) - Passage is silent on the same.

  • Choice (d) - Passage is silent on the same as well.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 95

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. Heinous crime alleged to have been committed by the offender is to be dealt with an iron hand. The victim girl, aged about 15 years, was alleged to have subjected to continuous sexual assault and video graphed for more than three years by no one else than her own father. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the punishment to be awarded to father?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 95 Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) follows from the passage. Therefore option (b) is the most logical explanation as it calls for punishing heinous crime with iron hand.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 96

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. A complaint was lodged with the Inspector of Police alleging that her daughter studying in 7th standard and other girl children were sexually abused by the Headmaster of the school. During enquiry it came to light that in the washrooms CCTV was installed.

Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, does the aforesaid case deserves judicial intervention?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 96 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is irrelevant, since it does not even reflect the idea of the passage.

  • Option (b) cannot be the correct answer, since it is against the notion that Judiciary should operate in a limited sphere.

  • Option (d) cannot be the correct answer, since this is an extreme case of judicial non-intervention.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 97

The blind Argentinean librarian and writer Jorge Luis Borges imagined paradise to be a kind of library. At the turn of the century, a lot of us were concerned about the future of books with digital publishing becoming the norm of the day. But people continue to read books, whether as a bound copy or as e-books on their handheld readers or tabs. What has changed perhaps is the drive to read, or rather the motivation. Relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people.

Q. Which of the following statements is consistent with the reading pattern of people that has been discussed by the author?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 97 Option (b) goes against the crux of the statement.

Anything that is antiquated is irrelevant. In the given caselet, there is nothing to suggest that people seldom read books or have become very busy. In fact, the author says that “people continue to read books”. “Modish” means “contemporary” or relevant to the age. Hence, (a) is the answer.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 98

The blind Argentinean librarian and writer Jorge Luis Borges imagined paradise to be a kind of library. At the turn of the century, a lot of us were concerned about the future of books with digital publishing becoming the norm of the day. But people continue to read books, whether as a bound copy or as e-books on their handheld readers or tabs. What has changed perhaps is the drive to read, or rather the motivation. Relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people.

Q. Which of the following, if true, contradicts Luis Borges’ perception about library?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 98 Option (c) if true indicates that a library might act as an agency of propaganda and not a repository of knowledge. Hence, it is not a desirable state.

Options (a) and (b) actually strengthen the perception that was stated by Luis Borges. Option (d) is out of scope.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 99

The blind Argentinean librarian and writer Jorge Luis Borges imagined paradise to be a kind of library. At the turn of the century, a lot of us were concerned about the future of books with digital publishing becoming the norm of the day. But people continue to read books, whether as a bound copy or as e-books on their handheld readers or tabs. What has changed perhaps is the drive to read, or rather the motivation. Relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people.

Q. Which of the following statements can be a possible logical corollary to the given paragraph?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 99 Since the passage talks about relev ance, social media can be a possible factor because it is a phenomenon of the present day. There is nothing to suggest that the traditional publishing style will replace digital publishing. Option (b) is incorrect because there is nothing to suggest that the cost of books will come down. Furthermore, the reader will have to buy an appropriate device with the help of which s/he can read a book in digital form.

Relevance of the subject matter doesn’t always refer to majoritarian policies. Even a marginalized or subaltern individual might find an issue relevant to his or her own existence. Hence, option (a) is negated.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 100

As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twelfth five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.

Q. The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following statements:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 100 It is quite evident that setting up of ambitious targets is not enough. Hence, option (c) is the most appropriate answer choice. Option (a) is wrong because in the light of the passage, it is evident that the economy needs to be addressed. Option (b) can be ruled out because the author makes it clear throughout the passage that the present economy needs to be worked upon.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 101

As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twelfth five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.

Q. The author’s usage of the word ‘choked’ in the passage implies which of the following?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 101 Option (a) is too extreme. Option (c) cannot be inferred. In the light of the passage, we are not sure if the economic downturn is happening for the first time. Option (b) is out of scope.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 102

As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twelfth five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.

Q. In support of which of the following does the author mentions “that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest”:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 102 Option (b) mentions exactly the same thing as the quoted sentence in the given question. We don’t know whether investment by corporates is the only way to improve the economy. There can be other ways too. Hence, option (c) is wrong. Option (d) is wrong because the passage does not mention whether the corporate sector has been completely sidelined by the government. Option (a) is again out of scope and cannot be inferred in the light of the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 103

As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twelfth five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.

Q. The logical corollary to the observation made by the author in relation to investment by corporates is best reflected in which of the following options:

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 103 Option (c) is an extension of the argument put forth by the author in the passage. Option (a) is out of scope and has no connection to investment by corporates whatsoever. Options (b) and (d) are out of scope as well.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 104

It is no surprise that the International Energy Agency found that India’s carbon emissions grew by 4.8% during 2018, in spite of the national focus on climate change in energy policy. There is wide recognition of the fact that Indians are not historically responsible for the problem, and it is the rich nations led by the U.S. that have pumped in the stock of carbon dioxide linked to extreme climate impacts being witnessed around the globe. As the IEA points out, India’s emissions have grown, but per capita they remain less than 40% of the global average.

Equity among nations is therefore at the centre of the discussion on energy emissions, and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is central to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Reassuring as this may be, the universal challenge of climate change has grown to such proportions that urgent action to sharply cut carbon emissions is crucial, and all countries, including India, must act quickly. Intensive measures in key sectors — scaling up renewables to raise their share in the energy mix, greening transport, updating building codes and raising energy efficiency — will help meet the national pledge under the Paris Agreement to cut energy intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, over 2005 levels.

Q. According to the passage which of the following accurately measures the contribution of a country to carbon emission?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 104 Option (b) is correct as the passage mentions that India’s contribution to the problem of climate change is less as its per capita carbon emission is low.

The correct option only extrapolates this reasoning to make its point. People with high standards of living would cause more carbon emissions on an average, like the citizens of the United States.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 105

It is no surprise that the International Energy Agency found that India’s carbon emissions grew by 4.8% during 2018, in spite of the national focus on climate change in energy policy. There is wide recognition of the fact that Indians are not historically responsible for the problem, and it is the rich nations led by the U.S. that have pumped in the stock of carbon dioxide linked to extreme climate impacts being witnessed around the globe. As the IEA points out, India’s emissions have grown, but per capita they remain less than 40% of the global average.

Equity among nations is therefore at the centre of the discussion on energy emissions, and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is central to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Reassuring as this may be, the universal challenge of climate change has grown to such proportions that urgent action to sharply cut carbon emissions is crucial, and all countries, including India, must act quickly. Intensive measures in key sectors — scaling up renewables to raise their share in the energy mix, greening transport, updating building codes and raising energy efficiency — will help meet the national pledge under the Paris Agreement to cut energy intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, over 2005 levels.

Q. What does the author mean by “common but differentiated responsibilities”?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 105 Option (a) is correct as common means ev eryone’s responsibility while differentiated means not equal or same level of responsibility.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 106

It is no surprise that the International Energy Agency found that India’s carbon emissions grew by 4.8% during 2018, in spite of the national focus on climate change in energy policy. There is wide recognition of the fact that Indians are not historically responsible for the problem, and it is the rich nations led by the U.S. that have pumped in the stock of carbon dioxide linked to extreme climate impacts being witnessed around the globe. As the IEA points out, India’s emissions have grown, but per capita they remain less than 40% of the global average.

Equity among nations is therefore at the centre of the discussion on energy emissions, and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is central to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Reassuring as this may be, the universal challenge of climate change has grown to such proportions that urgent action to sharply cut carbon emissions is crucial, and all countries, including India, must act quickly. Intensive measures in key sectors — scaling up renewables to raise their share in the energy mix, greening transport, updating building codes and raising energy efficiency — will help meet the national pledge under the Paris Agreement to cut energy intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, over 2005 levels.

Q. Which of the following choice most accurately lists the tone of the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 106 Option (c) is correct as the author uses multiple statistics and factual data to put forth his points.

He also mentions advices which suggest a sense of authority on the part of the author.

Option (d) is incorrect as there is no hint of subtlety in the passage. All the points are placed quite emphatically.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 107

It is no surprise that the International Energy Agency found that India’s carbon emissions grew by 4.8% during 2018, in spite of the national focus on climate change in energy policy. There is wide recognition of the fact that Indians are not historically responsible for the problem, and it is the rich nations led by the U.S. that have pumped in the stock of carbon dioxide linked to extreme climate impacts being witnessed around the globe. As the IEA points out, India’s emissions have grown, but per capita they remain less than 40% of the global average.

Equity among nations is therefore at the centre of the discussion on energy emissions, and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is central to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Reassuring as this may be, the universal challenge of climate change has grown to such proportions that urgent action to sharply cut carbon emissions is crucial, and all countries, including India, must act quickly. Intensive measures in key sectors — scaling up renewables to raise their share in the energy mix, greening transport, updating building codes and raising energy efficiency — will help meet the national pledge under the Paris Agreement to cut energy intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, over 2005 levels.

Q. What can be inferred from the first line of the passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 107 Option (b) is correct as the passage ensures that India has changed it energy policy to address the issue of climate change, yet, its overall emissions are rising. This suggests that the change does not ensure a reduction in emissions.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 108

It is no surprise that the International Energy Agency found that India’s carbon emissions grew by 4.8% during 2018, in spite of the national focus on climate change in energy policy. There is wide recognition of the fact that Indians are not historically responsible for the problem, and it is the rich nations led by the U.S. that have pumped in the stock of carbon dioxide linked to extreme climate impacts being witnessed around the globe. As the IEA points out, India’s emissions have grown, but per capita they remain less than 40% of the global average.

Equity among nations is therefore at the centre of the discussion on energy emissions, and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is central to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Reassuring as this may be, the universal challenge of climate change has grown to such proportions that urgent action to sharply cut carbon emissions is crucial, and all countries, including India, must act quickly. Intensive measures in key sectors — scaling up renewables to raise their share in the energy mix, greening transport, updating building codes and raising energy efficiency — will help meet the national pledge under the Paris Agreement to cut energy intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, over 2005 levels.

Q. Why would the point about differentiated responsibilities be reassuring in the Indian context?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 108 Option (b) is correct as the point about differentiated responsibilities suggests that India’s share of the collective global responsibility towards partaking in the fight climate change is not that high as its contribution to pollute the planet is also low.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 109

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. What can be the appropriate title for the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 109 The above paragraph shows that, peculiarly, America's economy doesn't run on manufacturing industries' profits, it runs on the consumer consumption. The more people shop, the better the economy gets. Shopping helps retailers run their show, generate employment and capital. Even during economic downturns, people are advised to shop so as to recover the economy.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 110

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Which of the following will most weaken the author's argument?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 110

Option 2 will most weaken the argument made by the author because it suggests that there is a lack of incentive for the American public to save, which could potentially lead to increased consumer spending and a dependence on it to keep the economy stable. This counteracts the argument made by the author that the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all Americans spend as much as they can.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 111

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Which of the following best reflect author's attitude towards government propaganda to encourage shopping?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 111 Author is categorical in his resentment at government's attempts to coerce public to spend.

However it stems from the frustration at the disproportionate importance given to spending by government rather than an outright rejection.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 112

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. There has been no end of attacks on this particular strategy. Naysayers have contended that the strategy is flawed, that the company will not benefit by taking such a risk, that our financial situation does not warrant the risk involved. These critics need to understand that risk is not necessarily a bad thing.

It's complacency that we need to watch out for.

The argument above

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 112 Naysayers suggest that that the company cannot adopt the recommended strategy because the financial condition of the company does not allow them to take any risk and the author responds by stating that risk is not a bad thing. He distorts the original argument and makes it seem that the company is averse to the idea of taking risk because they feel its bad whereas the company’s reason for not taking risk is its financial condition.

Option (b) best encompasses the essence of the text. Option (a) is incorrect because there is no element of emotion in the argument. Option (c) is eliminated as the author does not prove anything in the argument. Option (d) can be ruled out since there is no conclusion drawn.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 113

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 113 The author's almost horrified criticism of lack of accuracy of economic data for consumer confidence indicates that economic indicators are supposed to have accurate data.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 114

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred about Rudolph Giuliani?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 114 None of the other options can be properly inferred except (a).
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 115

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He begins by verifying an earlier hypothesis that clubs’ wage bills explain 90 per cent of their performance. Thus, if players’ salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that spend more should finish higher.

If there is pay discrimination against some group of players — fewer teams bidding for black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with the same ability as whites — that neat relation may no longer hold.

He concludes that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they could have, by not recruiting black players.

Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski’s conclusion?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 115 The argument states that ‘clubs that spend more should finish at a higher ranking’. This is reflected in ‘highly paid white players returned a low ranking’. (a) focuses on clubs that recruited black players, a consequence Szymanski is not immediately concerned with. (c) also throws no light on the relation ‘clubs that spend more should finish higher’.

Nor does (d).

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 116

UNRELATED THOUGHTS? NOT in America, where the health of the national economy is critically dependent on having all of us spend as much as we can to keep struggling retailers afloat, create jobs and generate capital.

Consumption is such a vital part of the American economy it long ago superseded good old-fashioned manufacturing that the most closely watched economic indicator is something called consumer confidence, a vague notion that probably can't even be measured accurately.

Whenever consumer confidence plunges, as it did after the great Internet bust of 2000 or after the September 11 attacks, government officials are sent scurrying to the airwaves to say there's no reason to panic so long as everyone does his patriotic duty and shops. Remember how New York's mayor, Rudolph Giuliani, responded when asked how Americans could help New York in the days just after the attacks? He didn't say, Donate to the Red Cross, or Go to church and pray for our wounded city. He told them to come to New York and spend money.

Q. Punishment seem s to direct child behavior by using pain or unpleasantness. But since it stops bad behavior just for the moment, punishment does not teach your child the behavior you want him to learn.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning similar to the one used in the argument above?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 116 The argument says that although punishment deters the child from behaving in a certain way, it fails to teach him the behaviour that parents want the children to learn. This momentary deterrence is because of the fear of pain. Option (c) is similar in reasoning as it states that a permanent problem is treated as a temporary one at a workplace.

Consequently such process only manages to resolve the problem at hand but fails to provide permanent solutions. Options (a) and (b) are not similar in pattern to the given argument. Option (d) is incorrect because it talks about increased risks of repeating the action, which is not indicated in the main argument.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 117

Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking. The purpose of our study therefore is to provide a first illustration of a related and informant-based derivation of perceived ad ethics. The authors use multi-dimensional scaling as an approach enabling the emic, or locally derived deconstruction of perceived ad ethics. Given recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts, and in particular within the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, we use Lebanon-the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA as an illustrative context for our study. Results confirm the multi-faceted and pluralistic nature of ad ethics as comprising a number of dimensional themes already salient in the existing literature but in addition, we also find evidence for a bipolar relationship between individual themes. The specific pattern of inductively derived relationships is culturally bound. Implications of the findings are discussed, followed by limitations of the study and recommendations for further research.

Q. Which of the following is what the research mentioned in the article proposes to look into?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 117 The passage starts with the statement, 'Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking'. It then states how the study aims to provide an illustration of the perception of ad ethics. Only Option (c) can be related to this.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 118

Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking. The purpose of our study therefore is to provide a first illustration of a related and informant-based derivation of perceived ad ethics. The authors use multi-dimensional scaling as an approach enabling the emic, or locally derived deconstruction of perceived ad ethics. Given recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts, and in particular within the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, we use Lebanon-the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA as an illustrative context for our study. Results confirm the multi-faceted and pluralistic nature of ad ethics as comprising a number of dimensional themes already salient in the existing literature but in addition, we also find evidence for a bipolar relationship between individual themes. The specific pattern of inductively derived relationships is culturally bound. Implications of the findings are discussed, followed by limitations of the study and recommendations for further research.

Q. Based on the passage, which of the following do you think is a concrete motive behind the research?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 118 In the passage it is stated that one of the reasons behind the proposed research is the, 'recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts'. In spirit of the passage's statement that how it wants to understand what a population grasps to be ethics in advertisement this is the logical answer.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 119

Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking. The purpose of our study therefore is to provide a first illustration of a related and informant-based derivation of perceived ad ethics. The authors use multi-dimensional scaling as an approach enabling the emic, or locally derived deconstruction of perceived ad ethics. Given recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts, and in particular within the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, we use Lebanon-the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA as an illustrative context for our study. Results confirm the multi-faceted and pluralistic nature of ad ethics as comprising a number of dimensional themes already salient in the existing literature but in addition, we also find evidence for a bipolar relationship between individual themes. The specific pattern of inductively derived relationships is culturally bound. Implications of the findings are discussed, followed by limitations of the study and recommendations for further research.

Q. Which of the following may be a problem in the research even if the targeted audience understands what is meant by 'ethics in advertisement'?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 119 Since the research is aimed at understanding what an audience perceives to be ethics in advertisement, it would be an impediment on the research work if the targeted population has relatively low advertisement viewership. The entire premise of the research depends on how much a population views advertisements. (b) and (c) are opinions and hence are incorrect options.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 120

Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking. The purpose of our study therefore is to provide a first illustration of a related and informant-based derivation of perceived ad ethics. The authors use multi-dimensional scaling as an approach enabling the emic, or locally derived deconstruction of perceived ad ethics. Given recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts, and in particular within the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, we use Lebanon-the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA as an illustrative context for our study. Results confirm the multi-faceted and pluralistic nature of ad ethics as comprising a number of dimensional themes already salient in the existing literature but in addition, we also find evidence for a bipolar relationship between individual themes. The specific pattern of inductively derived relationships is culturally bound. Implications of the findings are discussed, followed by limitations of the study and recommendations for further research.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the aim of the research?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 120 The research focuses on what is the perception or understanding of a particular population of category, in this case ethics in advertisement. (b) talks similarly of looking into what a population understands to bee 'gender sensitization'. The other options do not match the area of research ass described in the passage.
CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 121

Whilst considerable research exists on determining consumer responses to pre-determined statements within numerous ad ethics contexts, our understanding of consumer thoughts regarding ad ethics in general remains lacking. The purpose of our study therefore is to provide a first illustration of a related and informant-based derivation of perceived ad ethics. The authors use multi-dimensional scaling as an approach enabling the emic, or locally derived deconstruction of perceived ad ethics. Given recent calls to develop our understanding of ad ethics in different cultural contexts, and in particular within the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, we use Lebanon-the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA as an illustrative context for our study. Results confirm the multi-faceted and pluralistic nature of ad ethics as comprising a number of dimensional themes already salient in the existing literature but in addition, we also find evidence for a bipolar relationship between individual themes. The specific pattern of inductively derived relationships is culturally bound. Implications of the findings are discussed, followed by limitations of the study and recommendations for further research.

Q. Which of the following can we infer from the give passage?

Detailed Solution for CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 121 The passage states how the researchers would like to focus on Lebanon in particular since it is, 'the most ethically charged advertising environment within MENA-as an illustrative context for our study'.

Hence ethical advertisement is already at place within the population of Lebanon. Option (a) cannot be inferred from the given passage.

CLAT Practice Test- 25 - Question 122