Sample Full Mock Test


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | Sample Full Mock Test


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This mock test of Sample Full Mock Test for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT Sample Full Mock Test (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Sample Full Mock Test quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this Sample Full Mock Test exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Sample Full Mock Test extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Principle: Unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of his premises is a civil wrong and forbidden by law

Facts: Ramarao neighbour was running a small printing establishment in his house. Though it was noisy at times, the neighborhood found it tolerable. One day, Ramarao’s aged father came to his house to convalesce after a major operation. He found the noise intolerable. Ramarao took up the matter with his neighbour and the latter refused to oblige him. as a result, Ramarao father died on account of the irritation. Ramarao filed a suit to close the press.

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Directions: Questions 2 to 4 on same principle

Principle: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind reputation or property, is said to "cheat".

Explanation: A dishonest concealment of fact is a deception with the meaning of this section.

Facts: A, by falsely pretending to be in Civil Service, intentionally deceives Z, and thus dishonestly induces Z to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay.

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Principle: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind reputation or property, is said to "cheat".

Explanation: A dishonest concealment of fact is a deception with the meaning of this section.

Facts: A, by pledging as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamonds, intentionally deceives Z, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to lend money

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Principle: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind reputation or property, is said to "cheat".

Explanation: A dishonest concealment of fact is a deception with the meaning of this section.

Facts: A sells and conveys an estate to B. A, knowing that in consequence of such sale he has no right to the property, sells or mortgages the same to Z, without disclosing the fact of the previous sale and conveyance to B, and receives the purchase or mortgage money from Z.

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Questions 5 to 7 on same principle

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains therewith intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to commit an offence, is said to commit "criminal trespass".

Principle: Whoever commits criminal trespass by entering into or remaining in any building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or any building, used as a place for worship, or as a place for the custody of property, is said to commit "house trespass".

Explanation: The introduction of any part of the criminal trespasser's body is entering sufficient to constitute house-trespass.

Principle: A person is said to commit "house-breaking" who commits house-trespass if he effects his entrance into the house or any part of it in any of the six ways hereinafter described; or if, being in the house or any part of it for the purpose of committing an offence, or, having committed an offence therein, he quits the house or any part of it in any of such six ways, that is to say:--

Firstly--If he enters or quits through a passage made by himself, or by any abettor of the house-trespass, in order to the committing of the house-trespass.

Secondly--If he enters or quits through any passage not intended by any person, other than himself or an abettor of the offence, for human entrance; or through any passage to which he has obtained access by scaling or climbing over any wall or building.

Thirdly--If he enters or quits through any passage which he or any abettor of the house-trespass has opened, in order to the committing of the house-trespass by any means by which that passage was not intended by the occupier of the house to be opened.                                                                

Fourthly--If he enters or quits by opening any lock in order to the committing of the house-trespass, or in order to the quitting of the house after a house-trespass.

Fifthly--If he effects his entrance or departure by using criminal force or committing an assault, or by threatening any person with assault.

Sixthly-- If he enters or quits by any passage which he knows to have been fastened against such entrance or departure, and to have been unfastened by himself or by an abettor of the house-trespass.

Facts: A commits house-trespass by making hole through the wall of Z's house, and putting his hand through the aperture.

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains therewith intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to commit an offence, is said to commit "criminal trespass".

Principle: Whoever commits criminal trespass by entering into or remaining in any building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or any building, used as a place for worship, or as a place for the custody of property, is said to commit "house trespass".

Explanation: The introduction of any part of the criminal trespasser's body is entering sufficient to constitute house-trespass.

Principle: A person is said to commit "house-breaking" who commits house-trespass if he effects his entrance into the house or any part of it in any of the six ways hereinafter described; or if, being in the house or any part of it for the purpose of committing an offence, or, having committed an offence therein, he quits the house or any part of it in any of such six ways, that is to say:--

Firstly--If he enters or quits through a passage made by himself, or by any abettor of the house-trespass, in order to the committing of the house-trespass.

Secondly--If he enters or quits through any passage not intended by any person, other than himself or an abettor of the offence, for human entrance; or through any passage to which he has obtained access by scaling or climbing over any wall or building.

Thirdly--If he enters or quits through any passage which he or any abettor of the house-trespass has opened, in order to the committing of the house-trespass by any means by which that passage was not intended by the occupier of the house to be opened.                                                                

Fourthly--If he enters or quits by opening any lock in order to the committing of the house-trespass, or in order to the quitting of the house after a house-trespass.

Fifthly--If he effects his entrance or departure by using criminal force or committing an assault, or by threatening any person with assault.

Sixthly-- If he enters or quits by any passage which he knows to have been fastened against such entrance or departure, and to have been unfastened by himself or by an abettor of the house-trespass.

Facts: Ishan commits house-trespass by entering Anuj house through a window.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains therewith intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to commit an offence, is said to commit "criminal trespass".

Principle: Whoever commits criminal trespass by entering into or remaining in any building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or any building, used as a place for worship, or as a place for the custody of property, is said to commit "house trespass".

Explanation: The introduction of any part of the criminal trespasser's body is entering sufficient to constitute house-trespass.

Principle: A person is said to commit "house-breaking" who commits house-trespass if he effects his entrance into the house or any part of it in any of the six ways hereinafter described; or if, being in the house or any part of it for the purpose of committing an offence, or, having committed an offence therein, he quits the house or any part of it in any of such six ways, that is to say:--

Firstly--If he enters or quits through a passage made by himself, or by any abettor of the house-trespass, in order to the committing of the house-trespass.

Secondly--If he enters or quits through any passage not intended by any person, other than himself or an abettor of the offence, for human entrance; or through any passage to which he has obtained access by scaling or climbing over any wall or building.

Thirdly--If he enters or quits through any passage which he or any abettor of the house-trespass has opened, in order to the committing of the house-trespass by any means by which that passage was not intended by the occupier of the house to be opened.                                                                

Fourthly--If he enters or quits by opening any lock in order to the committing of the house-trespass, or in order to the quitting of the house after a house-trespass.

Fifthly--If he effects his entrance or departure by using criminal force or committing an assault, or by threatening any person with assault.

Sixthly-- If he enters or quits by any passage which he knows to have been fastened against such entrance or departure, and to have been unfastened by himself or by an abettor of the house-trespass.

Facts: Sam commits house-trespass by entering Binny house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire though a hole in the door.

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

Directions: Questions 8 to 10 on same principle

Principle: Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a document or electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.

Facts: A has a letter of credit upon B for rupees 10,000, written by Z. A, in order to defraud B, adds a cipher to the 10,000 and makes the sum 1,00,000/- intending that it may be delivered by B that Z so wrote the letter.

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Principle: Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a document or electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.

Facts: A, without Z's authority, affixes Z's seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate from Z to A, with the intention of selling the estate to B, and thereby of obtaining from B the purchase money.

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Principle: Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a document or electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.

Facts: Z's will contains these words "I direct that all my remaining property be equally divided between A, B and C" A dishonestly scratches out B's name, intending that it may be believed that the whole was left to himself and C.

Solution: It is mentioned in the principle that if a person is made to part with his/her property by using dishonest methods then the person who made it happen,i.e, he who used those dishonest methods for his own personal gain, commits forgery. Now In facts we can see that the property was supposed to be divided between A,B and C but A scratched out B's name so that he will get more than what legally given to him whereas B will be left with nothing. (Here B lost something which was rightfully his) Therefore, A has committed forgery
QUESTION: 11

Directions: Questions 11 to 13 on same principle

Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person's consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent, or if that person is incapable of giving consent, and has no guardian or other person in lawful charge of him from whom it is possible to obtain consent in time for the thing to be done with benefit:  

PROVIDED

First-- That this exception shall not extend to the intentional causing of death, or to the attempting to cause death;

Secondly--That this exception shall not extend to the doing of anything which the person doing it knows to be likely to cause death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity;

Thirdly--That this exception shall not extend to the voluntary causing of hurt, or to the attempting to cause hurt, for any purpose other than preventing of death or hurt;

Fourthly--That this exception shall not extend to the abetment of any offence, to the committing of which offence it would not extend.

Facts: Z is carried off by a tiger. A fired at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z, but not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z's benefit. A's ball give Z a mortal wound.

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person's consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent, or if that person is incapable of giving consent, and has no guardian or other person in lawful charge of him from whom it is possible to obtain consent in time for the thing to be done with benefit:  

PROVIDED

First-- That this exception shall not extend to the intentional causing of death, or to the attempting to cause death;

Secondly--That this exception shall not extend to the doing of anything which the person doing it knows to be likely to cause death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity;

Thirdly--That this exception shall not extend to the voluntary causing of hurt, or to the attempting to cause hurt, for any purpose other than preventing of death or hurt;

Fourthly--That this exception shall not extend to the abetment of any offence, to the committing of which offence it would not extend.

Facts: A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident which is likely to prove fatal unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no time to apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation in spite of the entreaties of the child, intending of good faith, the child's benefit.

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person's consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent, or if that person is incapable of giving consent, and has no guardian or other person in lawful charge of him from whom it is possible to obtain consent in time for the thing to be done with benefit:  

PROVIDED

First-- That this exception shall not extend to the intentional causing of death, or to the attempting to cause death;

Secondly--That this exception shall not extend to the doing of anything which the person doing it knows to be likely to cause death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity;

Thirdly--That this exception shall not extend to the voluntary causing of hurt, or to the attempting to cause hurt, for any purpose other than preventing of death or hurt;

Fourthly--That this exception shall not extend to the abetment of any offence, to the committing of which offence it would not extend.

Facts: A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child, but not intending to kill the child, and intending in good faith, the child's benefit. Here, even if the child is killed by the fall.

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm should also be punished

Reason: A person who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails is in terms of moral culpability not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests

Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards wants to file a suit against Mr. X.

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Principle: Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject  

Facts: A minor mortgaged his house in favour of Thakur Das, a money lender, to secure a loan of Rs. 20000. A part of this, i.e. Rs. 10500 was actually advanced to him. While considering the proposed advance, the attorney who was acting for the money lender, received information that the plaintiff was still a minor. Subsequently the minor commenced an action stating that he was underage when he executed the mortgage and the same should, therefore, be cancelled. He prayed for setting aside the mortgage. The mortgagee money lender prayed for the refund of Rs. 10500 from the minor.

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or not capable of being made certain, are void.

Facts: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs.500 more if the horse is proved lucky.

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

All contracts are agreements

All agreements are accepted offers

Which of the following derivation is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Legal Principle 1: Acceptance of an offer is complete when the acceptance is put into the course of transmission so as to be out of the power of the acceptor

Legal Principle 2: Acceptance once completed, makes the agreement binding on both the parties

Facts: A accepts to buy B’s offer of his motor car for Rs. 4 Lakhs. The acceptance was put into e-mail. Unfortunately, when the e-mail was put, there is distortion as a result of which B is not in a position to really read what A has written

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Legal Principle: A contract is an agreement which the law will enforce. All agreements are contracts if they are made with free consent by parties competent to contract for a lawful consideration and with a lawful contract

Facts: A, a 40 yrs. old businessman of sound mind agrees of his own free will to sell his bungalow worth Rs. 10 Lakhs for Rs. 1 Lakh. The agreement

1.Is invalid because of inadequate consideration

2.Is valid because there is lawful consideration

3.Is valid because it was entered into with the free consent

4.Is valid because X has capacity to contract

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Legal principle: A contract requires a proposal and an acceptance of the proposal. It is necessary to make a binding contract, not only that the proposal be accepted, but also that the acceptance is notified to the proposer.

Facts:  D sent his servant P to trace his child. D in the meantime announced a reward for providing information about the missing boy. P, in ignorance of the announcement traced the boy and informed D. P later on came to know and he claimed it.

Issue: is the servant entitled to reward

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Principle: Agreement by way of wager is void and no suit lies for recovering anything won by such wager

Facts: Mr. X and Mrs. Y enter into a contract with R who is an expert in betting on horse racing. Both pay a sum of Rs. 2000 to R to bet on a particular horse. R followed the instructions and he won a sum of Rs. 20 lakhs

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

PRINCIPLES:

1. If A is asked to do something by B, B is responsible for the act, not A.
2. If A, while acting for B commits a wrong, A is responsible for the wrong, not B.
3. If A is authorised to do something for B, but in the name of A without disclosing B’s presence, both A and B may be held liable.

FACTS: Somu contracted with Amar whereunder Amar would buy a pumpset to be used in Somu’s farm. Such a pumpset was in short supply in the market. Gulab, a dealer, had such a pumpset and he refused to sell it to Amar. Amar threatened Gulab of serious consequences if he fails to part with the pumpset. Gulab filed a complaint against Amar.

PROPOSED DECISION:

a) Amar alone is liable for the wrong though he acted for Somu.
b) Amar is not liable for the wrong, though he is bound by the contract with Somu.
c) Somu is bound by the contract and liable for the wrong.
d) Both Somu and Amar are liable for the wrong.

SUGGESTED REASONS:

i) Amar committed the wrong while acting for the benefit of Somu.
ii) Amar cannot do while acting for Somu something which he cannot do while acting for himself.
iii) Both Amar and Somu are liable since they are bound by the contract.
iv) Somu has to be responsible for the act of Amar committed for Somu’s benefit.

Your decision with the reason:
 

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

PRINCIPLES: 1. An employer shall be liable for the wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
2. Third parties must exercise reasonable care to find out whether a person is actually acting in the course of employment.

FACTS: Nandan was appointed by Syndicate Bank to collect small savings from its customers spread over in different places on daily basis. Nagamma, a housemaid, was one of such ‘customers making use of Nandan’s service.
Syndicate Bank after a couple of years terminated Nandan’s service. Nagamma, unaware of this fact, was handing over her savings to Nandan who misappropriated them. Nagamma realised this nearly after three months, when she went to the Bank to withdraw money. She filed a complaint against the Bank.

POSSIBLE DECISION:

(a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Nagamma.
(b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate Nagamma.
(c) Nagamma has to blame herself for her negligence.

POSSIBLE REASONS:

i) Nandan was not acting in the course of employment after the termination of his service.
ii) A person cannot blame others for his own negligence.
iii) Nagamma was entitled to be informed by the Bank about Nandan.
iv) The Bank is entitled to expect its customers to know actual position.

Your decision with the reason:

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

PRINCIPLES: 1. A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment.
2. Whether an act is committed in the course of employment has to be judged in the context of the case.
3. Both master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.

FACTS: Rama Bhai was an uneducated widow and she opened an S.B. account with Syndicate Bank with the help of her nephew by name Keshav who was at that time working as a clerk in the Bank. Keshav used to deposit the money of Rama Bhai from time to time and get the entries done in the passbook. After a year or so, Keshav was dismissed from the service by the Bank. Being unaware of this fact, Rama Bhai continued to hand over her savings to him and Keshav misappropriated them. Rama Bhai realised this only when Keshav disappeared from the scene one day, and she sought compensation from the Bank.

POSSIBLE DECISIONS:

a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Rama Bhai.
b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate Rama Bhai.
C) Rama Bhai cannot blame others for her negligence.

POSSIBLE REASONS:

i) Keshav was not an employee of the Bank when the fraud was committed.
ii) The Bank was not aware of the special arrangement between Rama Bhai and Keshav
iii) It is the Bank’s duty to take care of vulnerable customers.
iv) Rama Bhai should have checked about Keshav in her own interest.

Your decision with the reason:
 

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

PRINCIPLES: 1. A person is liable for negligence, if he fails to take care of his neighbor’s interest.
2. A neighbour is anyone whose interests should have been foreseeable by a reasonable man while carrying on his activities.

FACTS: A cricket match was going on in a closed door stadium. A cricket fan who could not get into the stadium was watching the game by climbing up a nearby tree and sitting there. The cricket ball in the course of the game went out of the stadium and hit this person and injured him. He filed a suit against the organizers.

POSSIBLE DECISIONS:

(a) The organizers are liable to compensate the injured person.
(b) The organizers are not liable to compensate the injured person.
(c) The injured person should have avoided the place where he might be hit by the cricket ball.

POSSIBLE REASONS:

i) The organizers are responsible for the people inside the stadium.
ii) The organizers could not have foreseen somebody watching the game by climbing up a tree.
iii) A person crazy about something must pay the price for that.
iv) The organizers shall be liable to everybody likely to watch the game.
Your decision with the reason:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

PRINCIPLES: 1. When a person unlawfully interferes in the chattel of another person by which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort of conversion.

2. Nobody shall enrich himself at other’s expense.

FACTS: A patient suffering from stomach ailment approached a teaching hospital. He was diagnosed as suffering from appendicitis and his appendix was removed. He became alright. The hospital however found some unique cells in the appendix, and using the cell lines thereof, it developed drugs of enormous commercial value. When the erstwhile patient came to know about it, he claimed a share in the profit made by the hospital.

POSSIBLE DECISIONS:

a) The hospital need not share its profits with the patient.
b) The hospital may share its profits on ex gratis basis.
C) The hospital shall share its profits with the patient.

POSSIBLE REASONS:

i) The patient, far from being deprived of the use of his appendix, actually benefitted by its removal.
ii) The hospital instead of throwing away the appendix conducted further research on it on its own and the development of drug was the result of its own effort.
iii) The hospital could not have achieved its success without that appendix belonging to the patient.
iv) Everybody must care for and share with others.

Your decision with the reason:

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

B throws water on C with the intention of getting him wet. The action is

Solution: Assault as it did not cause any physical contact with C. If it would have touched it would have become battery as assault turns into battery when physical contact occurs.
QUESTION: 30

The term ‘Scienter’ is related to which one of the following sign boards

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Assertion (A): In the event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.

Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are, therefore, assessed on that basis.

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

In tort, the remedy is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Assertion (A): The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Governor for a period of five years.

Reason (R): The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Who can dissolve the lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal term of 5 yrs.?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

The Rajya Sabha which is the upper house of parliament has a maximum strength of

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

The parliament or state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the session for

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Which one is not the essential qualification for membership of parliament?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

According to Art. 103(1) Any question as to disqualification of member of either house of parliament is decided by

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

On reconstitution of lok Sabha, after general elections, the oath taking ceremony is presided over by the senior most member or swear-in members and hold charge till a regular speaker is elected known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Prorogation of the house means

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

On ………………..of the house, general elections take place to constitute a new house

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Nositur a sociis means

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

The power to form new states or change the boundaries of existing states rests with

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

The first Law minister of India was –

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

Setting a Supreme Court was in Calcutta is a part of

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Which of the following is not a prerogative writ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

If Raju is staying in the house of shyam by paying the money on monthly basis, what this arrangement is called?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

How many election commissioners including chief election commissioner are there in the election commission of India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Statements:

Some buildings are telephones.      

Some helicopters are telephones.

Some trees are helicopters.

Conclusions:

I. Some helicopters are buildings.               

II. Some trees are buildings.

III. Some trees are telephones                                 

IV. No tree is building.

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Statements:

All books are skies.

Some skies are waters.

All inks are waters

Conclusions:

I. Some water are books.                                        

II. Some inks are books.

III. Some skies are books.                           

IV. Some inks are skies.

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds he had in the bag in all?

Solution:
Let total number of birds = x = ?
Also suppose that,
Number of sparrows = S
Number of pigeons = P
Number of ducks = D
According to the question,
All sparrows but 6 ⇒ S = x - 6
All pigeons but 6 ⇒ P = x - 6
All ducks but 6 ⇒ D = x - 6
Now, 
Total No. of birds = S + P + D
x = S + P + D
x = (x - 6) + (x - 6) + (x - 6)
x = x - 6 + x - 6 + x - 6
x = 3x - 18
3x - x = 18
2x = 18
x = 9
which shows that the total number of birds are 9

QUESTION: 54

At what time between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock, will the hands of a clock be together?

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

At what time between 6 o’clock and 7 o’clock, will the both hands of a clock be at right angle?

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Directions: In the following questions a statement is followed by two courses of action.

Statement: Film actors use their popularity and become even chief ministers. They don’t know anything about politics and administration. They know only to misuse the resources.

Courses of action:

I. Film actors should not be allowed to fight elections.

II. People should not vote for a non-political person.

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

In question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I & II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

Statement: “Put a notice on the Board that all the employees should come on time to office.” – An officer tells his assistant.

Assumptions:

I. All the employees come late.

II. Employees read such notice on the Board.

III. Employees will follow the instructions.

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

If III stands for 2, IIII for 3 and II for 1, solve the following.    

IIII – II + III + IIIII =?    

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

0, 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, ?             

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

93 : 45 :: 83: ?           

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution: 226,290 and170 are not divided by 3But 360is divided by 3.
QUESTION: 62

A man is facing towards west and turns through 45° clockwise, again 180° clockwise and then turns through 270° anti clockwise. In which direction is he facing now?

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Directions: In the following question a statement is followed by two courses of action.

Statement: There is heavy traffic between 6 PM and 8 PM only two kilometre’s drive takes half an hour.

Courses of action:

I. Roads should be broadened.

II. Traffic should be diverted to different routes.

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Directions: In the following questions a statement is followed by two courses of action.

Statement: Relatives of ministers are taking advantage of their influence and harass the poor and helpless.

Courses of action:

I. People should vote for a person who has no relatives.

II. Ministership should be given to a person who has no relative.

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I & II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

Statement: “Buy ‘LG’ TV for better sound quality.” – An advertisement

Assumptions:

I. “LG’ TV is the only TV in the market.

II. ‘LG’ TV is the costliest.

III. People generally ignore such advertisements.

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I & II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

Statement: “Look at his audacity. Mohan has not replied to my letter.” – A tells B.

Assumptions:

I. Mohan received his letter.

II. Mohan did not receive his letter.

III. The letter was sent only  by post.

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

If C E J Q is coded as X V Q J, then B D I P will be coded as: 

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

If A = E, B = F, C = G and H = L, how will you code ‘GO AHEAD’?    

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

3, 1, 7, 3, 13, 7, 21, 15, 31, 31, ?, 63, 57            

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

3,1,2,2 : 9,1,4,4 :: 0,2,3,3 : ?           

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

41 : 1849 :: 59 : ?           

Solution: 41:1849::59:3721
The correct answer is d) bcoz,
41 is the prime no. and the next prime no. is 43.
Hence, square of 43 is 1849.
Similarly, 61 is the next prime no.after 59.
So,the square of 61 is 3721.
QUESTION: 73

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?      

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

A man is facing south. He turns 135° in the anti clockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

A man is facing north-west. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the anti clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

A is sister of B. C is brother of D. If D is a sister of A, how is B related to D?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

M is sister of D. D is brother of K.F is mother of M. How is K related to F?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Directiond: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Four ladies A, B, C, D and four gentlemen E, F, G, H are sitting in a circle round a table facing each other.D

  1. No two ladies or two gentlemen are sitting side by side. 
  2. C, who is sitting between G and E, is facing D.
  3. F is between D and A and is facing G.
  4. H is to the right of B.

Question: ​Who is sitting to the left of A?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Four ladies A, B, C, D and four gentlemen E, F, G, H are sitting in a circle round a table facing each other.D

  1. No two ladies or two gentlemen are sitting side by side. 
  2. C, who is sitting between G and E, is facing D.
  3. F is between D and A and is facing G.
  4. H is to the right of B.

​Question: E is facing whom?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Four ladies A, B, C, D and four gentlemen E, F, G, H are sitting in a circle round a table facing each other.D

  1. No two ladies or two gentlemen are sitting side by side. 
  2. C, who is sitting between G and E, is facing D.
  3. F is between D and A and is facing G.
  4. H is to the right of B.

​Question: Who are immediate neighbours of B?

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Nitin ranks eighteenth in a class of 49 students. What is his rank from the last?

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Manoj and Sachin are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in  a class of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Directions: Read the given information and answer the questions based on it.

There are 6 male players who play 6 different sports – Cricket, Football, Hockey, Tennis, Badminton and Athletics. They are married to 2 Engineers, Doctor, CA, Professor and Housewife, not necessarily in the same order. The couples stay in 6 different cities – Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Kolkata, Delhi, Ernakulam and Indore. Following information is given:

(i)  The football player is married to an Engineer, but does not belong to either Kolkata or      Delhi.

(ii)    The Doctor and Athelete do no stay in Indore and Ernakulam respectively.

(iii)    The Hockey player is not married to either Doctor or CA, but his wife is not a housewife.

(iv)    One of the Engineers stays in Delhi.

(v)     One Hockey Player, the Tennis Player and the Cricketer stay in Kolkata, Indore and Bangalore respectively.

(vi)    The lady, who stays in Ernakulam, is a housewife.

Question: Who is married to the Hockey Player?

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Directions: Read the given information and answer the questions based on it.

There are 6 male players who play 6 different sports – Cricket, Football, Hockey, Tennis, Badminton and Athletics. They are married to 2 Engineers, Doctor, CA, Professor and Housewife, not necessarily in the same order. The couples stay in 6 different cities – Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Kolkata, Delhi, Ernakulam and Indore. Following information is given:

(i)  The football player is married to an Engineer, but does not belong to either Kolkata or      Delhi.

(ii)    The Doctor and Athelete do no stay in Indore and Ernakulam respectively.

(iii)    The Hockey player is not married to either Doctor or CA, but his wife is not a housewife.

(iv)    One of the Engineers stays in Delhi.

(v)     One Hockey Player, the Tennis Player and the Cricketer stay in Kolkata, Indore and Bangalore respectively.

(vi)    The lady, who stays in Ernakulam, is a housewife.

Question: In which city does the Doctor stay?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Directions: Read the given information and answer the questions based on it.

There are 6 male players who play 6 different sports – Cricket, Football, Hockey, Tennis, Badminton and Athletics. They are married to 2 Engineers, Doctor, CA, Professor and Housewife, not necessarily in the same order. The couples stay in 6 different cities – Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Kolkata, Delhi, Ernakulam and Indore. Following information is given:

(i)  The football player is married to an Engineer, but does not belong to either Kolkata or      Delhi.

(ii)  The Doctor and Athelete do no stay in Indore and Ernakulam respectively.

(iii) The Hockey player is not married to either Doctor or CA, but his wife is not a housewife.

(iv) One of the Engineers stays in Delhi.

(v) One Hockey Player, the Tennis Player and the Cricketer stay in Kolkata, Indore and Bangalore respectively.

(vi) The lady, who stays in Ernakulam, is a housewife.

Questions: Who is married to the Athlete?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

How to calculate number of odd days for 50 years and also for 75 years?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is not a leap year?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?

Solution:
The answer is 9 because 
total no. of sheep = 17
all but nine died means leaving 9 all other were dead
so the answer is 9
QUESTION: 90

B is brother of D. D is sister of E. E is brother of F. How is F related to B?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Things were going wrong for them but fortunately, it all worked __________ well in the end.

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

The police were acting ___________ a tip from an informer and caught the gang red-handed.

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

The ideas which originated ___________ the nineteenth century seem old-fashioned now.

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

The scandal blew ___________ within a fortnight when the press found someone else to attack.

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

She walked ___________ the troubled marriage to build a new life for herself.

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

They stared ___________  us after they got the report on our poor performance.

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

The prawns she ate for lunch made her ___________  and she had to go home early.

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

The house, which was ready-to-move __________, would be occupied any moment.

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Although her feelings were hurt, she ___________ as if nothing had happened.

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

The trouble had been brewing ___________ her mind since young age but she never took it seriously.

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

DIRECTIONS (11- 15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

Que: Which sector is more sluggish as compared to others in our country?

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

DIRECTIONS (11- 15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

Que: How is the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 counterproductive for farmers?

1. It discourages investments in cold storages and warehouses.

2. Free movement of goods in the entire country is regulated.

3. This encourages hoarding of non-essential commodities.

Select your answer using the following codes.

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

DIRECTIONS (11- 15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

Que: Which of the following is a cause of low production in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

DIRECTIONS (11- 15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

Que: Which of the following is a matter of annoyance for farmers in northern India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

DIRECTIONS (11- 15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

Que: According to the passage, which one is an important factor behind inflation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

Pick the correct spellings out of the choices given in each case.

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

Solution: Correct formation of the sentence is ' We discussed the problem so thoroughly on the eve of the examination that I found it very easy to work it out.
QUESTION: 119

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

DIRECTIONS (38-40): Beneath each sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. If you think the original is the best, choose A as your answer; otherwise choose some other response. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English.

Many small banks find that the cost associated with upgrading data-processing equipment and technical staff are prohibitive.

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

DIRECTIONS (38-40): Beneath each sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. If you think the original is the best, choose A as your answer; otherwise choose some other response. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English.

A recent agreement between Canada and the United States reduced the amount of

phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump into the Great Lake. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

DIRECTIONS (38-40): Beneath each sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. If you think the original is the best, choose A as your answer; otherwise choose some other response. In choosing your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English.

A common disability among test pilots is hearing impairment, which is a consequence of sitting too close to large jet engines for long periods of time.

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

3x – 5y = 16; x – 3y = 8. Find x and y.

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

The G.C.D. of 1.08, 0.36 and 0.9 is

Solution: Given numbers are 1.08 , 0.36 and 0.90
 H.C.F of 108, 36 and 90 is 18                  
[∵ G.C.D(Greatest Common Divisor) is nothing but H.C.F]
 Therefore, H.C.F of given numbers = 0.18
QUESTION: 133

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

The average weight of a class of 20 students is 45 kgs. A new student whose weight is 40 kgs replaces an old student of this class. Hence, the average weight of the whole class decreases by 1kg. The weight of the replaced student is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

A shopkeeper mixed 30 kgs of tea costing Rs. 8 per kg and 10 kg of tea costing Rs. 16 per kg. What is the average price of the mixture per kg?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

The sum of ages of a mother and a daughter is 50 years. Also, 5 years ago, the mother’s age was 7 times the age of the daughter. The present age of the mother and the daughter respectively are

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, then A : B : C is :

Solution:
As, A : B = 2 : 3
B : C = 4 : 5 = (4 x 3/4 : 5 x 3/4)
                   = 3 : 15/4

So, A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 15/4
              = 8 : 12 : 15

QUESTION: 138

Three partners A, B, C invites Rs. 26000, Rs. 34000 and R. 10000 respectively in a business. Out of a profit of Rs. 3500, B’s share is

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Rakesh credits 15% of his salary in his fixed deposit account and spends 30% of the remaining amount on groceries. If the cash in hand is Rs. 2380, what is his salary?

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

By selling an article for Rs. 100, one gains Rs. 10. Find out the gain percent.

Solution:

S.P. = Rs.100, Gain=Rs.10
C.P. =S.P – Gain = Rs.90 

QUESTION: 141

A man borrows Rs. 4000 and pays back after 5 years at 15% simple interest. The amount paid by the man is: 

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

A speed of 36 km/hr is the same as:

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

A train moves with the speed of 180 km/hr then its usual speed in metres per second is

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

A man can row with the stream at 11 km/hr and against the stream at 8 km/hr. The speed of the stream is

Solution: Speed of stream = (11 - 8)/2 km/hr = 1.5 km/hr
QUESTION: 145

A can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B can do it in 40 days. In how many days can A and B working together do it?

Solution:

QUESTION: 146

If 22.5 metres of a uniform iron rod weighs 85.5 kg, what will be the weight of 6 metres of the same rod?

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

A cistern can be filled by a tap in 4 hours while it can be emptied by another tap in 9 hours. If both the taps are opened simultaneously then after how much time will the cistern get filled?

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

If the letters of the word EQUATION be arranged at random, what is the probability that there are exactly six letters between N & E?           

Solution:

The probability of the word equation is 1/8 and if we take away the letters N and E then it becomes 1/6 why because now only 6 letters are available

QUESTION: 150

If the letters of the word EQUATION be arranged at random, what is the probability that all vowels are together:           

Solution:
Consider the 5 unique vowels together as a single “block,” and the other 3 consonants as separate blocks. The number of ways to arrange the 4 blocks is 4! = 24.

Within that block of 5 unique vowels, they can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways.
So the number of arrangements is 4!5! = 2880.

You asked for a probability. Since there are 8 unique letters in “equation”, the number of permutations is 8! = 40320.
So the probability is 4!5!8!=1/14.

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