Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 24th August 2025 - UPSC MCQ

Statement I is accurate in highlighting the proposed 130th Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aiming to remove Ministers arrested for 30 consecutive days on serious charges. Statement II accurately describes the current legal framework's lack of automatic provision for Minister removal upon arrest and the disqualification criteria post-conviction. However, Statement II does not directly elucidate Statement I but provides relevant information about the existing scenario. Hence, both statements are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.

1. Golden Crescent: Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan - This pair is correctly matched. The Golden Crescent is indeed comprised of these three countries and is known as a major opium-producing region that affects several Indian states.

2. Golden Triangle: Laos, Myanmar, and Thailand - This pair is correctly matched. The Golden Triangle is a key heroin-producing area, and Myanmar is a significant player in the global supply, impacting trafficking routes through India.

3. Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: Launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare - This pair is incorrectly matched. The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan was actually launched by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, not the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

4. Akshaya Project: Launched in 2002 by then President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam - This pair is correctly matched. The Akshaya Project was indeed initiated in 2002 with the goal of enhancing digital literacy and IT access in Kerala, with significant involvement from A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, but pair 3 is not. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

1. Article 75 - Correctly matched. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and removal of Union Ministers, including the Prime Minister, by the President of India.

2. Article 164 - Incorrectly matched. Article 164 pertains to the appointment and removal of State Ministers, not Governors. It deals with the State Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister.

3. Article 239AA - Correctly matched. Article 239AA provides special provisions for the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including the powers and responsibilities of the Lieutenant Governor and the legislative assembly.

4. Article 324 - Correctly matched. Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India and the power to direct, control, and conduct elections.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan was indeed launched by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment and initially targeted 272 vulnerable districts. It has since been expanded to cover all districts in India, reflecting its comprehensive approach to tackling drug abuse nationwide.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan does follow a three-pronged strategy, it includes supply control, demand reduction, and providing medical treatment for addiction, not the enforcement of strict penalties for drug trafficking. The focus is more on reducing demand and treating addiction rather than emphasizing punitive measures.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The program has formed collaborations with various spiritual and social organizations, including The Art of Living, Brahma Kumaris, and others, to enhance its outreach and effectiveness in spreading awareness and education about drug abuse prevention.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, aligning with Option C: 1 and 3 Only. The solution confirms that the emphasis is on community engagement and treatment, rather than a punitive approach.

- Statement 1 is correct. The 130th Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2025, indeed proposes changes to Articles 75, 164, and 239AA of the Constitution to allow the removal of ministers, including the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers, if they are detained for 30 consecutive days for offences punishable by five years or more. This removal is based on the advice of the Prime Minister.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. Currently, there is no automatic mechanism for the removal of ministers upon arrest. The existing legal framework requires a conviction for disqualification under Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Arrest alone does not trigger removal due to the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.

- Statement 3 is correct. In the Public Interest Foundation PIL (2018), the Supreme Court of India emphasized that it is not within its purview to create new grounds for disqualification, which is the prerogative of Parliament. The court pointed out that legislative action is required to address issues of disqualification due to criminal charges.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

The text emphasizes the significant economic impact of tobacco use in India, indicating the urgent need to enhance India's tobacco control framework to achieve the vision of a tobacco-free India. This highlights the necessity for strengthening control measures to address the high costs associated with tobacco use and related healthcare expenditures.

Statement 1 is correct. CEREBO utilizes near-infrared spectroscopy and machine learning algorithms to diagnose traumatic brain injuries. This technology allows for a quick and efficient diagnosis without the need for radiation.

Statement 2 is correct. The device is designed to detect intracranial bleeding and oedema in under a minute, making it particularly useful in emergency situations where time is critical.

Statement 3 is incorrect. CEREBO is specifically designed to enhance healthcare access in emergency and rural settings, not just urban hospitals. It addresses the lack of accessibility to advanced imaging facilities in rural areas, providing a cost-effective and efficient alternative to traditional imaging methods.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. COTPA, 2003 - Adequate coverage of Smokeless Tobacco (SLT): Incorrect. The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003, is criticized for its inadequate coverage and enforcement regarding smokeless tobacco, which is cheaper and culturally accepted but poses high cancer risks.

2. Surrogate advertising - Requires stricter bans under current laws: Correct. Companies often exploit surrogate advertising to indirectly promote tobacco products, which necessitates stricter regulations.

3. Tobacco taxation - At WHO recommended levels: Incorrect. Tobacco taxation in India is below WHO recommended levels, with bidis taxed at 22% and cigarettes at around 50%, indicating a need for stronger fiscal measures.

4. E-cigarette ban - Well enforced across India: Incorrect. The ban on e-cigarettes exists, but its enforcement is poor, leading to increased accessibility, especially among adolescents.

Only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Statement I correctly summarizes the objectives and strategies of the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, outlining its approach to combating drug abuse in India. Statement II accurately describes the Akshaya project in Kerala and its goal of enhancing digital literacy in the state. While both statements are individually correct, they address distinct initiatives in different sectors, making Option A the appropriate choice.

The main objective of the CEREBO device introduced by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is to offer a radiation-free and rapid diagnosis of traumatic brain injuries. This portable tool, developed using near-infrared spectroscopy and machine learning algorithms, aims to provide quick and accurate detection of intracranial bleeding and oedema in under a minute. By being user-friendly and safe for use on various demographics, including infants and pregnant women, CEREBO significantly contributes to addressing the high mortality and morbidity rates associated with head injuries in India.