Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 29, 2024 - UPSC MCQ

Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) announced the launch of S.A.R.A.H., a digital health promoter prototype.

• Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
• It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
• It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
• Features
• It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health, to help people optimize their health and well-being journey.
• It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease, lung disease, and diabetes.
• It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet, and de-stressing among other things. 
• It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
• It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping her to provide more accurate responses in real-time.

Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

A unique conservation agricultural practice, Paira cropping system has dwindled in recent years due to climate change.

About Paira cropping system:

• The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
• It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 week before its harvest.
• This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer application. However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
• Advantages:
• This practice enables to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crop, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
• Experimental evidences showed that paira cropping produced more yield of lentil than planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
• This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land productivity.

What is Relay cropping method?

• It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well before harvesting of second crop.
• It can solve a number of conflicts such as inefficient use of available resources, controversies in sowing time, fertilizer application, and soil degradation.

Hence both statements are correct.

The new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.

• It is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
• It is a two-stage canisterised missile with a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
• It is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles. It weighs at least 50 per cent less than the Agni 3 missile and has new guidance and propulsion systems.
• It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time required for preparation and launch. The missile uses a cold launch mechanism and can be fired in salvo mode.
• The first test of the ‘Agni Prime’ was conducted in 2021, while the second test was conducted six months later in December. Last year in June, the DRDO carried out the first night launch of the 'Agni Prime' missile.

What are Ballistic Missiles?

• These are launched directly into the upper layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
• They travel outside the atmosphere, where the warhead detaches from the missile and falls towards a predetermined target.
• They are rocket-propelled self-guided weapons systems which can carry conventional or nuclear munitions. They can be launched from aircraft, ships and submarines, and land.

Hence both statements are correct.

Recently, a bloom of venomous mauve stinger or purple-striped jellyfish was reported by marine researchers across the Visakhapatnam coast.

• Appearance: It usually appears a blue purple (mauve) colour with a globe shaped umbrella covered in orangey brown warts.
• Habitat: It is primarily pelagic, or in the open ocean. However, this species can survive in benthic and temperate coastal habitats.
• Distribution: It is found worldwide in tropical and warm-temperature seas. It is mainly found in the Indo-Pacific, Atlantic Ocean, and the Mediterranean Sea.
• Unique feature: Unlike other jellyfish species, it has stingers not just on the tentacles, but on the bell too. These are bioluminescent, having an ability to produce light in the dark.
• It has a painful sting and causes different degrees of illnesses and can be life-threatening.
• It is venomous and causes varying degrees of illness such as diarrhoea, extreme pain, vomiting and anaphylactic shock (a severe allergic reaction that can develop quickly and be life-threatening).
• A jellyfish bloom is when the population of the species increases dramatically within a short period of time, usually due to a higher reproduction rate.
• According to marine biologists, jellyfish blooms are reported frequently as a result of rising ocean temperatures, one of the main causes of substantial population growths.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Supreme Court recently issued a clear directive to the National Medical Commission (NMC) to submit details regarding the stipend status of medical colleges across all States.

About National Medical Commission (NMC):

• The NMC has been constituted by an Act of Parliament known as the National Medical Commission Act, 2019, which came into force in 2020.
• It regulates medical education and medical professionals in the country.
• It replaced the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI), which was established in 1934.
• NMC grants recognition of medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice, and assesses the medical infrastructure in India.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Functions:
• lay down policies for maintaining high quality and high standards in medical education and make necessary regulations on this behalf;
• lay down policies for regulating medical institutions, medical researches, and medical professionals and make necessary regulations in this behalf;
• assess the requirements in healthcare, including human resources for health and healthcare infrastructure, and develop a road map for meeting such requirements;
• promote, co-ordinate, and frame guidelines and lay down policies by making necessary regulations for the proper functioning of the Commission, the Autonomous Boards and the State Medical Councils;
• ensure co-ordination among the Autonomous Boards;
• take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance by the State Medical Councils of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act for their effective functioning under this Act;
• exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of the Autonomous Boards;
• lay down policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in the medical profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by medical practitioners;
• frame guidelines for determination of fees and all other charges in respect of fifty percent of seats in private medical institutions and deemed to be universities which are governed under the provisions of this Act;
• exercise such other powers and perform such other functions as may be prescribed.
• Composition:
• It consists of 33 members, including the Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members, and 22 part-time members.
• Medical Advisory Council: It provides the platform through which the states or UTs can put forth their views and concerns before the NMC and advises the NMC on measures to determine and maintain minimum standards of medical education.
• Four autonomous boards:
• Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses),
• Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses),
• Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and
• Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of doctors and registers them).

Hence option c is the correct answer.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) delays enforcement of regulations on exchange-traded currency derivatives by one month, prompting traders to close positions.

What are Derivatives?

• The term derivative refers to a type of financial contract whose value is dependent on an underlying asset, group of assets, or benchmark. 
• These contracts can be used to trade any number of assets and carry their own risks.
• Prices for derivatives derive from fluctuations in the underlying asset. 
• Common derivatives include futures contracts, forwards, options, and swaps.
• The most common underlying assets for derivatives are stocks, bonds, commodities, currencies, interest rates, and market indexes. 
• They are used for various purposes, including speculation, hedging, and getting access to additional assets or markets.
• The basic principle behind entering into derivative contracts is to earn profits by speculating on the value of the underlying asset in the future.
• There are mainly two types of derivatives: one that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and thus being traded on stock exchanges, and the other being traded between private counter-parties in the absence of a formal intermediary.
• While the first type is known as exchange-traded derivatives, the other is over-the-counter derivatives.
• What are Exchange Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs)?
• ETCDs are financial contracts that allow traders and investors to speculate on the future price movements of various currency pairs.
• ETCDs were first introduced in 2008.
• These derivatives are traded on exchanges and their value is based on the underlying currency exchange rate.
• Common Derivatives:
• Futures Contracts: A futures contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price on a specific future date. The underlying asset can be commodities, financial instruments, or indices.
• Options Contracts: An options contract gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call option) or sell (put option) an underlying asset at a specified price (strike price) on or before a predetermined expiration date.
• Swaps: Swaps are agreements between two parties to exchange cash flows based on specific financial variables. Common types of swaps include interest rate swaps, currency swaps, and commodity swaps. Swaps are often used to manage interest rate risks, currency risks, or to change the nature of a debt obligation.
• Forwards: Forwards are similar to futures contracts but are not standardized or traded on exchanges. They are customized agreements between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on a future date.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is planning to launch a mobile application aimed at facilitating seamless investment in government securities by retail investors under the RBI Retail Direct Scheme.

• It was initially introduced in November 2021.
• It gives access to individual investors to maintain gilt accounts with the RBI and invest in government securities.
• The scheme enables investors to buy securities in primary auctions as well as buy/sell securities through the NDS-OM platform.
• Negotiated Dealing System - Order Matching system (NDS-OM) means RBI’s screen based anonymous electronic order matching system for trading in Government securities in the secondary market.
• It is a comprehensive scheme which provides the following facilities to retail investors in government securities market through an online portal: Open and maintain a ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’, access to primary issuance of government securities, and access to NDS-OM.
• Eligibility: Retail investors can register under the scheme and maintain an RDG account, if they have the following: Rupee savings bank account maintained in India, PAN, any officially valid document for KYC purpose, valid email-ID and registered mobile number.
• Payments for transactions can be done conveniently using a saving bank account through internet-banking or Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
• Investor services include provisions for transaction and balance statements, nomination facility, pledge or lien of securities and gift transactions. No fees will be charged for facilities provided under the scheme.
• To further improve ease of access, a mobile application of the Retail Direct portal is being developed. The app will enable investors to buy and sell instruments on the go, at their convenience.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

The Southern Ocean is renowned for having the cleanest air on Earth. But the precise reasons why have remained mysteries until now.

• It is also known as the Antarctic Ocean which is one of the five great ocean basins on Earth.
• It was formed around 34 million years ago when Antarctica and South America drifted apart, creating the Drake Passage (located between the Antarctic Peninsula’s tip and South America). 
• It is made up of the portions of the world ocean south of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans and their tributary seas surrounding Antarctica below 60° S.
• It is known for its strong winds, intense storms, dramatic seasonal changes and cold temperatures.
• It is dominated by the Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC) which is the longest, strongest, deepest-reaching current on Earth.
• The ACC circulates clockwise around the continent, carrying more water around the globe than any other current.
• Biodiversity: The Ocean supports a variety of plants and animals, with most animals relying on the rich phytoplankton from the Antarctic Convergence. Marine life includes whales, penguins, orcas, and seals. 

Hence both statements are correct.

The Uttarakhand Government has constituted two teams of experts to evaluate the risk posed by five potentially hazardous glacial lakes in the region which are prone to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).

• These are disaster events caused by the abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes.
• What are glacial lakes?
• Glacial lakes are large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier.
• As a glacier withdraws, it leaves behind a depression that gets filled with meltwater, thereby forming a lake.
• The more the glacier recedes, the bigger and more dangerous the lake becomes. Such lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris.
• In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas. This is called as Glacial Lake Outburst Flood.
• Reasons for GLOFs
• It can be triggered by various reasons, including glacial calving, where sizable ice chunks detach from the glacier into the lake, inducing sudden water displacement.
• Incidents such as avalanches or landslides can also impact the stability of the boundary around a glacial lake, leading to its failure, and the rapid discharge of water.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

The new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently.

About Strategic Forces Command (SFC):

• The SFC, sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India's Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
• SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country's tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile. 
• It was created on January 4, 2003.
• Responsibility of SFC:
• It is the responsibility of the SFC to operationalize the orders of the NCA under the leadership of a Commander-in-Chief who is a Senior Officer.
• It has the sole responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads after acquiring clear approval from the NCA.
• Moreover, the final target selection is also done by the SFC through a calibrated, cumulative process involving various levels of decision-making, including formal approval from the NCA.
• The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks. 
• Since its inception, the SFC’s command, control, and communication systems have been firmly established, and the command has attained a high state of operational readiness.
• It consists of officers and personnel of the Indian Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and Indian Navy who are deputed from their respective services.
• The Commander-in-Chief, a 3-star General, is appointed on a rotational basis from the three services.

Key Facts about India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA):

• It is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India's nuclear weapons programme.
• It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
• The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
• It is the sole body which can authorize the use of nuclear weapons.
• The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
• It provides input for decision-making by the NCA and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council.

Hence option b is the correct answer.