Practice Test: Indian Polity - 17


25 Questions MCQ Test | Practice Test: Indian Polity - 17


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QUESTION: 1

The Articles in the Indian Constitution that are grouped under Services under the Union and the States are

Solution:

From article 308 to 314 is under public service and from article 315 to 323B is under public service commission.so we can say that from article 308 to 323B is under service.

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following is not reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President?

Solution:

Generally the Governor of a state reserves such bills which will effect the federal structure such as interstate commerce and bills effecting the basic structure such as judicial independence and financial bills which will effect taxing powers of subjects relating to union, concurrent subjects. The agriculture is a state subject and the Governor cannot reserve the bill relating to taxing on agricultural land taxing because it is not there in the spirit of Articles 200,201 of Indian constitution.

QUESTION: 3

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments made it possible to appoint one person to hold the office of the Governor in two or more states simultaneously?

Solution:

The 7th Amendment of Indian Constitution was needed to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission regarding the reorganization of the states on a linguistic basis.  It paved the way for doing away with the classification of states in A, B, C, and D categories and introduced of Union Territories.

Important Facts

  • The House of the People shall consist of a maximum of 500 members directly elected from territorial constituencies in the States, and a maximum of 20 members chosen from the Union Territories in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.
  • A provision making it possible to appoint the same person as Governor for two or more States has been added to article 153.
QUESTION: 4

Which one of the following is not correct with respect to the powers of the Governor regarding a Bill passed by the State Legislature?

Solution:

A bill that the state legislature has passed, can become a law only after the governor gives assent. The governor can return a bill to the state legislature, if it is not a money bill, for reconsideration. However, if the state legislature sends it back to the governor for the second time, the governor must assent to it. The governor has the power to reserve certain bills for the president.

QUESTION: 5

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

Solution:

The correct answer is B as the duties of officers are correctly matched in option B.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:

  1. for 27% reservations to the Other Backward Classes
  2. that the chairperson of the panchayat at intermediate/district level shall be elected by, and from amongst the elected members there of
  3. for reservation for SCs/STs
  4. for uniform five-year term for local bodies

Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:

The correct answer is C as statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendments are 2,3 and 4th.

QUESTION: 7

In which part of the Indian Constitution, has the provision for panchayats been made?

Solution:

The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.

QUESTION: 8

In which one of the following states, provision relating to reservation for Scheduled Castes in panchayats under 73rd Constitutional Amendment, is not applicable?

Solution:

The tribal society in Arunachal Pradesh is, casteless where social equality among men and women has prevailed over centuries and ages. Since no Scheduled Castes exist in the State and the State of Arunachal Pradesh is singularly free from the caste system, it is proposed to insert a new clause (3A) in article 243M of the Constitution of India, to exempt the State of Arunachal Pradesh from the application of article 243D relating to the reservation of seats in Panchayats for the Scheduled Castes.

QUESTION: 9

The Recall provision to remove the elected officebearers from the local self government institution has been executed in

Solution:

Certain states like Madya Pradesh have executed the provision at the level of local bodies.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements with respect to the Constitutional (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992:

  1. Three-tier municipalities
  2. Ward committes
  3. District Plannng committees
  4. Direct electins of chairperson of a municipality

Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:

According to the 74th amendment act. of 1992. It is a three-tier municipality it is also ward committee and also district planning committee. Indirect elections are done for electing chairpersons of municipalities they are majorly elected by its members, not by people.

QUESTION: 11

Directions : The following two (2) items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason ‘R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reasons is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select the your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is the culmination of the process of democratic decentrlisation.

Reason (R) : The state should take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Solution:

The correct option is Option D.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 which created a uniform three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj at the district, block/mandal and village levels, provides transfer of responsibilities and tax powers from the state government to the gram panchayats.

Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

QUESTION: 12

Directions : The following two (2) items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason ‘R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reasons is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select the your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Assertion (A) : In a line-item budget only input related matters are considered whereas in a performance budget only output related matters are given importance.

Reason (R) : Performance budgeting is linking performance levels with specific budget amounts.

Solution:

The correct option is D.
Line-item budgeting is still the most widely used approach in many organizations, including schools, because of its simplicity and its control orientation. It is referred to as the "historical" approach because administrators and chief executives often base their expenditure requests on historical expenditure and revenue data. One important aspect of line-item budgeting is that it offers flexibility in the amount of control established over the use of resources, depending on the level of expenditure detail (e.g., fund, function, object) incorporated into the document.

QUESTION: 13

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

Solution:

The correct option is D.
The concepts and acts are correctly matched.

QUESTION: 14

The Question asked orally after the Question Hour in the House is called

Solution:

Unstarred Questions- An Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary question can be asked thereom.

QUESTION: 15

Which one of the following is not the duty of the Prime Minister in India?

Solution:

C is the correct option.the Cabinet does not function as a collective legislative influence; rather, their primary role is as an official advisory council to the head of government. In this way, the President obtains opinions and advice relating to forthcoming decisions.

QUESTION: 16

Who among the following is resonsible for the final compilation of the accounts of the Union Government?

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Which one of the following was established to improve administrative efficiency of the Government departments?

Solution:

The stress and strain of the two world wars on the processes of government and administration, the increasing entry of the government into business, and the example of the comparatively greater efficiency of private business and industry, induced the governments also to import organisation-and-methods idea and units into their administrative system. Britain created an ‘organization and methods Division’ in the Treasury and also O and M units in most of the larger departments. In the U.S.A. a ‘Division of Administrative Management’ was established and many other countries followed suit.

QUESTION: 18

In prescribing the form in which the accounts of the Union and the States are to be kept, the Comptroller and Auditor-General is expected to take approval of the

Solution:

150. A form of accounts of the Union and of the States.—The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of] the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, prescribe.

Article 150 as it came out of the Constituent Assembly, provided for the C&AG giving directions to the Union and the States in regard to the form in which accounts ought to be maintained. The directions of C&AG were only subject to the President’s approval.

QUESTION: 19

The Consolidated Fund of India is made up of

Solution:

The Indian government and each Indian state government maintain their own consolidated funds. Article 266 of the Constitution of India requires revenues received by the Government of India to be paid to the Consolidated Fund of India. It also requires state revenues to be paid to a respective state consolidated fund.

QUESTION: 20

Consider the followig statements: The Prime Minister’s Office

  1. came into existence in January 1950
  2. was known as the Prime Minister ’s Secretariat till June 1977
  3. has no subordinate offices attached to it
  4. assists the President to know about the work of the Government

Which of these are correct?

Solution:

Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs:

It has no attached and subordinate office.

Department of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions:

Attached Offices:

(1) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration

(2) Staff Selection Commission

(3) Institute of Secretariat Training and Management

Subordinate Offices:

(1) Central Bureau of Investigation.

The Prime Minister's Office assists the Prime Minister in his work and coordinates inter-ministerial activities in various fields, in accordance with Government resolutions and the priorities determined by the Prime Minister.

QUESTION: 21

The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of

Solution:

During the World War Britain and her allies had said that they were fighting the war for the freedom of nations. Many Indian leaders believed that after the war was over, India would be given Swaraj. The British government, however, had no intention of conceding the demands of the Indian people. Changes were introduced in the administrative system as a result of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, called the Government of India Act, 1919.
An impartial civil service is responsible not only to the government of the day but to the Constitution of the land to which they have taken an oath of loyalty. At the same time, implementing the policies of the duly elected government is a core function of civil servants. That is why the division of responsibility between the civil servants and ministers needs to be more clearly defined.

QUESTION: 22

Which among the following is empowered to create more All-India Services?

Solution:

The Rajya Sabha is empowered to create one or more All India Services by a resolution passed by two-third majority in the House.

QUESTION: 23

Regarding the Chairman of Finance Commission which of the following is not true?

Solution:

AK Chandra is an author of the book "introductory quantum chemistry". So, KC Niyogi was the first chairman of Finance Commission of India. KC Pant was chairman of 10th finance commissions and C Rangarajan was chairman of 12th finance commission of India. Except AK Chandra, all others were chairmans of the Finance Commission of India.

QUESTION: 24

Which of the following Comptroller and Auditor General of India is wrongly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Regarding the 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution which of the following is not true?

Solution:

31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 - By this amendment, the seats of Lok Sabha was increased from 525 to 545 but reduced the representation of UT's in Lok Sabha from 25 to 20.

The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".

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