Daily Current Affairs MCQ: 7th June 2025 - UPSC MCQ

- Statement 1 is correct. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) indeed serves as a monetary policy tool for the RBI to control liquidity and inflation. By requiring banks to keep a certain percentage of their deposits in liquid form with the RBI, it directly affects the amount of funds available for lending and investment.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is designed to ensure that banks maintain a minimum level of liquid assets, which includes cash, gold, or government securities. This requirement helps maintain bank solvency and limits excessive credit growth.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. A decrease in the repo rate generally reduces borrowing costs for banks, thereby increasing liquidity in the economy. Lowering the repo rate makes funds cheaper for banks, encouraging them to borrow more and lend more to businesses and consumers, thus boosting economic activity.

Given these explanations, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

1. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): Correctly matched. It is indeed the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that must be maintained as liquid cash with the RBI. CRR helps control liquidity in the banking system.

2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): Correctly matched. SLR is the percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must maintain in the form of cash, gold, or approved securities. It ensures the bank's solvency and controls credit growth.

3. Repo Rate: Incorrectly matched. The Repo Rate is actually the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks, not long-term. It influences the borrowing cost and liquidity in the economy.

4. Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): Correctly matched. This facility allows banks to deposit surplus funds with the RBI without collateral, absorbing excess liquidity.

Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrect.

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. The World Bank reported that India's extreme poverty rate decreased significantly from 27.1% in 2011-12 to 5.3% in 2022-23 under the revised global poverty threshold of $3 per day (2021 PPP terms). This reflects a substantial decline in poverty levels in India over the period.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The World Bank adjusted the extreme poverty line from $2.15 per day to $3.00 per day, not $4.20. The $4.20 per day figure refers to the lower-middle-income poverty line, not the extreme poverty line. Therefore, this adjustment was made to account for rising living costs and improve the comparability of poverty data across different periods.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. India's non-monetary poverty, which considers factors beyond income such as access to basic services and living standards, fell significantly from 53.8% in 2005-06 to 15.5% in 2022-23. This reduction indicates improvements in various non-monetary aspects of poverty.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only. Statements 1 and 3 accurately reflect the data provided, while Statement 2 contains an error regarding the adjusted poverty threshold.

1. Extreme Poverty Line (2021 PPP terms) - $3 per day: This is correctly matched. The World Bank revised the extreme poverty line to $3 per day in 2021 PPP terms to reflect rising living costs.

2. Reduction in Rural Poverty (2011-12 to 2022-23) - 69% to 32.5%: This is correctly matched. According to the data provided, rural poverty in India dropped from 69% in 2011-12 to 32.5% in 2022-23.

3. Global Measles Vaccine Coverage Target - 95%: This is correctly matched. The target for global measles vaccine coverage to prevent outbreaks is indeed 95%.

4. India’s Multidimensional Poverty Reduction (2013-14 to 2022-23) - 29.17% to 15.5%: This is incorrectly matched. The reduction in multidimensional poverty as provided by NITI Aayog is from 29.17% in 2013-14 to 11.28% in 2022-23, not 15.5%.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

1. Core Purpose: Correctly matched. The core purpose of the UMEED portal is indeed to enhance transparency, accountability, and public participation by making Waqf data digitally traceable.

2. Centralized Registration: Incorrectly matched. The UMEED portal provides a unique 17-digit ID to each Waqf property, not a 12-digit ID.

3. 3-Tier Verification: Correctly matched. The verification process involves three stages: Maker (Mutawalli inputs property data), Checker (district official verifies the data), and Approver (CEO or an authorized Waqf Board officer grants final approval).

4. Eligibility Rule: Correctly matched. Properties registered in women's names are not eligible as Waqf properties, aligning with the stated rule.

Three pairs (1, 3, and 4) are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched due to the incorrect number of digits in the ID provided.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Source-to-Sea (S2S) framework indeed emphasizes cooperation across different water domains and advocates for inclusive strategies that involve all stakeholders, including governments and local communities. This approach promotes holistic management across freshwater, coastal, and marine domains.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The United Nations has designated 2025 as the International Year of Glaciers' Preservation, highlighting the urgent need to address glacier preservation and initiating a Decade of Action on Cryospheric Science (2025–2034). This reflects global awareness of the critical condition of the cryosphere and its essential role in freshwater availability and marine health.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. Although there have been updates to the National Water Policy, the Source-to-Sea (S2S) framework remains underutilized in India. The existing water governance models do not fully address the interconnected realities of water systems, which complicates effective water management and fails to tackle issues such as water stress and pollution comprehensively.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

1. Source-to-Sea (S2S) Framework - Incorrect. The S2S framework promotes holistic and integrated management across freshwater, coastal, and marine domains, not isolated management.

2. ECOSOC Member States - Correct. ECOSOC consists of 54 member states, elected by the UN General Assembly.

3. Support to Poor Prisoners’ Scheme - Correct. This scheme was indeed launched in May 2023 to assist economically disadvantaged prisoners who cannot afford bail or fines.

4. India's Term in ECOSOC (2026-2028) - Correct. India is serving its 18th term on ECOSOC for the term 2026–2028.

Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three pairs correct in total.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project was indeed approved in 1995, and it includes the Chenab Bridge, which is the world's highest railway arch bridge.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The first railway line in Jammu and Kashmir was constructed by the British in 1897, connecting Jammu to Sialkot, not in 1947, and it did not connect Jammu to Srinagar.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The Chenab Bridge is part of the USBRL project and is designed to withstand winds of up to 260 km/h, which is a significant engineering achievement.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct. The correct answer is Option B.

1. Statement 1: The Indian Constitution does indeed allow for the establishment of a separate High Court for each state. Article 214 of the Constitution provides for a High Court in each state, although it does not mandate that each state must have its own separate High Court. In practice, some states share High Courts. However, the statement as given is broadly correct.

2. Statement 2: The appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not solely based on seniority. While traditionally, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court has been appointed as the CJI, this is not a constitutional requirement. The President appoints the CJI, usually following the seniority principle, but it remains a matter of convention, not a constitutional mandate. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

3. Statement 3: The Supreme Court of India does have the power to review any judgment passed by itself. This is referred to as the "review jurisdiction" and is enshrined in Article 137 of the Indian Constitution. It allows the Supreme Court to review its judgments or orders, making this statement correct.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, leading to Option C as the answer.

1. Ganga: Yamuna - Correctly matched. The Yamuna is a major tributary of the Ganga River, joining it at the Triveni Sangam in Allahabad (Prayagraj).

2. Godavari: Manjira - Correctly matched. The Manjira River is a tributary of the Godavari River, originating in the Balaghat range of Maharashtra.

3. Krishna: Bhima - Correctly matched. The Bhima River is a major tributary of the Krishna River, flowing through Maharashtra and Karnataka.

4. Narmada: Tapi - Incorrectly matched. The Tapi River is not a tributary of the Narmada River. Both the Narmada and the Tapi are separate rivers, both flowing westward into the Arabian Sea, but they do not connect.

Three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 2, and 3. The fourth pair is incorrectly matched.