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Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Practice Test: Full Length - 2

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The Practice Test: Full Length - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Practice Test: Full Length - 2 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 below.
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Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 1

eBkray portal has been launched for

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 1
The eBkray platform provides navigational links to all Public Sector Banks (PSB) e-auction sites, property search feature and presents single-window access to information on properties up for e-auction, comparison of similar properties, and also contains videos and photographs of the uploaded properties.

The e-auction platform has also now been linked to the Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged Properties Information (IBAPI) portal and guidelines have been made available

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 2

With reference to Suspension of MPs, consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member.

2. The power to revoke the suspension is with the House through a motion and not with the speaker.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 2
Statement 1 is incorrect. Rules 374A of Lok Sabha Rules provides the Speaker the power to suspend any member of Parliament if the member is wilfully abusing Rules of Procedure. Similarly, Rule 256 of Rules of Procedures and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha authorises the Chairman to suspend members. Statement 2 is correct. Though it is the power of the Speaker to suspend any member but the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.

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Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 3

‘Bilateral Netting’ exercise appearing in news recently is related to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 3
Netting entails offsetting the value of multiple positions or payments due to be exchanged between two or more parties. Netting between two parties is called Bilateral netting.

Netting can involve more than two parties, called multilateral netting, and generally involves a central exchange or clearinghouse.

Bilateral netting:

Bilateral netting is the process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement. As a result, instead of each swap agreement leading to a stream of individual payments by either party, all of the swaps are netted together so that only one net payment stream is made to one party based on the flows of the combined swaps. Hence, option a is correct.

India-US in defence Agreements: - The signing of the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016 and the Helicopter Operations from Ships Other Than Aircraft Carriers (HOSTAC) earlier this year were important steps in this direction. The signing of the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) will enable India to access advanced technologies from the US and enhance India's defence preparedness.

KB: Netting is very common in advanced economies where the settlement is based on net positions in bilateral or multilateral financial arrangements rather than by gross positions. A strong netting system generally gives rise to a thriving derivatives market, as it provides the most accurate picture of a company’s financial position, solvency and liquidity risk.

In the absence of bilateral netting, India’s central bank regulations require banks to measure credit exposure to a counterparty for OTC derivative contracts based on gross marked-to-market (MTM) exposure instead of net MTM exposure. This increases credit risk for financial market participants, especially in the event of insolvency of a counterparty, which could then raise systemic risk, according to the latest Economic Survey. The current system of higher obligations requires banks to divert more capital toward collateral requirements than what would be required if bilateral netting is permitted.

Multilateral Netting: Multilateral netting is a payment arrangement among multiple parties that transactions be summed, rather than settled individually. Multilateral netting can take place within a single organization or among two or more parties. The netting activity is centralized in one area, obviating the need for multiple invoicing and payment settlements among various parties. When multilateral netting is being used to settle invoices, all parties to the agreement send payments to a single netting center, and that netting center sends payments from that pool to those parties to which they are owed. Therefore, multilateral netting can be thought of as a way to pool funds to simplify the payment of invoices between parties to the arrangement.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 4

Which of the following is a likely outcome of a widening fiscal deficit in a country?

1. slowdown in economic growth rate.

2. decrease in capital expenditure.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 4
Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure of the government (capital and revenue expenditure) - Total income of the government (Revenue receipts + recovery of loans + other receipts)

A recurring high fiscal deficit means that the government has been spending beyond its means.

Likely outcomes of widening fiscal deficit:

(i) Slowdown in economy

(ii) Increase in revenue expenditure

(iii) Decrease in capital expenditure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(iv) Decrease in revenue collection - especially tax revenue

A government experiences a fiscal deficit when it spends more money than it takes in from taxes and other revenues excluding debt over some time period. This gap between income and spending is subsequently closed by government borrowing, increasing the national debt. An increase in the fiscal deficit, in theory, can boost a sluggish economy by giving more money to people who can then buy and invest more. Long term fiscal deficit in a country can be detrimental for economic growth and stability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following is not possibly associated with the occurrence of El Nino Phenomena?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 5
El Nino is the warm phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific, including the area off the Pacific coast of South America.

Option a is correct. El Nino is accompanied by warmer waters in the Eastern Pacific ocean and comparatively cooler waters in western Pacific. This results in high air pressure in the western Pacific and low air pressure in the eastern Pacific.

Option b is correct. During El Nino, severe droughts occur in Australia, Indonesia, India and southern Africa. High air pressure in the western Pacific is the cause behind Australian droughts in El Nino conditions.

Option c is correct. Increased concentration of Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere has caused global warming and impending climate change. IPCC in its multiple reports has found increased frequency and intensity of El Nino phenomena caused by Global warming.

Option d is incorrect. The warmer waters during El Nino, have a devastating effect on marine life existing off the coast of Peru and Ecuador. Fish catches off the coast of South America are lower than in the normal year as the upwelling stops, reducing the supply of fresh nutrients to marine life.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 6

From which among the following pairs of states, does both the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Meridian pass through?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 6
In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Indian Standard Meridian (82.5' E meridian) passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. (5 states)

Hence, both the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Meridian pass through Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

1. As per Article 20 of Constitution, a person or an entity cannot be punished retrospectively in any civil and criminal cases.

2. As per Article 22 of the Constitution, a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 7
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 20 provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person. It provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of act. A person cannot be punished for ex-post-facto laws. An ex-post- facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively. However, this protection is only made for criminal offences. This does not apply for any offence done under civil domain for ex: taxation laws.

Statement 2 is incorrect. 44th Amendment of the Constitution amended the provisions of Article 22. Article 22 after amendment provides that a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state. The Original Constitution provided a time period of three months in place of two months. Presently, the provision of Original Constitution is under effect and not that of the 44th Amendment.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 8

Which of the following financial instruments cannot be classified as an asset for any commercial bank?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 8
Option a is correct: The Savings Taxable bonds issued by the government for retail investors can emerge as an investment with a higher rate of interest. Popularly known as RBI Bonds, they suit anyone looking for highest safety of principal and a regular income.

Option b is correct: Treasury Bills are financial instruments issued by the Reserve bank of India (RBI) acting on the behalf of the central government. These bills are issued when there is a shortage of funds, or when the RBI wants to control the cash liquidity in the market.

Option c is correct: Loans and advances are the principal profit earning assets of the commercial banks. They composed mainly of customers’ overdrafts whereby in return for interest being paid on the amount actually drawn, banks agree to customers over-drawing their accounts, running into debt, up to stated amounts. These facilities are usually limited to relatively short periods of time 6 to 12 months, but they are renewable by agreement.

Options d is incorrect: Public Provident Fund (India) The Public Provident Fund is a savings-cum-tax- saving instrument in India, introduced by the National Savings Institute of the Ministry of Finance in 1968.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 9

Which of the following sites is a man-made and managed wetland, included in the list of Ramsar sites and also placed on Montreux Record?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 9
Keoladeo National Park (KNP) is known for its rich biological diversity. It is a man-made and managed wetland and was notified as a bird sanctuary in 1956 and elevated to the status of a national park in 1982. It is one of the most important waterfowl refuges of the world, a Ramsar site and a World Heritage site. It was placed on the Montreux Record in 1990 due to "water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime”.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC)?

1. It is an autonomous body of the department of science and technology under Union Government.

2. It is an initiative to support domestic manufacturing, reduce dependence on imports to meet local demand and boost exports.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 10
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC) is set up under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The Council will be headed by Secretary, DIPP.

Statement 2 is correct. National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC) will support domestic manufacturing, reduce dependence on imports to meet local demand and boost exports. It aims to give a fillip to the medical device sector, which is a sunrise sector.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 11

What can be the impact of Biomagnification on the ecosystem?

1. Desertification in the semi-arid regions can occur.

2. Degradation of the coral reefs can take place.

3. Distorted reproduction cycles among aquatic animals can occur.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 11
Statement 1 is incorrect. Biomagnification has no role in the desertification process. Desertification is mainly caused due to overgrazing. Other factors that cause desertification include urbanization, climate change, overdrafting of groundwater, deforestation, natural disasters and tillage practices in agriculture that place soils more vulnerable to wind.

Statement 2 is correct. The coral reefs are destroyed by biomagnification of cyanide, which is used in leaching gold and in fishing. The reefs provide for spawning, feeding, and dwelling grounds for numerous sea creatures. When destroyed, the survival of aquatic creatures is highly compromised.

Statement 3 is correct. Biomagnification can also lead to the accumulation of various toxic chemicals and elements in the vital organs of the various aquatic creatures affecting their reproduction and development. For instance, seabird eggs are laid with thinner shells than normal, and can result in the birds crushing their eggs instead of incubating them. Selenium and heavy metals such as mercury also affect the reproduction of aquatic creatures such as fish as it destroys their reproductive organs.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 12

With reference to Stockholm convention and Minamata convention, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention were a result of the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

2. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention.

3. Stockholm convention aims to reduce the Persistent Organic Pollutants (PoPs) while Minamata convention aims to reduce mercury emissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 12
Statement 1 is incorrect. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty, signed in 2013 and entered into force on 16 August, 2017.

Statement 2 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

Statement 3 is correct. Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants whereas Minamata Convention was designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 13

Which of the following is not considered in the calculation of misery index?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 13
Misery Index = unemployment rate + the inflation rate + the third is the lending rate - the annualised growth of GDP.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 14

Which among the following best explains the formation of wave cyclones?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 14
Option a is correct. Wave cyclones are also called Extratropical or mid-latitude cyclones. These are formed along the fronts between different air masses. The circulation about the cyclone center tends to produce a wavelike deformation of the front, hence the name.

Option b is incorrect. Very high Sea Surface Temperature is associated with the formation of Tropical cyclones.

Option c and d are incorrect. Formation of Polar Stratospheric clouds and creation of thunderstorms have no association with the formation of wave cyclones. The cold front within the cyclones, however, can witness thunderstorms. But it is not the cause, rather the effect of cyclone formation.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs:

Famous Temple Location

Sonagiri temple Madhya Pradesh

Kulpakji temple Telangana

Shikharji temple Chhattisgarh

Which of the pairs mentioned above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 15
Sonagiri Temple is a Jain Temple located in the Datia district of Madhya Pradesh. It is dedicated to Chandraprabhu who is the eight Tirthankara. He is said to have become Siddha (soul at its purest form or a liberated soul)

Kulpakji Temple is also called Kolanupaka Temple is a Jain Temple in Yadadri district, Telangana. The principal deity is Rishabhnatha who is the first Tirthankara. The temple also houses idols of Lord Neminatha and Lord Mahavira.

Shikharji Temple is located in Giridih district, Jharkhand. It is the most important Jain pilgrimage site. According to ancient Jain Text Nirvana Kanda this is the place where 20 Tirthankar attained Moksha.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 16

With reference to the Temple Entry movements in South India in the 20th century, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. By a resolution in 1924, the Kakinada Congress committee formed the Untouchability abolition committee to support the Vaikom Satyagraha.

2. K. Kelappan led the ten-month long protests during the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1931.

3. The movements failed to achieve anything concrete due to British repression also supported by the Native state’s rulers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 16

Statement 1 is correct: the demand for temple entry was first started in Vaikom, Kerala. This Vaikom Satyagraha gave inspiration to Tamils to fight against Caste Hindus. In South India Nadars were among the first people to fight for temple entry.

Statement 2 is correct: K Kelappan was the lead figure of congress in Kerala and popularly called Kerala Gandhi. He fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination. He was also the leader of the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1932

Statement 3 is incorrect: The movement got support from many nationalist leaders including gandhi and agitation against untouchability spread in other states of South India also.

 

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 17

‘Akademik Lomonosov’ sometimes seen in the news is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 17
Akademik Lomonosov is named after Mikhail Lomonosov, a Russian academician. It is a ship which carries floating nuclear units. It is necessary for supply of power in remote areas where other sources are not accessible. It will be used in areas of the Arctic where Russia is exploring oil and gas. According to an estimate it can generate enough power to feed a population of 200,000 in the Arctic region. It is a part of Russia's greater goals of Russia of securing rich deposits of energy in the Arctic. The US, France and China are also working on sea based nuclear power plants. Environmental groups have called it “Chernobyl on Ice”, or “Nuclear Titanic”.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 18

With reference to colistin, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans.

2. It has been used in veterinary medicine for prevention and treatment of bacterial infection.

3. Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food producing animals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 18
Statement 1 is correct. Colistin is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections.

Statement 2 is correct. Colistin has been used in veterinary medicine for treatment and prevention of bacterial infections and as antibiotic growth promoter for better feed conversion.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued an order prohibiting the manufacture, sale and distribution of colistin and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and animal feed supplements.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 19

With reference to 'Black-necked crane', a bird found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is found only in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India.

2. It is classified as critically endangered in the IUCN red list.

3. Its breeding is mainly threatened by the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 19
Statement 1 is incorrect. Black-necked cranes are found in the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim as well as the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN red list.

Statement 3 is correct. The major threat to the successful breeding of black-necked cranes is the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs. These dogs are owned both by armed forces as well as by the local nomads. Another threat to the bird is the loss of habitat. The human pressure on the wetlands, the primary habitat of cranes, has increased tremendously over the last decade. The increased grazing pressure on the limited pastures near the wetlands is also leading to the degradation of the wetland habitat.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 20

Who among the following was/were the members of the legislative councils (Provincial/Central) during the British Rule in India?

1. Phreozeshah Mehta

2. Muhammed Ali Jinnah

3.Subhash Chandra Bose

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 20
Pheroze Shah Mehta was a politician and lawyer. He was also one of the founding fathers of and President of Indian National Congress. He was nominated to the Imperial Legislative Council in 1893 and Bombay Legislative Council in 1887. He also started a weekly English newspaper “The Bombay Chronicle”. Along with KT Tailang he established Bombay Presidency Association in 1885

Muhammad Ali Jinnah was elected as a Muslim member for Bombay in the Central Legislative Assembly in September 1923.

Subhash Chandra Bose was an Indian Nationalist who has been a leader of the radical wing of the Congress. He resigned from Civil services and in 1921 worked under Chitranjan Das. Later he started his own newspaper Swaraj. In 1923 he became President of All India Youth Congress. He was also elected as President of Congress in 1938 and 1939. He also formed All India Forward Bloc, a faction within Congress.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 21

Which one of the following issues the 'Global Competitiveness Index' report periodically?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 21
Option a is incorrect: The WTO was born out of negotiations, and everything the WTO does is the result of negotiations. The bulk of the WTO’s current work comes from the 1986-94 negotiations called the Uruguay Round and earlier negotiations under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). The WTO is currently the host to new negotiations, under the ‘Doha Development Agenda’ launched in 2001. Option b is correct: In 2019 India has moved down 10 places to rank 68th on an annual global competitiveness index, largely due to improvements witnessed by several other economies, while Singapore has replaced the US as the world's most competitive economy. India, which was ranked 58th in the annual Global Competitiveness Index compiled by Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF).

Option c is incorrect: World Bank Released the following index Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report and Ease of Doing Business and International Debt statistics

Option d is incorrect: International Monetary Fund (IMF) released Global financial stability report (SGRF) and World Economic Outlook report

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 22

When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then, which of the following is likely to happen?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 22
Option a is incorrect: Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Monetary authorities use this to control money supply in the economy, thereby inflation.

Option b is correct: The RBI, cut the repo rate and reserve repo rate by 75 basis points and 90 bps, respectively (100 basis points/bps = 1 percent). The repo rate now stands at 4.4 per cent and reserve repo rate at 4 percent. Impact of the rate cut on borrowers, the unexpected rate cut is likely to reduce equated monthly instalments (EMIs) of borrowers, and also make it cheaper to take new loans.

Option c is incorrect: No relation between two things, RBI decides both two things separately.

Option d is incorrect: When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then decreases in the cost of borrowing.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 23

With reference to the use of Bioink in the health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is used for 3D bioprinting of functional tissues to replace injured or diseased tissues.

2. It can be made from natural biomaterials only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 23
Statement 1 is correct. Bioink is used for 3D bioprinting, an emerging technology with various applications in making functional tissue constructs to replace injured or diseased tissues. It is a relatively new approach that provides high reproducibility and precise control over the fabricated constructs in an automated manner, potentially enabling high-throughput production.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bioinks may be made from natural or synthetic biomaterials alone, or a combination of the two as hybrid materials. In certain cases, cell aggregates without any additional biomaterials can also be adopted for use as a bioink for bioprinting processes.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 24

If the central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase the supply of any commodity or make it available at fair price then it can regulate, prohibit the production or hoarding, distribution and sale of that commodity under the

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 24
Option a is incorrect: Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 To regulate the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs & cosmetics through licensing.

Option b is incorrect: Epidemic Diseases Act 1897, when the state government is satisfied that the state or any part thereof is visited by or threatened with an outbreak of any dangerous epidemic disease; and if it thinks that the ordinary provisions of the law are insufficient for the purpose, then the state may take, or require or empower any person to take some measures and by public notice prescribe such temporary regulations to be observed by the public. The state government may prescribe regulations for inspection of persons travelling by railway or otherwise, and the segregation, in hospital, temporary accommodation or otherwise, of persons suspected by the inspecting officer of being infected with any such disease.

Option c is incorrect: The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 provides for the grading and marking of agricultural and other allied commodities with the objectives of making avail- able quality agricultural produce including horticulture and livestock produce to the consumers.

Option d is correct: Under the EC Act of 1955, if the Central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase supplies of any essential commodity or make it available at fair prices, it can regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution and sale of that commodity. Some of the essential commodities listed out in the schedule to this Act are foodstuffs including edible oils and oilseeds, drugs, fertilisers, petroleum and petroleum products. The Centre has the power to add or remove any commodity. Kb)

In recent years, there has been an argument that the EC Act was draconian and not suited for times when farmers face problems of plenty rather than scarcity. The Economic Survey 2019-20 argued that it hampered remunerative prices for farmers and discouraged investment in storage infrastructure.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 25

The initiative 4P1000 sometimes seen in the news is associated with

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 25
On the sidelines of COP 14 of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), TRIFED and Union Tribal Ministry has launched TICD (TRIFED’s Initiative to Combat Desertification) under “The 4P1000 Initiative: The Tribal Perspective through Bamboonomics.” The aim of the initiative is to demonstrate that agriculture and in particular agricultural soils can play a crucial role where food security and climate change are concerned.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 26

Consider the following statements with reference to the Home Rule Movement:

1. The 1915 Bombay Congress session rejected the proposal of Annie Besant to start the movement.

2. V K Krishna Menon was associated with the formation of India League in 1928 which was inspired by Annie Besant’s Home rule leagues.

3. The 1917 August Declaration changed the course of the movement.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 26
Statement 1 is incorrect: The congress neither rejected nor approved the proposal of Anni Besant to start the movement Statement 2 is correct: The India league was based in Britain. Its objective was to achieve full independence and self-government for India. VK Krishna Menon was an important figure in it. It evolved from the Commonwealth of India League (1922) which was inspired by the Home Rule League. VK Menon after becoming joint secretary radicalised the organisation and started demanding complete independence. The organisation opened up its branches in other cities of Britain like Liverpool, Manchester, Newcastle, Southampton and Wolverhampton. The league sought to raise consciousness among British people of the injustice of British rule in India.

Statement 3 is correct: After Tilak left for England the movement was left leaderless. Annie Besant was satisfied by the promise of the reforms proposed by the 1917 August Declaration. After the Montagu declaration the League agreed to put a halt on their movement and all the moderate members gave up their membership of the league. The league believed in the promises of the British government that it will gradually reform the administration. The rise of Gandhi and his Satyagraha also provided for the dissolution of the league.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 27

With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The President may specify the first list of Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state.

2. The President is not required to consult the Governor of the state before specifying such a list.

3. Any subsequent amendment to such a list of Scheduled Tribes can be only done by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 27
Statement 1 is correct. Article 342 of the Constitution provides the Supreme Court the power to President to provide the list of tribal communities to be listed under Scheduled Tribes of the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. The President in consultation with the Governor prepares the initial list of tribes to be listed under Scheduled Tribes. (Article 342 (1))

Statement 3 is correct. Parliament is empowered to make amendments to the list only through law. Only Parliament has the power to amend. (Article 342 (2)

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 28

The ‘Portfolio system of governance’ in British India was introduced by

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 28
The Indian Council Act 1861 made changes in the Governor General’s council for executive and legislative purposes. The Act was introduced by Lord Canning. It empowered the Governor General to delegate special tasks to individuals of the Executive council. Each member had their own portfolio and dealt with it. This was the first instance of a portfolio system in India.

The act also provided for the establishment of new Legislative Councils for Bengal, NWFP and Punjab. Before the 1861 act, the Executive council had little or no representation of the people and there was demand for representation. Therefore, a fifth finance member was added, and provision was made for addition of 6 to 12 members to the Executive council.

The 1858 Act made Governor General the Viceroy. Now onwards India was to be governed by and in the name of the crown through secretary of state and council of 15 members.

Indian Council Act 1892 enlarged the Legislative council of Governor General. A principle of representation was introduced along with elements of indirect election.

The Indian Council Act 1909 or Morley Minto reforms provided first time entry of an Indian in the Executive Council of the Governor General. It also introduced a separate electorate for the Muslims.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 29

Which of the following brings out the Logistics Performance Index?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 29
World Bank released the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. The LPI 2018 allows for comparisons across 160 countries. The LPI is based on a worldwide survey of operators on the ground (global freight forwarders and express carriers), providing feedback on the logistics “friendliness” of the countries in which they operate and those with which they trade. They combine in-depth knowledge of the countries in which they operate with informed qualitative assessments of other countries where they trade and experience of the global logistics environment, feedback from operators is supplemented with quantitative data on the performance of key components of the logistics chain in the country of work.

Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 30

In the context of use of stealth technologies, consider the following statements:

1. It makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection.

2. Indian Air Force has recently inducted indigenously developed stealth fighter aircraft HAL AMCA.

3. Project 17 was conceptualised by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Full Length - 2 - Question 30
Statement 1 is correct. Stealth technology makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection. The concept of stealth is to operate or hide while giving enemy forces no indication as to the presence of friendly forces.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The HAL Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is an Indian programme to develop a fifth-generation fighter aircraft. AMCA will be a single-seat, twin-engine, stealth all-weather multirole fighter aircraft, feasibility study on AMCA and the preliminary design stage have been completed, and the project entered the detailed design phase in February 2019. It is expected to make its first flight in 2032.

Statement 3 is correct. Project 17 was conceptualized by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates indigenously. In 1997, the Indian Government approved the order for three frigates.

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