Practice Test: Full Length - 4 - UPSC MCQ

• Ecotones often have a larger number of species and larger population densities than the communities on either side. This tendency for increased biodiversity within the ecotone is referred to as the "edge effect." Those species which occur primarily or most abundantly in the ecotones are called "edge" species.
• Although ecotones support an increase in density for some species, other species need interior habitat blocks to survive and show avoidance or poor survival on edges. An increase in anthropogenic fragmentation of landscapes creates more ecotones, which may result in an increased occurrence of edge species while simultaneously resulting in increased negative effects for interior species.

The correct option is Option D.

In contrast to most plants, mangroves have poorly developed, shallow below-ground root systems while having well-developed aerial roots. These aerial roots allow for the transport of atmospheric gases to the underground roots.

The mangrove root system takes up oxygen from the atmosphere. To overcome this, mangrove species have a unique way of reproduction, which is generally known as vivipary. In this method of reproduction, seeds germinate and develop into seedlings while the seeds are still attached to the parent tree.

Many mangrove species survive by filtering out as much as 90 percent of the salt found in seawater as it enters their roots. Some species excrete salt through glands in their leaves. These leaves, which are covered with dried salt crystals, taste salty if you lick them.

They require high solar radiation and can absorb fresh water from saline brackish water. They produce pneumatophores to overcome the respiration problem in anaerobic soil condition. Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bark which facilitates more water loss and produces coppices.

• Saptamatrika refers to a group of seven mother-goddesses, each of whom is the shakti, or female counterpart, of a god.

• They are Brahmani (wife of Brahma), Maheshvari (wife of Shiva), Kaumari (wife of Kumara), Vaishnavi (wife of Vishnu), Varahi (wife of Varaha, or the boar, an avatar [incarnation] of Vishnu), Indrani (wife of Indra), and Chamunda, or Yami (wife of Yama). One text, the Varaha-purana, states that they number eight, including Yogeshvari, created out of the flame from Shiva’s mouth.

• Recently, the Epigraphy Branch of the Archaeological Survey of India(ASI) has discovered earliest epigraphic evidence of the Saptamatrika cult. It is the earliest Sanskrit inscription discovered in South India as on date and was discovered in Chebrolu village in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.

• Statement 1 is not correct: A central Ajivika idea was that of niyati (fate), the principle that ultimately determined and controlled everything. The human effort was of no consequence in this strictly deterministic doctrine. Ajivikas were described as fatalists, they believed that there was no free will and everything that has happened, is happening and will happen is entirely preordained and nothing could change it. Karma and transmigration existed, but human effort played no role in it, as the paths for souls over thousands of years had already been mapped out.

• Statement 2 is correct: Ajivika was a religious order or a heterodox sect in the time of Buddha founded by the Makkhali Gosala, a senior contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira. Ajivikas were one of the Nastika Darsana or Heterodox Philosophies as they did not believe in the Vedas.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomas Rishi cave. Barabar caves are a set of 7 rock-cut-caves dating back to the third century BC. The facade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance. The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement. The interior hall of this cave is rectangular with a circular chamber at the back. The entrance is located on the sidewall of the hall.

• Mauryan king Ashoka and his grandson Dashratha donated the Barabar caves to Ajivika sect monks. The inscription in the Sudama cave informs that the four caves on Barabar hill were assigned by King Ashoka to Ajivika monks in 261 BC. Another inscription on the Nagarjuni hill is of the grandson of King Ashoka, Dasaratha Maurya, which tells that the Ajivikas continued to enjoy imperial Mauryan patronage for long. The caves are not a world heritage site.

• The Kisan Rail Scheme was recently announced in Budget 2020-21.

• It aims to build a seamless national cold supply chain for perishables, inclusive of milk, meat and fish. There shall be refrigerated coaches in Express and Freight trains as well. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• The Indian Railways will set-up a “Kisan Rail” through PPP arrangements. So, statement (2) is correct.

• Additional Information: Also, a Krishi Udaan scheme will be launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation on international and national routes. This will immensely help improve value realisation especially in North-East and tribal districts.

• Under Build Operate and Transfer (BOT) Annuity Model, a developer builds a highway, operates it for a specified duration and transfers it back to the government. The government starts payment to the developer after the launch of the commercial operation of the project. Payment will be made on a six-month basis. Therefore, the initial investment is made by the private sector. So, pair A-1 is the correct match.

• Under the Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) Model, the cost is completely borne by the government. Government invites bids for engineering knowledge from the private players. The government meets the procurement of raw material and construction costs. The private sector’s participation is minimum and is limited to the provision of engineering expertise. Therefore, all investment is made by the government. So, B-3 is the correct match.

• Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM): In financial terminology, a hybrid annuity means that the government makes payment in a fixed amount for a considerable period and then in a variable amount in the remaining period. This hybrid type of payment method is called HAM in the technical parlance. Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) has been introduced by the Government to revive PPP (Public-Private Partnership) in highway construction in India. So, C-2 is the correct match.

• TOT was introduced in 2016 to monetise publicly funded highways. Under the model, investors make a one-time lump sum payment in return for long-term toll collection rights. Therefore, it involves leasing out of assets (Highway). So, D-4 is the correct match.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. Some of the objectives of NITI Aayog are:

• To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States. So, statement (a) is correct.
• To offer a platform for resolution of inter-sectoral and inter departmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda. So, statement (b) is correct.
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government (and not the other way round). So, statement (c) is NOT correct.
• To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources to strengthen the probability of success and scope of delivery. So, statement (d) is correct. 

Therefore, the answer is (c) as it is the only incorrect option

• Total Fertility Rate (TFR) indicates the average number of children expected to be born to a woman during her reproductive span of 15-49 years.

• The government’s Sample Registration System in 22 states shows that TFR for India declined to 2.2 in 2017 after being stable at 2.3 between 2013 and 2016. The 2017 figure is just 10 basis points more than the replacement level of 2.1%. So, India has not yet reached the replacement level of TFR. The replacement level is the number of children needed to replace the parents, after accounting for fatalities, skewed sex ratio, infant mortality, etc. The population starts falling below this level. So, option (a) is correct.

• The dependency ratio is a measure of the number of dependents aged zero to 14 and over the age of 65, compared with the total population aged 15 to 64. This indicator gives insight into the number of people of nonworking age, compared with the number of those of working age. Though initially, a lower TFR would decrease the dependency ratio, it would eventually lead to a rise in the number of older people in proportion to the working population, increasing the dependency ratio. So, option (b) is correct.

• In 1950, children (aged 0-14 years) were 37.5% of India’s population and the elderly (over 60 years) were 8.9%. The proportions now are 9.4% elderly over 60 and 27.8% children below 14. By 2050, the elderly (360 million persons, 19.1% of the population) will exceed children (18.9%). So, option (c) is NOT correct.

• Scheduled tribes make up only 8.2% of the total population. So, option (d) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c) as it is the only incorrect option.

Statement 1: Section 23 C of MMDR, Act 1957 empowered the State Government to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals. But in the recent past, it has been observed that there was large number of illegal mining cases in the Country and in some cases, many of the officers lost their lives while executing their duties for curbing illegal mining incidence. The illegal and uncontrolled illegal mining leads to loss of revenue to the State and degradation of the environment. This led to the promulgation of the 2016 guidelines.

Statement 2: Objective of 2016 Guidelines:

• Identification and Quantification of Mineral Resource and its optimal utilization.
• To regulate the Sand & Gravel Mining in the Country since its identification to its final endues by the consumers and the general public.
• Use of IT-enabled services & latest technologies for surveillance of the sand mining at each step.
• Reduction in demand & supply gaps.
• Setting up the procedure for replenishment study of Sand.
• Post Environmental Clearance Monitoring.
• Procedure for Environmental Audit.
• To control the instance of illegal mining.

Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA) gives power to the Central Government to take all measures that it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing and controlling abating environmental pollution. To meet this objective, the Central Government can restrict areas in which any industries, operations or processes or class of industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards.

• Statement 1: The environmental clearance process comprises of four stages, namely, Stage (1) Screening; Stage (2) Scoping; Stage (3) Public Consultation and Stage (4) Appraisal. Public Consultation refers to the process by which the concerns of local affected persons and others who have plausible stake in the environmental impacts of the project or activity are ascertained.
• Statement 2: Appraisal means the detailed scrutiny by the Expert Appraisal Committee or State Level Expert Appraisal Committee of the application and other documents submitted by the applicant for grant of environmental clearance. Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) is a multi disciplinary sectoral appraisal committee comprising of various subject matter experts for appraisal of sector specific projects. The EAC is the recommendatory body. Based on the recommendations of the Expert Appraisal Committee, environmental clearance is accorded or rejected to the project by MoEF&CC.

• With the number of tigers in India doubling between 2006 and 2018 to 2,967, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has asked that core and critical tiger habitats be declared inviolate spaces where no infrastructure development or mining can be allowed, and that tiger corridors be carefully interlinked. These are areas that are devoid of any human habitation and use so that potential human-animal conflict can be minimized.

• Inviolate spaces have served as a cornerstone for species conservation and can serve to separate wildlife populations from human-induced threats. On the other hand, multiple-use areas where wildlife and humans can co-exist––or at least co-occur––are conceived as a strategy, which can serve both conservation and human livelihood needs.

The annual Frontiers Report 2019 published by the United Nations (UN), has included a chapter on nitrogen pollution in its latest edition. The report was released by the United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA) in Nairobi.
Highlights of the Frontiers Report 2019:

• Pollution caused by the reactive forms of nitrogen is now being recognised as a grave environmental concern on a global level.
• It highlights that growing demand on the livestock, agriculture, transport, industry and energy sector has led to a sharp growth of the levels of reactive nitrogen — ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide (NO), nitrous oxide (N2O) — in our ecosystems.
• Nitrogen compounds running off farmland have led to water pollution problems around the world, while nitrogen emissions from industry, agriculture and vehicles make a big contribution to air pollution.

• Sangam literature is an important source of the early history of South India. This literature is believed to have been composed between 300 BC and 300 AD in the assemblies of poets held at that time. Traditionally, three Sangams or assemblies of Tamil poets are believed to have been convened one after the other. All the three Sangams took place at different places under the patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.

• The Sangam literature can be roughly divided into two groups- narrative and didactic.

• The narrative texts are called Melkanakku or Eighteen Major Works consisting of eight anthologies and ten idylls (short poems) the narrative texts are considered the works of heroic poetry in which heroes are glorified and perpetual wars and cattle raids frequently mentioned. They show that early Tamil people were primarily pastoral. Traces of early megalithic life also appear in the texts.

• The narrative Sangam texts also give some idea of the State formation in which the army consisted of groups of warriors, and the taxation system and judiciary appeared in the rudimentary state.

• The Didactic works are called Kilkannakku or eighteen Minor Works. Didactic texts were works of the brahmana Prakrit-Sanskrit scholars. These texts prescribe a code of conduct not only for the king and his court but also for various social groups and occupations. Hence option (a) is correct.

• Fold mountains are formed by large-scale earth movements when stresses are set up in the earth's crust. When such stresses are initiated, the rocks are subjected to compressive forces that produce wrinkling or folding along the line of weakness. The up-folded waves are called anticlines and the troughs or downfolds are synclines.

• When the crest of a fold is pushed too far, an overfold is formed. If it is pushed still further, it becomes a recumbent fold. In extreme cases, fractures may occur in the crust, so that the upper part of the recumbent fold slides forward over the lower part along a thrust plane, forming an overthrust fold. The over-riding portion of the thrust fold is termed as Nappe.
  Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Dew is the moisture that forms as a result of condensation. Condensation is the process a material undergoes as it changes from a gas to a liquid. Dew is the result of water changing from a vapor to a liquid.

• Dew forms as temperatures drop and objects cool down. If the object becomes cool enough, the air around the object will also cool. Colder air is less able to hold water vapor than warm air. This forces water vapor in the air around cooling objects to condense. When condensation happens, small water droplets form—dew.

• The temperature at which dew forms is called the dew point. The dew point varies widely, depending on location, weather, and time of day.

• The ideal conditions for its formation are the clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.

• Strong winds, for instance, mix different layers of air, containing different amounts of water vapor. This reduces the atmosphere's ability to form dew.

• Statement 1 is correct: Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion. He was a contemporary of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. In the late 17th century, Mughal emperor Aurangzeb imposed the Sharia law across his empire and an additional jizya tax on non-Muslims. It is also believed that he forcibly converted many people to Islam. According to Sikh tradition, some Kashmiri Pandits fled these forced conversions and sought refuge with Guru Tegh Bahadur. On the insistence of his son, the ninth guru traveled to Delhi to dissuade Aurangzeb from this religious imposition. Aurangzeb beheaded Guru Tegh Bahadur in 1675, in front of a massive crowd.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Guru Granth Sahib comprises of 974 hymns by Guru Nanak, 62 hymns by Guru Angad Dev, 907 hymns by Guru Amar Das, 679 hymns by Guru Ram Das and 116 hymns by Guru Tegh Bahadur.

• Statement 3 is not correct: Guru Gobind Singh started the Khalsa tradition after his father Guru Tegh Bahadur was beheaded during the Islamic sharia rule of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. Guru Gobind Singh created and initiated the Khalsa as a warrior with a duty to protect the innocent from any form of religious persecution.

• Official data from 6th Economic Census shows that the unemployment rate among those aged 35 or more is low. The unemployment rate among “20-30” age group is around 34.3% (Long term unemployment) which is way higher than the 4.7% in “30-40” age group. This is true in rural and urban areas and among men and women. The reason is that in the absence of any social security remaining unemployed is not an option. Data from the Economic Census shows that 71.7% of all establishments in India have not hired labour. This is where the bulk of the self-employed who are not engaged in agriculture are absorbed – such as tea stall owners, pakoda sellers and roadside mechanics. In effect, self-employment for the bulk of these people is disguised employment at worst, and underemployment and meagre earnings at best. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• India's unemployment rate increased to 7.7 per cent in December 2019, according to data released by think-tank Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE). Tripura, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh witnessed highest unemployment levels of more than 20 per cent, while Karnataka and Assam reported the lowest unemployment rate of 0.9 per cent each. Tripura remained the state with the highest unemployment rate of 28.6 per cent, followed by Haryana with 27.6 per cent. So, statement (2) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (a) which is NOT correct.

• The enactment of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was one of the success stories of Indian economic reforms, and it had played a critical role in reshaping the behaviour of borrowers. Without a bankruptcy law, if organisation defaults on loan, each claimant races to grab its share of the organisation's assets. This battle among the claimants can push the organisation into liquidation regardless of whether it has a generally stable business model. The essence of the insolvency process is to aid against such challenges and encourage entrepreneurship business, and more risk-taking. So, statement (1) is correct and statement (3) is not correct.

• Efficient insolvency law is vital to stability in financial systems and fundamental to economic growth and wealth creation. Entrepreneurship, by nature, involves risktaking. Some business ideas will inevitably turn out badly. This may be due to several reasons. A sound insolvency and bankruptcy process enable rapid resolutions of such problems. So, statement (2) is correct.

• IBC has driven massive M&A momentum in the country, led by deals involving Bhushan Steels ($7.4 billion), Reliance Communications($3.7 billion), Fortis Healthcare ($1.2 billion), India’s Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) has accelerated activity in distressed merger and acquisitions (M&As) in India with the transaction involving Indian companies reaching $104.5 billion in 2018. So, statement (4) is correct.

• In the words of Amitabh Kant, the CEO of NITI Aayog - IBC ensures that the world of crony capitalism comes to an end. Earlier, one could borrow and not repay. Now if one does not pay, they lose their business. So, statement (5) is correct.

• The code established Information Utilities (IUs). It is a Centralized repository of financial and credit information of borrowers; would validate the information and claims of creditor’s vis-à-vis borrowers, as needed. Moreover, early resolution restores the faith of the financial creditors. Because of the above, credit market of India would develop and work more effectively. So, statement (6) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• Public debt is the total amount borrowed by the government of a country. In the Indian context, public debt includes the total liabilities of the Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India. Public debt is further classified into internal & external debt.

• Internal debt is categorised into marketable and non-marketable securities. Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state government's special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.

• As per provisional data for 2018-19, out of 75.79 lakh crores of central government public debt, 5.13 lakh crores are external, which is more than 6% of the public debt. So, statement (a) is not correct.

• Marketable securities form more than 80% of the total internal debt of central government i.e. for 2018-19(P) – nearly 55 lakh crores of 64 lakh crores of internal debt are marketable securities. So, statement (b) is correct.

• Central Government debt is characterised by low currency and interest rate risks. This is owing to the low share of external debt in the debt portfolio and almost the entire external borrowings being from official sources. Further, most of the public debt has been contracted at a fixed interest rate making India’s debt stock virtually insulated from the interest rate volatility. This lends certainty and stability to the budget in terms of interest payments. So, statement (c) is not correct.

• The weighted average maturity of the outstanding stock of dated securities of the Government of India has increased from 9.7 years at end-March 2010 to 10.4 years at end-March 2019. So, statement (d) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

• An increase in merchandise exports to GDP ratio has a net positive impact on BoP (Balance of Payment) position. Over the years, the merchandise exports to GDP ratio has been declining, entailing a negative impact on the BoP position.
  Merchandise Exports as per cent of GDP
  2009-14 (15.7%)
  2014-19 (12.7%)
  2018-19 (12.1%)
  2019-20 (11.3%)
  So, statement (1) is correct.

• An increase in the merchandise imports to GDP ratio has a net negative impact on the BoP position. Over the years the ratio has been declining for India entailing a net positive impact on the BoP position.
  India’s Merchandise Imports as per cent of GDP
  2009-14 (24.3%)
  2014-19 (18.75)
  2018-19 (18.9%)
  2019-20 (17.6%)
  So, statement (2) is not correct.

• Net services as a proportion of GDP reflects the net impact of service exports and imports on BoP. India’s net services surplus has been steadily declining in relation to GDP:
  Net services as per cent of GDP
  2009-14 (3.3%)
  2014-19 (3.2%)
  2018-19 (3.1%)
  2019-20 (2.9%)
  So, statement (3) is correct.
  Therefore, the correct answer is (c)

• As per Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), “family farming is a means of organising agricultural, forestry, fisheries, pastoral and aquaculture production, which is managed and operated by a family and predominantly reliant on family labour”. So, statement (1) is correct.

• 2019-28 was designated the UN’s Decade of Family Farming by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD). The UN Decade of Family Farming 2019-2028 aims to shed new light on what it means to be a family farmer in a rapidly changing world and highlights more than ever before the important role they play in eradicating hunger and shaping our future of food. So, statement (2) is correct.

• Family farming offers a unique opportunity to ensure food security, improve livelihoods, better manage natural resources, protect the environment and achieve sustainable development, particularly in rural areas.

• Project BOLD-QIT (Border Electronically Dominated QRT Interception Technique) under CIBMS (Comprehensive Integrated Border Management system) has been inaugurated on India-Bangladesh border in Dhubri District of Assam.

• BOLD-QIT is the project to install technical systems under the Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System (CIBMS), which enables BSF to equip Indo-Bangla borders with different kind of sensors in unfenced riverine area of Brahmaputra and its tributaries.

• The concept of CIBMS is the integration of manpower, sensors and command and control to improve situational awareness and facilitate quick response to emerging situations. Among major components of CIBMS is the ‘virtual fence’. The second component is the command and control, which will help in optimum use of resources for border management. Another component is power management to keep CIBMS running.

The legal changes in the IPZ are aligned with the Niti Ayog’s proposal for holistic development in the Islands which is being taken forward under the guidance of the Island Development Agency.
Key highlights:

• It allows Eco-tourism projects 20 metres from the high tide line (HTL) in smaller islands like Baratang, Havelock and Car Nicobar, and at 50 metres in larger ones.
• It allows for eco-tourism activities like mangrove walks, tree huts and nature trails in island coastal regulation zone IA (classified as the most eco-sensitive region of the islands which includes turtle nesting grounds, marshes, coral reefs etc).
• The notification also allows for construction of roads, roads on stilts by reclaiming land in exceptional cases for defence installations, public utilities or strategic purposes in ecosensitive zones.
• It states that in case construction of such roads pass through mangroves, a minimum three times the mangrove area destroyed during the construction process shall be taken up for compensatory plantation of mangroves elsewhere.
• It also allows a number of new activities in the inter-tidal zone between low tide line and HTL. This includes land reclamation and bunding for foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, wharves, quays, sea links etc, transfer of hazardous substances from ships to ports, manual mining of atomic minerals, and mining of sand for construction purposes with permission from local authorities in non-eco-sensitive sites.

The notification relaxes development norms in the islands compared to the IPZ notification of 2011, which stipulated a no-development zone (NDZ) of 200 metres from the HTL for all islands. This brings the norms for Andaman and Nicobar at par with coastal regulation zone (CRZ) norms for other islands close to the mainland and backwater islands where an NDZ only 20 metres from HTL has been stipulated.

• PARIVESH is a web based, role based workflow application which has been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities. It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow.

• This innovative initiative will drastically improve the entire process of appraisal and environmental clearance in the Ministry. It will ensure transparency and expedite the process of granting clearance.

• The important features are that the Project Proponent gets a confirmation on mail about acceptance of his application or can receive objections raised on the application online and can file his reply to such objections online. The Project Proponent can also track the movement of their application at different stages and can see the findings of the Expert Appraisal Committee on their project proposal.

• This online system has also provided access to previous Environment Impact Assessment Reports, which is a valuable reservoir of information.

The correct option is Option A.

Yakshagana from Karnataka though known as a folk dance art form is equipped with many ingredients from Natyashastra . Kuchipudi from Andhra Pradesh is a dance-drama tradition which comes close to Karnataka Yakshagana. Yakshagana in Karnataka is a very popular art form primarily due to its strong religious background.

Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. In the early 19th century, the famous Tanjore Quartette, under the patronage of Raja Serfoji are said to have been responsible for the repertoire of Bharatanatyam dance as we see it today.

Gotipua is a traditional dance form in the state of Odisha, India, and the precursor of Odissi classical dance. It has been performed in Orissa for centuries by young boys, who dress as women to praise Jagannath and Krishna. Raghurajpur, Odisha (near Puri) is a historic village known for its Gotipua dance troupes.

• Ghadar movement was spearheaded by the revolutionary group of people, largely from Punjab. They emerged into the Ghadar party which was built around the weekly paper 'The Ghadar'. It was published the weekly paper the Ghadar in commemoration of the mutiny of 1857. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The Komagata Maru incident and the outbreak of the First World War during 1914 were encouraged the Ghadrites to launch a movement against the British Rule in India.

• Ghadarites started their movement from Punjab. But later on, they shifted their base to San Francisco, United States.

• Indian revolutionaries in the United States of America and Canada had established the Ghadar Party in 1913. Along with Lala Hardyal and Ram Chandra, Mohammed Barkatullah, Bhagwan Singh and Sohan Singh Bakhna were some of the prominent leaders of the Ghadar Party.

• A marked feature of Ghadar ideology was its democratic and egalitarian content. It was clearly stated by the Ghadarites that their objective was the establishment of the Independent Republic of India.
  Hence statement 1 is correct.

• In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.

• Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. The new alluvium is deposited in the flood plains and deltas.

• Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. The old alluvium is found on the higher side of the river valleys, i.e. about 25 metres above the flood level. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• The Khadar soil is sandy and light in colour, while the Bhangar soil is clayey and dark. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars).

• These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahmaputra valley.

• The sand content decreases from the west to the east.

• Sundarbans is the largest contiguous mangrove area in the world and one of the World Heritage Sites of India designated by the World Heritage Convention.

• This biosphere reserve is located in the vast Delta of the Ganges, south of Calcutta. It is the largest and only mangrove reserve in the world inhabited by tigers (Panthera tigris tigris). This reserve includes the Royal Bengal Tiger Reserve, Sundarban National Park and three wildlife sanctuaries, viz Sajnekhali wildlife sanctuary, Lothian Island wildlife sanctuary and Holiday Island wildlife sanctuary.

• The site supports exceptional biodiversity in its terrestrial, aquatic and marine habitats; ranging from micro to macro flora and fauna. The Sundarbans is of universal importance for globally endangered species including the Royal Bengal Tiger, Ganges and Irawadi dolphins, estuarine crocodiles and the critically endangered endemic river terrapin (Batagur baska).

• The forest tracts of Neyyar, Peppara, Shendumey wildlife Sancturias are located in Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve.
  Hence option d is NOT the correct statement.

• Monetary transmission is the pass-through of the RBI's rate cuts to the economy at large. Transmission of monetary transmission has been weak in 2019.

• Operation Twist, initially, is the name given to a US Federal Reserve monetary policy operation, which involves the purchase and sale of government securities to boost the economy by bringing down long-term interest rates. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India decided to conduct its own ‘Operation Twist’ through simultaneous purchase and sale of government securities under Open Market Operations (OMOs). The intent is to moderate high long-term interest rates in the market and bring them closer to the repo rate. So, statement (1) is correct.

• The credit spread (the difference between repo rate and WALR (Weighted Average Lending Rate)) is at the highest level in this decade. WALR on outstanding loans of SCBs is 525 bps higher than the repo rate, suggesting that there has been no transmission of the cut in repo rate to lending rates of the banks in 2019, So, statement (2) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

• As per Article 3 of the Constitution, the Parliament can form new States or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing States without their consent. In other words, the Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Hence statement (1) is correct.

• Therefore, India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’. The Union Government can destroy the States whereas the State Governments cannot destroy the Union. The States lose their external sovereignty. Hence statement (2) is correct.

• In the USA, on the other hand, the territorial integrity or continued existence of a State is guaranteed by the Constitution. The American Federal Government cannot form new States or alter the borders of existing States without the consent of the States concerned. That is why the USA is described as ‘an indestructible union of indestructible states. Hence statement (3) is not correct.

• While the example of the destructible union of indestructible states can be supranational organisations like the European Union, where States do not lose their external sovereignty.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).