DU LLB Mock Test- 7


100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for AILET, DU-LLB, SLAT, & PU-LLB | DU LLB Mock Test- 7


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This mock test of DU LLB Mock Test- 7 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT DU LLB Mock Test- 7 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this DU LLB Mock Test- 7 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this DU LLB Mock Test- 7 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other DU LLB Mock Test- 7 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

“Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach”.

The word Swaraj was first of all used by Balgangadhar Tilak. Where did Balgangadhar Tilak made the above declaration in Marathi?

Solution: In Court, Tilak declared Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach” in court when he was given 7 years rigorous imprisonment in sedition case against him. Later Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail for six years.
QUESTION: 2

Which among the following Pala rulers is known to have founded the Vikramshila Vihara?

Solution: Dharamapala, the second ruler of Pala dynasty was a pious Buddhist King and is best known for establishing the Vikramshila University.

Dharampala had also built a Vihara at Somapuri, another at Paharpur and yet another Vihara at Odantapuri. The five places viz. Nalanda, Vikramshila, Somapuri, Paharpur and Odantapuri are called Five Mahaviharas. Bakhtiyar Khilji destroyed the Vikramshila University in 1200 AD. Somapura Mahavihara is now located in Bangladesh. It is one of the best known Mahaviharas of Buddhism in Indian subcontinent and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage and answer the question that follows:

The camel is the oldest of domestic animals. It has been used for thousands of years by the desert people of Asia to supply many of their needs. On the fertile edges of the desert, camels pull ploughs, turn wheels to irrigate the fields and carry goods to the market. In the desert itself, they are still almost the only means of transport. They supply food and clothing in the form of wool and leather.

This useful animal is well adapted to life in harsh, arid lands. The Arabian camel has one hump; the Bactrian camel has two. The hump is, in fact, a store of fat which is used as a source of energy when food and water are scarce. When it does drink, the camel can take up 100 litres of water in ten minutes. The camel has broad, soft feet to form a steady grip in the sand. A thick skin protects it from the fierce day time sun and bitterly cold nights. The camel's eyes have three eyelids to help protect them from sand; its ears and nose are also adapted to keep out sand storms.

Camels stand about two meters high at the shoulder and weigh 500-800 kilos. Often called "The ships of the Desert", they can carry loads of 200 kilos and more, travelling up to 16 kilometers a day.Camels eat grass, dates, and grain when available. Deep in the desert, they survive on dry leaves, seeds, and bones.

Q. Choose the word which means 'to hold something tightly'.

Solution: Grip means to hold something tightly.

Harsh means unpleasantly rough or jarring to the senses.

Scarce means being insufficient for the demand.

Bactrian is a species of the camel that has two humps.

So, the correct answer is option A grip.

QUESTION: 4

Myanmar does not share its international boundary with__?

Solution: Myanmar is bound by China to the north and northeast, Laos to the east, Thailand to the east and southeast, India to the northwest, Bangladesh to the west and the Andaman Sea to the south.
QUESTION: 5

Raisina Dialogue is an annual multi-lateral conference organized by which Ministry?

Solution: The Raisina Dialogue is an annual joint conference organized since 2016, by the Ministry of External Affairs in association with the leading think-tank Observer Research Foundation (ORF). The conference hosts various global leaders from all sectors to discuss the challenges faced by the global community. The title of this year’s event is ‘Navigating the Alpha Century’ and will be held from January 14 to 16 in New Delhi. The Australian Prime Minister who was expected to be the key speaker cancelled his participation recently after severe bush fires in his country.
QUESTION: 6

The “Helmand Province” of Afghanistan is famous for cultivation of __:

Solution: Helmand is one of the 34 provinces of Afghanistan, located in the south of the country. Helmand is believed to be one of the world’s largest opium-producing regions, responsible for around 75% of the world’s total production. This is believed to be more than the whole of Burma, which is the second largest producing nation after Afghanistan.
QUESTION: 7

The terms Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia are related to which among the following?

Solution: Hypoglycemia: low blood sugar

Hyperglycemia: High blood sugar Normal and diabetic blood sugar ranges. For the majority of healthy individuals, normal blood sugar levels are as follows: Between 4.0 to 5.4 mmol/L (72 to 99 mg/dL) when fasting. Up to 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) 2 hours after eating.

QUESTION: 8

The name of Barindra Ghosh is associated with which among the following newspapers?

Solution: Jugantar was a Bengali revolutionary paper founded in 1906 by Barindra kumar Ghosh, Abinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutta.
QUESTION: 9

The terms Volley, Smash, Service are related to which among the following sports?

Solution:

Any history of tennis that ignores its origins in the game that was (and is still in certain circles) known as tennis until "lawn tennis" became popular in the late nineteenth century is inaccurate. volley: A shot hit, usually in the vicinity of the net, by a player before the ball bounces on their own side of the court.

smash: Strongly hit overhead, typically executed when the player who hits the shot is very close to the net and can therefore hit the ball nearly vertically, often so that it bounces into the stands, making it unreturnable.

serve: The starting stroke of each point. The ball must be hit into the opponent's service box, specifically the box's half that is diagonally opposite the server.

QUESTION: 10

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words.

We have a very good train service from here to _______ city centre and many people go to ______ work by train.

Solution: There are two types of articles: DEFINITE ARTICLE (THE) : Article 'the' is used to refer to a DEFINITE thing or person.

INDEFINITE ARTICLE(A/AN): Article 'a/an' is used to refer to a thing or person in general. For instance: man, door etc.

Article 'a' is used with consonant sounds whereas article 'an' is used with vowel sounds.

In the FIRST Blank, article "the" will be used because "city centre " is a definite term.

In the second blank, "no article" will be used because the sentence is referring to general/ usual days things.

QUESTION: 11

The Australia group was established to control the spread of which of the following?

Solution: The Australia Group is an informal group of countries established in 1985 (after the use of chemical weapons by Iraq in 1984) to help reduce the spread of chemical and biological weapons by monitoring and controlling the spread of technologies required to produce them.
QUESTION: 12

Who was the first Indian in independent India to have won a medal in an individual Olympic event ?

Solution: Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav (1926-1984) won a bronze medal at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki in wrestling and was one of the first athletes from India to win a medal in the Olympics.
QUESTION: 13

With reference to the State Legislative Council in India, which among the following statements is / are correct?

1. The Legislative Council is a continuing House & two third of the members retire in two years.

2. Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the legislative council

3. If a state legislative council is to be created or abolished , a resolution to that effect is to be first passed by the State legislature by a two-third majority Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

Solution: The first statement is factually incorrect. Legislative Council is a continuing House and one-third of the members retire in two years.
QUESTION: 14

With which of the following countries, India shares the maximum length of border?

Solution: India has 15106.7 Km of land border running through 92 districts in 17 States and a coastline of 7516.6 Km touching 13 States and Union Territories (UTs). The length of India’s land borders with neighbouring countries is as under.

Bangladesh- 4,096.7 km

China- 3,488 km

Pakistan- 3,323 km

Nepal- 1,751 km

Myanmar- 1,643 km

Bhutan-699 km

Afghanistan- 106 km

India shares 4096.7 Km of its land border with Bangladesh. West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are the States which share the border with Bangladesh.

QUESTION: 15

Recently West Bengal’s Pradip Kumar Banerjee passed away, who associated with which sports?

Solution:
  • Former Indian football captainPradip Kumar Banerjee passed away at the age of 83 in Kolkata, West Bengal.

  • He won the gold medal in the 1962 Asian Games in Jakarta, Indonesia.

QUESTION: 16

Meghalaya’s Chief Minister presented a Rs 17,375 crore budget for the Financial Year 2020-21 in the state. Who is the present Chief Minister of Meghalaya?

Solution:
  • Meghalaya Chief Minister,Conrad Kongkal Sangma presented the budget amounting to 17,375 crore rupees for the year 2020-21 with a fiscal deficit of 1,532 crore rupees, which is around 3.53 percent of the GSDP.

  • Governor: R. N. Ravi

  • Capital:Shillong

QUESTION: 17

Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition.

Please do not interfere _____ my work.

Solution: A phrasal verb is an expression that is idiomatic in meaning. In other words, the phrasal verb has a different meaning as compared to its literal meaning.

Option B: 'With' forms a phrasal verb with 'interfere'. 'With' means 'in relation to'.

The phrase 'interfere with' in the sentence means 'to prevent something from happening or developing in a correct way'. Hence option B is correct.

Option A: 'On' means 'to come in contact with the top of a surface'. For example, 'on the table'. It does not seem relevant here.

Option C: 'At' refers to a place or time: 'at the theatre', 'at 7p.m.'.

Option D: 'Of' refers to belonging, for example, 'the sister of my husband'.

These words do not form a complete meaning in the sentence. Hence A, C and D are incorrect.

QUESTION: 18

The Prime Minister is to visit Karnataka on January 2nd and 3rd. He will confer Krishi Karman Award to 21 states that have recorded good agriculture production in various categories during the previous crop seasons.

Solution: On January 03, 2020 the National Health Authority(NHA) which is the apex body regulating and implementing Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme, Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (ABPMJAY) has de-empanelled a total of 171 hospitals and also imposed penalty of Rs 4.5 crore on hospitals for committing fraud and indulging in malpractices under the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme.
QUESTION: 19

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution: Rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. Groundnut is a Kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the country. Meghalaya is one of the major pineapple (Ananas comosus (L.)) producing states of India. Kindly note that most cultivation of rice in West Bengal is also an example of subsistence cropping.
QUESTION: 20

In which Indian state for the 1st time drones are used for village mapping (Feb 2020)?

Solution: The Madhya Pradesh (MP) government, for the first time, will use drones for mapping villages. This will replace the land survey work, done either manually or with the help of satellite images. In this regard, the state revenue department inked an agreement with Survey of India, the country’s national mapping agency under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
QUESTION: 21

Which country has successfully tested the world’s first Floating Nuclear Power Plant (FNPP)?

Solution: Russian state-run atomic energy corporation Rosatom has successfully tested the world’s first Floating Nuclear Power Plant (FNPP) – Akademik Lomonosov. The FNPP has a capacity of 70MW and is equipped with two reactors of 35MW each. It has an operational life span is 40 years, with the possibility of being extended up to 50 years. According to Rosatom, in the second half of 2019, the FNPP will be transported to its final destination to the port of Pevek in Russia's extreme north-eastern region of Chukotka, where it will replace the Bilibino Nuclear Power Plant and the Chaunskaya coal-fired power plant. An FNPP is basically a mobile, low-capacity reactor unit operable in remote areas isolated from the main power distribution system, or in places hard to access by land. They are designed to maintain both uninterruptible power and plentiful desalinated water supply in remote areas.
QUESTION: 22

Which State government has abolished reservation in promotion in the state government jobs?

Solution:
  • Uttarakhand government has abolished reservation in promotion in the state government jobs.

  • Uttarakhand Chief Minister: Trivendra Singh Rawat.

  • Governor of Uttarakhand: Baby Rani Maurya.

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following banks has launched a co-branded multi-currency travel card with Goibibo?

Solution: ICICI Bank has launched a co-branded multi-currency card with online travel booking portal Goibibo. Anyone travelling abroad, whether they hold an ICICI Bank savings account or not, can apply for the Goibibo ICICI Bank Travel Card on the Goibibo website and mobile app. The acceptance of the card is across 200 countries and 4.6 crore merchants globally. Further, the card can be loaded with up to 15 currencies. Customers can instantly transfer money from one currency to another through ICICI Bank’s internet portal and reload currency into the card anytime, anywhere, using the bank’s mobile and internet banking platform. The card also includes benefits of up to Rs. 20,000, including gift vouchers of Rs.15,000 from Goibibo. Additionally, customers get a 40 paise discount on currency conversion rate on loading of a minimum of $1,000.
QUESTION: 24

Which city is set to host the 14th Global healthcare summit in the year 2021 ?

Solution: On December 31, 2019, The American Association of Physicians of Indian Origin (AAPI), a professional association for Indian American physicians, is set to organize a 3-days long 14th Global Healthcare Summit (GHS) in Visakhapatnam,Andhra Pradesh(AP) from January 3, 2021 for the 1st time. Over the past few years, AAPI has been collaborating with several professional medical associations & made a key role in addressing diabetes with the launch of Sevak programme and CPR-AED(Proper cardiopulmonary resuscitation-automated external defibrillator) training.
QUESTION: 25

Principles: (1) Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person. (2) However, the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.

Facts: Krishna was walking on a lonely road. Maniyan came with a knife and said to Krishna, "Your life or your purse". Krishna pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maniyan ran. Krishna shot Maniyan in his legs. Decide. (NLS 1990)

Solution: The force employed was way more than the danger level as Maniyan started to run away from Krishna. As the threat was reduced and was continuously reducing, there was no need to shoot Maniyan in the Legs. Hence, option C is correct.
QUESTION: 26

India & Mongolia have signed an agreement that received cabinet approval on 8th January, 2020.For cooperation of which of the following fields they signed an MoU ?

Solution: The Union cabinet has approved an Agreement between Government of the Republic of India and Government of Mongolia on Cooperation in the Exploration and Uses of Outer Space for Peaceful Purposes. The MoU was signed on 20 September 2019 during the state visit of the President of Mongolia, Khaltmaagiin Battulga to India. This also helps to constitute Joint Working Group, drawing members from ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation )and the Information Technology Authority of the Government of Mongolia, which will further work out the plan of action including the time-frame and the means of implementing this MoU.
QUESTION: 27

Who was not a Chief Justice of India?

Solution: Who: Justice H.R. Khanna

What: was a legendary judge of the Supreme Court of India

When: from 1971 to 1977

for the complete information kindly go through the given lines:

About Hans Raj Khanna:

Hans Raj Khanna was a legendary judge of the Supreme Court of India from 1971 to 1977. Two of his judgements form the basis of modern constitutional law, decades after they were delivered. He had authored the Basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala. Indian Polity. Hence, the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 28

The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on

Solution: The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on 9 December 1946, reassembling on 14 August 1947 as a sovereign body and successor to the British parliament's authority in India. As a result of the partition, under the Mountbatten plan, a separate Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was established on 3 June 1947.
QUESTION: 29

Which one of the following was not a provision of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?

Solution: The doctrine of paramountcy is the legal principle that reconciles contradicting or conflicting laws in a federalist state, where both the central government, and the provincial or state governments, have the power to create laws in relation to the same matters. In a case where both central and state laws exist, central laws will be given priority over state laws through the doctrine of supremacy. It lapsed after the passing of Indian Independence Act 1947.
QUESTION: 30

Which of the following is a part of the Indian Constitution

Solution: The Constitution of India has established a single and uniform citizenship for the whole of the country. Hence option A is the right answer.
QUESTION: 31

Allahabad Bank is headquartered at

Solution: Allahabad Bank is a nationalised bank with its headquarters in Kolkata. It is the oldest joint stock bank in India. On 24 April 2014, the bank entered into its 150th year of establishment. It was founded in Allahabad in 1865. A tradition of trust is the tagline of the bank.

Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 32

Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold.

Quiescent

Solution: Meaning: Quiescent is being at rest; quiet; still; inactive or motionless.

Synonyms: Idle, Immobile, Dormant Antonyms: Active, Awake, Lively

QUESTION: 33

In the question below, there is a sentence with jumbled up parts. Rearrange these parts, which are labelled A, B, C and D to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

A. I wanted to tell her

B. not to talk to him

C. not listen to me.

D. but she would

Solution: The correct answer is (b) because she would not listen to him, so he could not talk to her. The correct sequence is adbc.
QUESTION: 34

Choose one word which can meaningfully replace the underlined words in both the sentences without changing the meaning of original sentences.

I. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.

II. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.

Solution: The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.

The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.

Here both 'end' and 'reveal' are verbs (Verb is a word used to describe an action, state or occurrence)

Options (a), (b) 'terminate' and 'finish' mean end but they do not mean 'reveal'.

Hence, these words cannot be used to replace the words in both the sentences.

Option (c) 'disclose' means 'reveal' but it does not mean 'end.

Only option (d) 'break' means 'end' in sentence (I) and 'reveal' in sentence (II). Thus, 'break' is the word which meaningfully replaces the words in both the sentences.

QUESTION: 35

Major is related to Lieutenant as Squadron Leader is related to _____?

Solution: Major and Squadron Leader are equivalent ranks in the Army and Air force respectively. Similarly, Lieutenant and Flying Officer are equivalent.
QUESTION: 36

A. Man, is constantly trying to run after knowledge and answers to the various questions that arise in his mind.

B. To satisfy his thirst for knowledge and information he can always turn to books for help.

C. The human mind is rational and does not take things for guaranteed.

D. If we read books that are trash, we are liable to be corrupted by them.

E. It is important to be selective about the kind of book that one decides to read.

F. Reading substandard material is simply a waste of time.

Solution: Sentence C here should be the opening sentence because it introduces the concept of rational human mind.

Sentence A logically follows C as it describes the actions of man to find answers to various questions.

A should be followed by B, as B tells us that man turns to books for his answers.

Sentence E should follow A as it defines the right way and importance of being selective in reading books, followed by sentence D, which tells us about the consequences of reading sub-standard books.

The paragraph should end with sentence F as it concludes that reading substandard material is a waste of time. The correct sequence should be “CABEDF”

QUESTION: 37

The Constitution names our country as:

Solution: Article 1(1) says, “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” This is the only provision in the Constitution on how this country should be called for official and unofficial purposes. Hence, option B is correct.
QUESTION: 38

Central Rice Research Institute is located at which city

Solution: In 1945, the Government of India decided to establish a central Institute for rice research. As a result, the Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI) was setup on 23 April 1946 at Bidyadharpur, Cuttack, Odisha. In 1966, the administrative control of the institute was transferred to the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 39

Find the odd term from the given 4 options which does not belong to the group of remaining options.

Solution: Vulture, Doves and Kingfishers are the birds which have wings and can fly.

Pigeons or doves belong to the bird family Columbidae.

Smaller species are called 'Dove' and larger ones are pigeons.

Kiwi is a flightless bird. Latin species name for “Kiwi'' is Apteryx which means wingless.

QUESTION: 40

Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold.

Belittle

Solution: Meaning: To belittle is to express scornfully one’s low opinion.

Synonyms: Bad-mouth, Decry, Depreciate

Antonyms: Extol, Acclaim, Applaud

QUESTION: 41

In the question below, there is a sentence with jumbled up parts. Rearrange these parts, which are labelled A, B, C and D to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

a. She danced with joy

b. that she had topped

c. when she found out

d. the board examination.

Correct Sequence:

Solution: She was dancing with joy at some positive news (i.e topping the board exams). While the former is the subject of the sentence, the latter is the predicate.
QUESTION: 42

In the passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested.

The settlement in the Kodaikanal mercury poisoning case, which came _______(1)_______ light 15 years ago after the release of contaminated waste materials into the environment, _______(2)________ partial closure to a long-running struggle _______(3)_________ the community and a major industrial corporation. Hindustan Unilever Limited has come to an agreement with 591 former workers and their families _______(4)_______ the payment of ex gratia amount towards livelihood and skill enhancement.

Choose the one that fills the blank numbered '4' most appropriately.

Solution: Look at the usages of the following options

For: to denote the reason

With: including

‘had’ and ‘have’ do not go with the meaning of the passage. Hence, ‘for’ is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 43

In the following question, an idiom or proverb has been underlined. Choose its correct meaning in the given context from the alternatives given below.

She was scared to death when she realised she had selected the wrong slide for the company presentation.

Solution: A frightening experience like death has been used to express how she felt when she chose the wrong slide for a presentation before her work colleagues.
QUESTION: 44

Which of the Rights mentioned below was removed by a constitutional amendment from Article 19 of the Constitution?

Solution: Right to Property was made a Legal Right under Article 300 of the Constitution of India. Hence, option B is correct.
QUESTION: 45

Orang National Park is located in

Solution: The Orang National Park located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River Assam. It was established as a sanctuary in 1985 and declared a national park on 13 April 1999. Hence, option B is correct.
QUESTION: 46

Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom/phrase

Caught between two stools

Solution: 'Caught between two stools' means finding it difficult to choose between two alternatives. OR To fail due to difficulty in choosing between two alternatives.

Example in a sentence: He tries to be both mother and father of his daughter, but falls between two stools.

QUESTION: 47

In the following question a sentence is divided in four parts. You have to find out which part has errors and mark it as your answer.

Can you 1)/ repair my 2)/ digital-camera until 3)/ Wednesday 4).

Solution: Replace ‘until’ with ‘by’.

The correct sentence should be: Can you repair my digital camera by Wednesday?

QUESTION: 48

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.

A man is known by the book he reads as well as by the company he keeps; for there is a companionship of books as well as of men and one should always live in the best company, whether it be of books or of men. A good book may be among the best of friends. It is the same today that it always was, and it will never change. It is the most patient and cheerful of companions. It does not turn its back upon in times of adversity or distress. It always receives us with the same kindness; amusing and interesting us in youth, comforting and consoling us in age.

Q. The statement, ‘’a good book may be among best of friends,’’ in the passage means that

Solution: The statement, ‘’a good book may be among best of friends,’’ in the passage means that a good book can be included among the best of friends of mankind.
QUESTION: 49

In the mid-fifties when GE was expanding its operations across the globe, the president of GE, Ralph Cordiner decided to set up a corporate university an hour away from New York spread over 59 acres. In 1956 GE offered its first course that spread over 13 weeks. Today no executive can imagine spending a full quarter of the year sitting in a classroom. While the courses that are offered at Crotonville have become shorter, the efficacy of the investment remains unquestionable. The headhunters refer to GE as a leadership factory.

GE is not alone. McDonalds set up its Hamburger University in 1961. When Steve Jobs hired Joe Podolny, the then dean of Yale to start Apple University in 2008 it made a big splash. Apple University drew faculty members including professors from universities like Yale, Harvard, Berkeley, Stanford and MIT. The trend of corporate universities is on the rise. The companies have a large employee base that ranges from 8,000 to 300,000 employees or more. They cut across sectors and businesses from automobiles to pharma and everything else in between. General Motors Institute, Caterpillar, Unilever, GDF Suez, Veolia, Axa, Sanofi, Novartis, Petronas, and many more.In 1993, corporate universities existed in only 400 companies. By 2001, this number had increased to 2,000, including Walt Disney, Boeing, and Motorola. According to BCG, there are estimated to be more than 4,000 companies with formal corporate universities.Scale: McDonalds serves 68 million customers daily in 119 countries across 35,000 outlets. This complexity requires training. That ensures that McDonalds burgers taste the same from Mumbai to Moscow.Complexity: When surgeons move to the operating theater they rely on checklists. These lists reduce human error, and help the surgeon to operate with speed without having to stop and double check if they are missing any step. In performing complex tasks through collaborating teams, speed comes through training in standard processes and procedures. Apple University teaches employees that they’re at the company to be the very best at one specific task.Corporate Governance: Governance needs the ability to manage reporting relationships, finances, and facilities. Compliance and risk management demand investments in training. On any given day two billion people use Unilever products across countries that have different rules and regulations. This scale and complexity demands constant investment to ensure standards are not compromised.Education: Entry-level hires are drawn from a wide variety of educational backgrounds. There is a need to bring people to a common minimum level of knowledge and skills. From technical skills or domain knowledge or personal competencies, people need to keep upgrading. Values and Culture: The leaders need to be role models of the values the company proclaims. When the majority of employee responses to everyday situations become uniform, it forms the culture of the organization. Tying the professional development to strategic challenges is a strong reason to invest in training.The culture of the organization has to support its vision and strategy. This needs a place when people can come together and connect with others and learn. Technical training can be delivered through e-learning modules. It is the intangibles like culture that people need to learn from role models.

The passage is in favor of:

I) Bringing entry level hires at par with the company peers

II) Good governance should include- managing reporting relations, finances and technical development.

III) Standardizing employee response to day-to-day challenges.

Solution:

I. Check para 8, sentence 2

II. Check para 7, sentence 1 (technical development not mentioned)

III. Check para 9, sentence 2

QUESTION: 50

Fill the correct past continuous form of the verb to complete the sentence:

He _____ bubbling with joy today.

Solution: Past continuous tense is used to denote an action going on at some time in the past. The time of the action may or may not be indicated. This is formed by combining the past tense of the auxiliary verb 'to be' (i.e was/ were) along with the present participle form of the main verb (-ing word).

In the given sentence, the present participle form of the main verb i.e 'bubbling' is already given. Only the auxiliary verb form (was/ were) has to be added.

Option A is incorrect because, 'were' is the plural form of the verb 'to be'. However, the pronoun 'he' is singular. Hence, 'were' cannot be used.

Option B is correct because, 'was' is the singular form of the verb 'to be' which can be used with the singular pronoun 'he'.

Option C is incorrect because the blank has to be filled with either 'was' or 'were' for the past continuous form. 'Will be bubbling' represents future continuous tense.

Option D is incorrect as option B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 51

Which one of the following officials is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister?

Solution: Article 74 Council of Ministers to aid and advise President states that :-(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration Hence, option D is correct.
QUESTION: 52

Legal Principle : A counter offer doesn't give rise to contractual binding.

Factual Situation : Aman offered to sell a Rolls Royce for $1,500 to Xiaomi who said he would give $800. Aman refused and Xiaomi who then said he would give $1,500. Aman declined to adhere to his original offer and Xiaomi tried to obtain specific performance in the court. Decide as a judge?

Q. Issue : Is there a valid contract between Aman and Xiaomi?

Decision:

Solution: The original offer was not accepted by Xiaomi and thus his claim for specific performance will fail in the court. Hence option A is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 53

Directions: Study the following questions carefully and answer the questions given below.

A man is facing west. He turns 45° in the clockwise direction and then another 180° in the same direction and then 270° in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

Solution: Shortcut Approach

Total movement in Clockwise direction = 45 + 180 = 225 degrees

Total movement in Anti-clockwise direction = 270 degrees

The difference = 270 - 225 = 45 degrees (towards anti-clock wise because the total degrees in anti-clockwise is more than that of clockwise direction)

So, 45 degrees in anti-clockwise direction from the West will be: South-West.

Traditional Method:

Clearly the man initially faces in the direction OA. On the moving 45 Degree clockwise, he faces in the direction OB . on further moving 180 degree clockwise, he faces in the direction OC. Finally, on moving 270 degree anti-clockwise, he faces in the direction OD, which is south-west.

QUESTION: 54

What is meant by Quid pro quo?

Solution: Quid pro quo in Latin stands for "something for something," and is used to describe when two parties engage in a mutual agreement to exchange goods or services. In a quid pro quo agreement one transfer is contingent upon a reciprocal transfer. As a term, quid pro quo is used similarly in business and legal contexts to convey that a good or service has been exchanged for something of equal value. Hence, option D is correct.
QUESTION: 55

What is meant by caveat?

Solution: A warning; admonition. A formal notice or warning given by an interested party to a court, judge, or ministerial officer in opposition to certain acts within his or her power and jurisdiction. Originally, a caveat was a document that could be served on either a judge or a public official to give him or her notice that he or she should discontinue a certain proceeding until an opposing party was given an opportunity to be heard. Used in the past by someone objecting to the appointment of an executor or administrator of an estate or to the granting of a patent for an invention, the term caveat is rarely used by modern attorneys.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 56

Deepa bought a calculator at 30% discount on the listed price. Had she not got the discount, she would have paid Rs. 82.50 extra. At what price did she buy the calculator?

Solution: Let the original price be x, then

30% of x = 82.50

x = 82.50/3 × 100 = Rs. 275

Deepa bought a calculator in 275 – 82.50 = Rs. 192.50

Hence, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 57

Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row such that Rajat is 11th from the right end of the row, and there 10 persons between Rajat and Manoj. Shobit is exactly between Manoj and Heera, who is 15th from the left end of the row. How many persons are there in the row?

Solution: We have,

Rajat is 11th from the right end of the row, and there are 10 persons between Rajat and Manoj. Shobit is exactly between Manoj and Heera, who is 15th from the left end of the row.

After using the above information, we have,

Order of persons in the row = (14 persons + Heera + x persons + Shobit + x persons + Manoj + 10 persons + Rajat + 10 persons)

Here, we have no information about the total number of persons between Manoj and Heera.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 58

Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution:

Solution: Independence of judiciary means a fair and neutral judicial system of a country. Article-50 in the Constitution of India, belonging to the Directive Principles of State Policy, deals with separation of judiciary from executive. It says that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
QUESTION: 59

A contract can be discharged _________.

Solution: Option A is clear in itself. A contract may be discharged by frustration. A contract may be frustrated where there exists a change in circumstances, after the contract was made, which is not the fault of either of the parties, which renders the contract either impossible to perform or deprives the contract of its commercial purpose.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 60

Directions : Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

MN QR UV ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

Solution: At the state level, there is a Governor in whom the executive power of the State is vested by the Constitution. But the Governor acts as a nominal head, and the real executive powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India.
QUESTION: 62

The Union Council of Ministers consists of

Solution: The Union Council of Ministers exercises executive authority in the Republic of India. It consists of senior ministers, called 'cabinet ministers', junior ministers, called 'ministers of state' and, rarely, deputy ministers. It is led by the prime minister.

Hence, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 63

Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:

In a family of some persons Sushant says that Manu is the daughter of my sister Rhea, who is the only daughter of Tahir. Arun is the child of Tahir and Ileana, who is the grandmother of Kiara. Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara. Arun is unmarried.

How is Arun related to Kiara?

Solution: From the following image it is clear that Arun is the maternal uncle of Kiara.

Hence option C is correct.

Common Explanation:

Reference:

In a family of some persons Sushant says that Manu is the daughter of my sister Rhea, who is the only daughter of Tahir.

Arun is the child of Tahir and Ileana, who is the grandmother of Kiara.

Arun is unmarried.

Inference:

From the above hints, following two cases arise.

Case 1: When Kiara is the child of Rhea

Case 2: When Kiara is the child of Sushant

Reference:

Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara.

Inference:

As Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara. Thus Kiara and Trisha are siblings.

So, Rhea can't be mother of Kiara, therefore case 1 fails.

Thus Kiara is the daughter of Sushant and Roma is his wife.

QUESTION: 64

Abhishek Jain typed 50 pages at the rate of 30 pages per hour on Sunday. On Monday, he could only type 50 extra pages at the rate of 20 pages per hour. What has his average rate of typing been overall. Calculate in pages per hour?

Solution: As per the question,

No. of hours Abhishek typed on Sunday = 50/30 = 5/3

No. of hours Abhishek typed on Monday = 50/20 = 5/2

Total hours of typing = 5/3+5/2 =25/6

Total pages typed = 50 + 50 = 100

Average rate of typing

Hence, Abhishek Jain typed 24 pages per hour.

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 65

Direction: In the following questions two columns are given containing three

Sentences/phrases each. In the first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.

Solution: Connectors

B and D

B: Despite being only 25, he is so rich

D: that he owns a luxury car to his name

Other pairs do not have any such relationship and therefore cannot be combined to make a meaningful sentence.

This makes Option C the right choice among the given options.

QUESTION: 66

Principles: (1) Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person.

(2) However, the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.

Facts: Krishna was walking on a lonely road. Maniyan came with a knife and said to Krishna, "Your life or your purse". Krishna pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maniyan ran. Krishna shot Maniyan in his legs. Decide. (NLS 1990)

Solution: The force employed was way more than the danger level as Maniyan started to run away from Krishna. As the threat was reduced and was continuously reducing, there was no need to shoot Maniyan in the Legs. Hence, option C is correct.
QUESTION: 67

Directions: Study the following questions carefully and answer the questions given below.

Introducing Reeta, Sarika said, “She is the only daughter of my father’s only daughter.” How is Sarika related to Reeta?

Solution: Sarika’s father’s only daughter — Sarika.

So, Reeta is Sarika’s daughter, i.e. Sarika is Reeta’s mother.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 68

Legal Principle : A contract which is made to restraint the legal proceedings is void under the law.

Facts of the Problem : Raj is a leading barrister of the city. His friend Nitin enters into a contract with him that he would not represent Jatin in any lawsuit for the next one year. After two months, Raj represents Jatin in a civil suit. Nitin sues Raj for the breach of the contract. What would be the legal outcome of the suit against Raj?

Solution: In the instant case, the contract between Raj and Nitin was made which tried to restrain the legal proceedings. As any contract which is made to restraint the legal proceedings is void under the law; thus, the contract between Raj and Nitin is also void and the action of Nitin suing Raj for the violation of the void contract would fail.
QUESTION: 69

Which of the following does not make a contract void?

Solution: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests. According to section 12 of the Indian contract Act, a person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of sound mind.

A person, who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind, may not make a contract when he is of unsound mind.

For example

(a) A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is at intervals of sound mind, may contract during those intervals.

(b) A sane man, who is delirious from fever or who is so drunk that he cannot understand the terms of a contract or form a rational judgment as to its effect on his interests, cannot contract whilst such delirium or drunkenness lasts.

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 70

Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.

If "ANANT is code as "BPDRY", then "MANOJ" will be coded as which of the following options

Solution: ANANT is coded as BPDRY, here the logic is A+1 = B, N+2 = P, A+3 = D, N+4 = R, T+5 = Y

Hence, code for MANOJ will be, M + 1 = N, A + 2 = C, N + 3 = Q, O + 4 = S, J + S = O i.e. "NCQSO".

Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 71

Pecuniary jurisdiction of the court has been dealt under which section of the CPC?

Solution: Section 6 of CPC states that - Save in so far as is otherwise expressly provided, nothing herein contained shall operate to give any Court jurisdiction over suits the amount or value of the subject-matter of which exceeds the pecuniary limits (if any) of its ordinary jurisdiction.
QUESTION: 72

Directions: In the questions below, a sentence is given, followed by five options. Choose the option that best conveys the same meaning as the original sentence and is correct with respect to grammar, meaning and usage.

There are many government hospitals in the area which are providing health services to the people but these services are not adequate as far as number of people being admitted and quality of treatment is concerned.

Solution: Sentence I. In spite of the presence of government hospitals in great numbers, the patients are not being served adequately.

The original sentence nowhere specifies the scarcity or abundance of government hospitals. Inclusion of the phrase ‘in great numbers’ makes the sentence a weak choice. Option A gets eliminated.

Sentence III. Although government hospitals are trying their best to serve the poor patients yet the services provided by them are not inadequate in any manner.

Inclusion of the word ‘poor’ in the sentence makes this a weak choice as the original sentence doesn’t talk about the financial status of its patients anywhere.

Sentence IV. With an increasing population in the area, the government hospitals now find it difficult to serve their patients with quality treatment.

This sentence can also be eliminated as the original sentence nowhere mentions ‘increasing population’ a matter of concern.

Sentence II. Even though there are many government hospitals which are providing health services to the populace of the region, the services rendered are inadequate in terms of quantity and quality.

The sentence above conveys the same meaning as the original sentence does and is hence the correct choice.

Evidently, option B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 73

Principle: Every person has a right to defend his own person, property or possession against immediate harm, and to that end, may use reasonable amounts of force.

Facts: Mr. Kaul was passing by Mrs. Mattoo's house. At that time, Mrs. Mattoo's dog ran out and bit Mr. Kaul's overcoat. Mr. Kaul turned around and raised the pistol he was carrying in the pocket of his overcoat. The dog ran away, and Mr. Kaul shot the dog as it was running away. Mr. Kaul knew that the dog had attacked so many other people in that locality of Jammu. Mrs. Mattoo claims that her dog was of a rare breed and it was worth Rs. 5000/-. She is planning to bring a legal action against Mr. Kaul for compensation. (NLSIU 97)

Solution: The force employed was way more than the danger level as the Dog started to run away from Mr. Kaul. As the threat was reduced and was continuously reducing, there was no need to shoot Dog. Mrs. Mattoo claims will succeed. Hence, the correct option is (C).
QUESTION: 74

Principle: A person commits cheating, when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver the latter's property to him.

Facts: A falsely represented to B, a shop-owner that he was an officer from the Sales Tax Department. In the course of going through the vouchers, A expressed his interest to buy a costly television on installment basis. B readily agreed hoping that he would get a favourable assessment from A regarding his tax liability. A paid the first installment and took the T.V. and disappeared. The police somehow managed to arrest him and sought to prosecute 'A' for cheating. Decide.

Solution: Firstly, A falsely impersonated as a Sales Tax officer to buy a television and secondly, he fraudulently induced B to sell that to him. He is liable for cheating.
QUESTION: 75

Legal Principle I: Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person.

Legal Principle II: The force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.

Facts: Karan was walking on an isolated path. Maninder came with a knife and told Karan, ‘Your life or your purse.’ Karan pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maninder ran. Karan shot Manider in his legs.

Decide as a judge.

Solution: The apprehension or threat of imminent danger of death or grievous hurt has a very wide scope. An accused can legally exercise the right of private defence of the body, even when he or she has not been attacked, if the person is able to prove that he or she was under such apprehension. Here, Karan was not under any imminent threat or danger as Maninder started to run away. He should have called the police rather than to take the law in his own hands. Hence, option D is correct.
QUESTION: 76

Under the Constitution of India, Freedom of religion does not give the power to?

Solution: India has given the Right to freedom of Religion but the said right of conversion is only to be exercised under free will and not under influence of money. In Rev Stanislaus vs Madhya Pradesh, 1977 SCR (2) 611, the Supreme Court of India considered the issue whether the fundamental right to practise and propagate religion includes the right to convert, held that the right to propagate does not include the right to convert and therefore upheld the constitutional validity of the laws enacted by Madhya Pradesh and Orissa legislatures prohibiting conversion by force, fraud or allurement.

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 77

Read the questions carefully and choose one of the options as your answer.

What is the meaning of the Legal Maxim/ Legal Word/Legal Term “In pari causa possessor potior haberi debet.”?

Solution: The Latin Maxim/word/term means, when two parties have equal rights, the advantage is always in favor of the possessor.

Hence option A is the right answer.

QUESTION: 78

The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on

Solution: The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on 9 December 1946, reassembling on 14 August 1947 as a sovereign body and successor to the British parliament's authority in India. As a result of the partition, under the Mountbatten plan, a separate Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was established on 3 June 1947.

Hence option B is the right answer.

QUESTION: 79

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.There are five countries namely India, Russia, China, Germany and Brazil. Each of them has a national flower, viz Lotus, Rose, Lily, Jasmine and Sunflower, and also a national animal, viz Lion, Tiger, Elephant, Panther and Bear (But not necessarily in the same order.)

  • The country whose national animal Bear has rose as its national flower.

  • Neither Lily nor Jasmine is the national flower of Germany, whose national animal is Panther. India’s national flower is Lotus and Russia’s national animal is Lion.

  • Sunflower is not China’s national flower and Bear is not Brazil’s national animal.

  • The country whose national flower is Lily has Tiger as its national animal.

Which of the following is the national flower of China?

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

Which is the world’s first major city to celebrate the start of the 2020 New Year and new decade?

Solution: Auckland in New Zealand has become the world’s first major city to celebrate the start of the 2020. Australia and New Zealand were followed by Europe, the Middle East and Asia to welcome the year 2020. The firework display in Sydney, Australia was put up despite the ongoing bushfire crisis.
QUESTION: 81

In which landmark legal case it was held that preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution?

Solution: In Berubari Union(I), Re:- It was held that the preamble is not part of the constitution. This judgement was overruled by 13 Judge Bench in Kesavananda Bharati case and it was held that the ‘Preamble is part of Indian Constitution’.
QUESTION: 82

Find the missing term in the series :

A, D, ?, P. Y.

Solution: These alphabets are first, fourth, ninth, sixteenth and twenty fifth terms of alphabets which are squares of all the natural numbers. Hence, option C is correct.
QUESTION: 83

Directions: In this type of questions, certain pairs/groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs/groups may have the same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. The candidate is required to choose the odd pair/group.

Q. Which Pair does NOT belong with the others?

Solution: In all other pairs, the sum of two numbers is 8.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 84

Read the questions carefully and choose one of the options as your answer.

What is the meaning of the Legal Maxim/ Legal Word/Legal Term “Fatum”?

Solution: The Latin Maxim/word/term Fatum means Fate/ destiny/ Beyond human foresight.

Hence option B is the right answer.

QUESTION: 85

Liability is:

Solution: The state of being legally responsible for something.

Hence option A is the right answer.

QUESTION: 86

Find the compound interest on Rs. 20,000 at the rate of 40% compounded yearly for 1.5 years?

Solution:

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 87

Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?

Solution: We pay rent for accommodation as well as pay fare for the journey.
QUESTION: 88

The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the

Solution: The President appoints the Chief Minister and Ministers for Union Territories, who will hold office during the President's reign. By the definition of an Union Territory, should NOT have a Legislative Assembly. It should be governed by the Central Government with a lieutenant governor or an Administrator.
QUESTION: 89

Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

Solution:

From the options, we get

1st option: 8 – 11 = 3

2nd option: 1 – 4 = 3

3rd option: 7 – 10 = 3

But

4th option: 3 – 5 = 2

Hence, the fourth option is different.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 90

Directions: Select the missing number from the given alternatives:

Solution: The pattern of the given numbers is

2 × 1 + 4 × 1 = 6,

3 × 6 + 1 × 1 = 19,

1 × 8 + 2 × 2 = 12

Therefore, there must be 19 in place of question marks.

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 91

Read the questions carefully and choose one of the options as your answer.

Our National Flag was adopted by the

Solution: The National Flag of India was adopted in its present form during the meeting of Constituent Assembly held on the 22 July 1947, a few days before India's independence from the British on 15 August, 1947. Hence option C is the right answer.
QUESTION: 92

Preventive Detention for more than three months can be ordered by the recommendation of an Advisory Board whose Chairman is:

Solution: Preventive Detention for more than three months can be ordered by the recommendation of an Advisory Board whose Chairman is Judge of a High Court. See Article 22 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, option D is correct.
QUESTION: 93

Direction: In each of the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side :: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.

Enough : Excess : : Sufficiency : ?

Solution: Enough’ indicates sufficiency and ‘Excess’ indicates surplus. Hence, option B is correct.
QUESTION: 94

There are two taps P and Q that can fill a tank in 12 and 24 minutes respectively. Both of them are opened together and after 4 minutes Q is closed. How long more it take for P alone to fill the tank?

Solution: Part of tank filled in 1 minute by tank P= 1/12

Part of tank filled in 1 minute by tank Q= 1/24

Part of tank filled by P and Q in 4 minutes = 4 x (1/12 + 1/24) = 4 x 3/24 = 1/2

Remaining part = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2

Equating Time and part filled = 1/12 x 2/1 = 1/x

x= 6 minutes

QUESTION: 95

Directions: Kindly read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Principles: (1) Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person.

(2) However, the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.

Facts: Krishna was walking on a lonely road. Maniyan came with a knife and said to Krishna, "Your life or your purse". Krishna pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maniyan ran. Krishna shot Maniyan in his legs. Decide. (NLS 1990)

Solution: The force employed was way more than the danger level as Maniyan started to run away from Krishna. As the threat was reduced and was continuously reducing, there was no need to shoot Maniyan in the Legs.
QUESTION: 96

What will be the addition of the third digit from the right end and the fourth digit from the left end of the number ‘768395241’ after arranging all its digits in descending order?

Solution: The given number: 7 6 8 3 9 5 2 4 1

After arranging all its digits in descending order, we get: 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Now,

The third digit from the right end = 3 The fourth digit from the left end = 6

Now,

Addition of the third digit from the right end and the fourth digit from the left end = 3 + 6 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 97

Out of two numbers, 4 times the smaller one is less than 3 times the larger one by 5, If the sum of the numbers is larger than 6 times their difference by 6, find the two numbers.

Solution: Let the number be x and y, such that x > y .

The, 3x – 4y = 5 ....(1) and (x + y) – 6 (x – y) = 6

⇒ – 5x + 7y = 6 .....(2)

Solving (1) and (2),we get : x = 59 and y = 43.

Hence, the required numbers are 59 and 43.

Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 98

Under which article has the President power to grant pardons and to remit or commute sentences in certain cases been provided?

Solution: President is empowered with the power to pardon under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution. Article 72 says that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.

Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 99

What is meant by the Legal Maxim/word “mortis causa”?

Solution: In Latin this legal word means “In contemplation of approaching death”. A phrase sometimes used in reference to a deathbed gift, or a gift causa mortis, since the giving of the gift is made in expectation of approaching death. A gift causa mortis is distinguishable from a gift inter vivos, which is a gift made during the donor's (the giver's) lifetime.
QUESTION: 100

Directions: In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. The statement is followed by some conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

Solution: We may lebel the figure as shown.

The simplest triangles are BFG, CGH, EFM, FMG, GMN, GHN, HNI, LMK, MNK and KNJ i.e. 10 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are FAK and HKD i.e. 2 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are BEN, CMI, GLJ and FHK i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of eight components each are BAJ and CLD i.e. 2 in number.

Thus, there are 10 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 18 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, option C is correct.

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