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Test: Geography- 5 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test - Test: Geography- 5

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Test: Geography- 5 - Question 1

With reference to the interior structure of the earth, consider the following statements:
1. Molten iron in the core is responsible for Earth's magnetic field.
2. Earth's magnetic field is gradually becoming weaker with time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 1
  • The internal structure of Earth is divided into concentric shells: an outer silicate solid crust, a highly viscous asthenosphere and solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. 
  • The Earth's core is gradually cooling down over time, and eventually, it will solidify completely. Since the Earth's magnetic field (which protects the atmosphere and biosphere from harmful radiation) is generated by molten iron in the core, the solidification of the core will gradually diminish the Earth Magnetic field. Hence, both statements are correct. 
  • In the last 200 years, the electromagnetic field around Earth has lost around nine percent of its strength. Between 1970 and 2020, the magnetic field of Earth has weakened considerably in the region stretching from Africa to South America, which is known as the 'South Atlantic Anomaly'. 
  • When the Earth formed, it would have been entirely molten due to the release of gravitational energy; at this time, the Earth became chemically differentiated, meaning that heavy elements (notably iron) mostly sank to the center to form the core while relatively light elements remained in the mantle and crust. 
  • The most important radioactive species on Earth -- uranium-235 and -238, thorium-232, and potassium-40 -- are lithophilic or 'rock-loving.' Lithophilic elements readily form chemical bonds with oxygen, which helps them to remain in the crust and mantle while others sink to the core. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:
1. India ranks fourth in the world in terms of wind energy installed capacity.
2. The state of Tamil Nadu leads in the production of wind energy in India.
3. Under Paris Agreement, India has pledged a target of 100 GW of wind energy generation by 2022.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 2
  • Wind energy is basically harnessing of wind power to produce electricity. The kinetic energy of the wind is converted to electrical energy. Wind power in the form of traditional windmills is used -for grinding corn, pumping water, sailing ships and harnessed to generate electricity in a larger scale with better technology. 
  • India has the second-highest wind capacity in Asia and fourth highest in the world and is the only Asian country apart from China to make the list, with a total capacity of 37GW. 
  • The country has the third and fourth largest onshore wind farms in the world, the Muppandal wind farm in Tamil Nadu, Southern India (1,500MW) and the Jaisalmer Wind Park in Rajasthan, Northern India (1,064MW). 
  • Tamil Nadu with 9231.77 MW of installed wind capacity is well ahead of the rest and second positioned Gujarat which has 7203.77 MW of wind generation capacity. 
  • The Indian government has set a target of installing 60GW of wind energy by 2022, as pledged in its Intended nationally determined contributions (INDC). Hence the correct answer is option (a).
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Test: Geography- 5 - Question 3

Consider the following statements related to the locust infestation:
1. They originate in Rajasthan as Deserts provide the perfect bare ground for laying eggs.
2. The rainfall in these regions will produce enough green vegetation to enable both egg-laying and hopper development.
3. In India Ministry of Earth Sciences is responsible for monitoring, survey, and control of Desert Locust.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 3
  • Indian Agriculture is highly prone to Desert Locust. The Desert Locust is a trans-boundary pest that can cause irreparable damages. 
  • Locust Control and Research is a sub-component under the Sub Mission on Plant Protection and Plant Quarantine (SMPPQ), a scheme under Green Revolution (Krishonnati Yojana) through which regulatory, monitoring, surveillance, and capacity building functions are performed. 
  • In order to keep the menace of locust at bay Locust Warning Organization (LWO) has been established. 
  • Locust Warning Organisation (LWO), Directorate of Plant Protection Quarantine and Storage, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare is responsible for monitoring, survey and control of Desert Locust in Scheduled Desert Areas mainly in the States of Rajasthan and Gujarat. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 4

Which of the following are marine protected areas in India?
1. Wildlife Sanctuary Pitti
2. Wildlife Sanctuary Coringa
3. Wildlife Sanctuary Gahirmatha

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 4
  • A marine protected area (MPA) is essentially a space in the seas, oceans, estuaries where human activities are more strictly regulated than the surrounding waters - similar to parks we have on land. These places are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state, territorial, native, regional, or national authorities. 
  • Pakshipitti (pakshi meaning "bird" in Malayalam, Telugu and Tamil), is an uninhabited coral islet in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, India. Pitti Bird Sanctuary is a small reef that is approximately 24 north-west of Kavaratti, is one of the major tourist attractions of Lakshadweep and there’s a lot of concern related to this island and the government has taken a lot of initiatives for the very same. 
  • Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and estuary situated near Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the second-largest stretch of mangrove forests in India with 24 mangrove tree species and more than 120 bird species. It is home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture and the long-billed vulture. In a mangrove ecosystem, the water bodies of the ocean/sea and the river meet together at a certain point. 
  • Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is a marine wildlife sanctuary located in Odisha and is a very popular tourist attraction of Odisha in India. It is the world's largest nesting beach for Olive Ridley Turtles. It extends from Dhamra River mouth in the north to Brahmani river mouth in the south. It is very famous for its nesting beach for olive ridley sea turtles. It is one of the world's most important nesting beaches for turtles. Hence the correct option is (a)
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 5

Which of the following forces can disturb the equilibrium?
1. Mountain building
2. Glaciation
3. Volcanism
4. Sedimentation

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 5
  • The dynamic balance between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere is known as isostasy. This term implies that the Earth’sgravity causes segments of the lithosphere to shift upward or downward according to their densities. It is invoked to explain how different topographic heights can exist on the Earth's surface. 
  • This essentially implies that wherever equilibrium exists on the Earth’s surface, the mass above the surface will be balanced by an equal mass below it in the same are and the lighter crust floats on the denser underlying mantle. 
  • There are two theories regarding the isostasy i.e. Pratt's theory and Airy's theory. 
  • At times, this balance gets disturbed due to violent earth movements happening inside the Earth and tectonic disturbances which leads to natural disasters like Earthquake, volcanic eruption, and tsunami etc. 
  • The waxing and waning of ice sheets, erosion, mountain building, sedimentation are some other processes that perturb isostasy. 
  • When large amounts of sediment are deposited in a particular region, the immense weight of the new sediment may cause the crust below to sink. Similarly, when large amounts of material are eroded away from a region, the land may rise to compensate. If a layer of ice is somehow sliced off the top of the iceberg, the remaining iceberg will rise. 
  • The sediments that have collected are squeezed in the downfolds and fused into magma. The magma rises to the surface through volcanic activity or intrusions of masses of magma as batholiths (massive rock bodies). When the convection currents die out, the crust uplifts, and these thickened deposits rise and become subject to erosion again.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 6

With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:
1. It is the world’s first permanent international criminal court.
2. It is a non-UN organization.
3. Its judgments can be appealed against.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 6
  • The USA has recently announced sanctions against two officials of the International Criminal Court (ICC). 
  • The International Criminal Court is governed by an international treaty called 'The Rome Statute'. It is the world's first permanent international criminal court. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • ICC headquarters at the Hague, the Netherlands. It investigates and where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community like genocide, war crimes,crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. 
  • United Nations Security Council (UNSC) can also refer cases to ICC pursuant to a resolution adopted under chapter VII of the UN charter. ICC is not a UN organization but it has a cooperation agreement with the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute. Many major countries, between them constituting the majority of the world’s population, did not sign the Rome Statutes, including the United States, Russia, China, India, Indonesia, and many Islamic countries, including Pakistan .111 states have currently ratified the 1998 Rome Statutes, which entered into force on July 1, 2002 after ratification by 60 countries. 
  • ICC judgements are binding, final and cannot be appealed. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 7

With reference to the occurrence of minerals across India, consider the following pairs: Mineral Mine
1. Copper : Khetri
2. Aluminum : Balaghat
3. Iron Ore : Gurumahisani
4. Manganese : Panchpatmali Hills

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 7
  • Manganese: Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys. Balaghat Mine is one of the largest mine producing one of the best quality of manganese ore in the country. It is also the deepest underground manganese mine in Asia. About 80% of the manganese production in India comes from Balaghat District. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched. 
  • Aluminum: Bauxite is the ore that is used in the manufacturing of aluminum. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. 
    1. The state of Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite ore in India. More than 95% of the bauxite resources of the state come under East Coast Bauxite. Most of the aluminum production comes from the Panchpatmali hills mine operated by NALCO. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
    2. The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits. Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers. 
  • Iron: India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage. 
  • About 95 percent of total reserves of iron ore is located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu(Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh). Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 
  • Copper: Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers and generators. It is alloy able, malleable and ductile. It is also mixed with gold to provide strength to jewelry. The major copper mines are the Khetri copper belt in Rajasthan, Singhbhum copper belt in Jharkhand and Malanjkhand copper belt in Madhya Pradesh. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 8

These are immature soils which overlie the Vindhyan sandstones and Ladakh shales. Their color ranges from light yellow to deep brown with a thickness of 7 to 15 cm. These soils contain 35 per cent or more, by volume, of rock fragments, cobbles, gravel, and laterite concretions or ironstones within shallow depths.

Which of the following soils is best described by the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 8
  • Skeletal soils refer to soils that contain 35 percent or more (by volume) of rock fragments, cobbles, gravel, and laterite concretions or ironstones having diameters greater than 2 mm, within shallow depths (less than 50 cm). Theses soils occur in a number of landscapes ranging from alluvial terraces, fans, erosional surfaces, peneplains, hill slopes, and mountainous areas. 
  • Skeletal soils containing laterite at some period of time on erosional surfaces or as remnants of a peneplain surface. Soils with cobblestones often develop on alluvial terraces. On the other hand, soils shallow to bed rock or soils containing rock fragments are common on areas where the parent rocks are subject to continuous erosion or weathering. They occupy mostly foothill slopes, mountains, and partial peneplains or erosional surfaces. 
  • Due to a much different mode of soil formation, the skeletal soils are relatively variable in physical and chemical properties. However, these soils are usually shallow, prone to erosion, and low in natural fertility status.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 9

With reference to India's biodiversity, Eriocaulon parvicephalum, Eriocaulon karaavalense, Ardisia ramaswami recently seen in the news are species of

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 9
  • Scientists from Agharkar Research Institute, Pune discover two new species of pipeworts from the Western Ghats of Maharashtra & Karnataka. The one reported from Sindhudurg district of Maharashtra was named as Eriocaulon parvicephalum (due to its minute inflorescence size), and the other reported from Kumta, Karnataka was named as Eriocaulon karaavalense (named after Karaavali = Coastal Karnataka region). 
  • The plant group known as pipeworts (Eriocaulon), whichcompletes their life cycle within a small period during monsoon, exhibits great diversity in the Western Ghats, having around 111 species in India. 
  • Most of these are reported from the Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas, and around 70% of them are endemic to the country. One species, Eriocaulon cinereum, is well known for its anti-cancerous, analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and astringent properties. E. quinquangulare is used against liver diseases. E. madayiparense is an anti-bacterial from Kerala. The medicinal properties of the newly discovered species are yet to be explored. 
  • In a separate study scientists at the Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute (JNTBGRI) at Palode here encountered the new species in the Akkamalai forest within the Anamalai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu recently. They have named it Ardisia ramaswamii after M.S. Ramaswami. Ardisia ramaswamii (family Primulaceae) is a small tree which grows to a height of about six meters.
  • Since many related species of Ardisia possess medicinal properties, the discovery is significant from a health-care perspective. For instance, Ardisia elliptica, known locally as ‘kili njaval’ or ‘sugar njaval,’ is good for making wine and valued for treating diabetes. Another cousin, Ardisia solanacea, (manimundak kizhangu), is used in traditional healing systems. Hence the correct answer is option (c)
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 10

In the context of environmental protection, the Waigani Convention deals with 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 10
  • The Hazardous Substances Management Division (HSMD) is the nodal point within the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for management of chemical emergencies and hazardous substances. 
  • The main objective of the programme is to promote safe management and use of hazardous substances including hazardous chemicals and hazardous wastes, in order to avoid damage to health and the environment. The Division is also the nodal point for the following International Conventions/Agreements viz., 
    1. Basel Convention on Control of Trans-boundary Movement of Hazardous Waste and their Disposal; 
    2. Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent Procedure for certain Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade;
    3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants; 
    4. Strategic Approach to International Chemicals Management; and 
    5. Minamata Convention on Mercury. 
  • The Waigani Convention (Convention to Ban the Importation into Forum Island Countries of Hazardous and Radioactive Wastes and to Control the Transboundary Movement and Management of Hazardous Wastes within the South Pacific Region) - The main effect of this Convention is to ban the import of all hazardous and radioactive wastes into South Pacific Forum Island Countries.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 11

Confederation of Indian Industry's Green Building Congress 2020 was recently inaugurated. In this context, consider the following statements regarding green buildings rating systems in India:
1. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is the only rating tool for green buildings in India.
2. The Indian Green Building Council develops new green building rating programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 11
  • Confederation of Indian Industry's Green Building Congress 2020 was recently inaugurated. 
  • A green building is a building that, in its design, construction and operation, reduces or eliminates negative impacts, and can create positive impacts, on our climate and natural environment. 
  • Some features which can make a building 'green ' include: 
    1. Efficient use of energy, water, and other resources 
    2. Use of renewable energy, such as solar energy 
    3. Pollution and waste reduction measures, and the enabling of re-use and recycling 
    4. Use of materials that are non-toxic and sustainable 
  • India has over 7.61 Billon Sq. Ft of green building footprint and amongst the top five countries in the world. 
  • In India, there are predominantly three rating systems – Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED), the rating systems from Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) and the Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA). In addition, there is also the Energy Consumption Building Code (ECBC) and the National Building Code (NBC), which provide guidelines on energy consumption. All buildings in India need to comply with these prescribed guidelines. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • GRIHA is a five-star rating system for green buildings which emphasizes on passive solar techniques for optimizing indoor visual and thermal comfort. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) has developed GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment), which was adopted as the national rating system for green buildings by the Government of India. 
    1. Endorsed by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India as of November 1, 2007, GRIHA has been developed to rate commercial, institutional and residential buildings in India emphasizing national environmental concerns, regional climatic conditions, and indigenous solutions. 
    2. The rating applies to new building stock – commercial, institutional, and residential – of varied functions. In order to address energy efficiency, GRIHA encourages optimization of building design to reduce conventional energy demand and further optimize the energy performance of the building within specified comfort limits. A building is assessed on its predicted performance over its entire life cycle from inception through operation.
    3. GRIHA is a 100-point system consisting of some core points, which are mandatory, while the rest are optional. 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 12

Arrange the following commodities in increasing order of their share in India's export basket:
1. Petroleum Products
2. Precious and Semi-precious stones
3. Iron and Steel
4. Drug formulations

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 12

The correct order of the commodities in increasing order of their share in India's export basket is Iron and Steel - Drug Formulations - Precious and Semi-Precious stones - Petroleum products.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Test: Geography- 5 - Question 13

Arrange the following rock system in the correct chronological order.
1. Gondwana
2. Dharwar
3. Cuddapah
4. Dravidian

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 13
  1. Based on the Geological History of India, Rock System in India have been categorized as follows: 
  2. The Archaean Rock System 
    • Archean System: These rocks are the oldest rocks formed about 4 billion years ago. They are formed due to the solidification of molten magma. They are crystalline because they are volcanic in origin. 
    • Dharwar System: They are highly metamorphosed sedimentary rock-system formed between 4 – 1 billion years ago. They are abundant in the Dharwar district of Karnataka. They possess valuable minerals like high-grade iron-ore, manganese, copper, lead, gold, etc. 
  3. Purana Rock System (1400 – 600 Million Years) 
    • Cuddapah System: These are unfossiliferous clay, slates, sandstones and limestones that were deposited in the depression between fold mountains. They are abundant in Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh. These rocks contain ores of iron, manganese, copper, cobalt, nickel, etc. 
    • Vindhyan System: Deriving its name from the great Vindhyan mountains, it comprises of mostly unfossiliferous ancient sedimentary rocks. It has diamond-bearing regions from which Panna and Golconda diamonds have been mined.
  4.  Dravidian Rock System (600 – 300 million years ago) 
    • These are fossil abundant rock system found in the Extra Peninsular region (Himalayas and Ganga plain) and are very rare in Peninsular India. 
    • It comprises of rocks of Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian and Carboniferous periods, however, Carboniferous rocks (350 million years) are most significant which comprise mainly of limestone, shale and quartzite. 
    • Mount Everest is composed of Upper Carboniferous limestones. Coal formation started in the Carboniferous age. 
  5. Aryan Rock System (Upper Carboniferous to the Recent) 
    • Gondwana System: These are deposits laid down in synclinal troughs on ancient plateau surface and derive its name from Gonds, the most primitive people of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Gondwana rocks contain nearly 98 percent of India’s coal reserves. They have rich deposits of iron ore, copper, uranium and antimony also. 
    • Deccan Trap: They are formed by volcanic outburst over a vast area of Peninsular India. These volcanic deposits have flat top and steep sides and therefore called ‘trap’ meaning a ‘stair’ or ‘step’ in Swedish. They have been weathered and eroded for millions of years to almost half of its original size and has given birth to black cotton soil known as ‘regur’. It mainly occurs in parts of Kuchchh, Saurashtra, Maharashtra, the Malwa plateau and northern Karnataka. 
  6. Tertiary System 
    • It is about 60 to 7 million years ago. 
    • It is the most significant period in India’s geological history because the Himalayas were born and India’s present form came into being in this period. 
  7. Hence option (b), 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 is the correct chronological order. 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 14

ADMM-Plus sometimes seen in the news is a platform to strengthen security and defense cooperation for peace, stability, and development of? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 14
  • ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting -Plus (ADMM-PLUS) meeting recently being hosted by Vietnam. 
  • In the 2nd ADMM held in Singapore in 2007 adopted a resolution to establish the ADMM-PLUS. 
  • The ADMM-PLUS is a platform for ASEAN and its eight dialogue partners to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region. 
  • Eight Dialogue Partners are Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia, and the USA (collectively referred to as the "Plus Countries").
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding India's national inland waterways:
1. The National Waterway 4 connecting Kakinada to Puducherry is the shortest Inland water of India.
2. The National Waterway 5 connects Lakhipur and Bhanga of the Barak River in North-East India.
3. National Waterway 3 is the only waterway of India that serves five states.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 15

Test: Geography- 5 - Question 16

Which of the following rivers in India pass through the cities where the Kumbh Mela is observed?
1. Ganga
2. Godavari
3. Kaveri
4. Shipra

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 16
  • Kumbh Mela, also called Kumbha Mela, in Hinduism, religious festival that is celebrated four times over the course of 12 years, the site of the observance rotating between four pilgrimage places on four sacred rivers—at Haridwar on the Ganges River, at Ujjain on the Shipra, at Nashik on the Godavari, and at Prayag (modern Prayagraj) at the confluence of the Ganges, the Jamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati. 
  • Each site’s celebration is based on a distinct set of astrological positions of the Sun, the Moon, and Jupiter, the holiest time occurring at the exact moment when these positions are fully occupied. The Kumbh Mela at Prayag, in particular, attracts millions of pilgrims. In addition, a Great Kumbh Mela festival is held every 144 years at Prayag; the 2001 festival attracted some 60 million people
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 17

With reference to the common occurrence of various drainage patterns across different regions, consider the following pairs: Drainage Pattern Region
1. Rectangular Drainage : Chotanagpur Plateau
2. Radial Pattern : Amarkantak Mountain
3. Dendritic Drainage : Indo-Gangetic Plains
4. Trellis Drainage : Vindhyan Mountains

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 17
  • The streams within a drainage basin form certain patterns, depending on the slope of land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area. 
  • These are described as follows: 
    • Dendritic Drainage: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic. A pattern of drainage which is branching, ramifying or dichotomizing, thereby giving the appearance of a tree. Most of the rivers of the Indo-Gangetic Plains are of dendritic type. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
    • Trellis Drainage: A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern. A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. In a trellis pattern, the river forms a net-like system and the tributaries flow roughly parallel to each other. The old folded mountains of the Chotanagpur Plateau have drainage of trellis pattern. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched. 
    • Rectangular Drainage: It is marked by right-angled bends and right-angled junctions between tributaries and the main stream. It differs from the trellis pattern in so far as it is more irregular and its tributary streams are neither as long, nor parallel as in trellis drainage. A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly jointed rocky terrain. A typical example of this drainage pattern is found in the Vindhyan Mountains of India. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
    • Radial Pattern: The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome-like structure. A good example of a radial drainage pattern is provided by the rivers originating from the Amarkantak Mountain. Rivers like Narmada, Son and Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak Hills flow in different directions. This pattern is also found in the Girnar Hills (Kathiwar, Gujarat), and Mikir Hills of Assam. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 18

With reference to the 'TEEB India Initiative', consider the following statements:
1. It highlights the economic consequences of the loss of biological diversity.
2. It has been developed by India and France as a part of their Paris Climate Change commitments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 18
  • The Government has launched The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity TEEB-India Initiative (TII) to highlight the economic consequences of the loss of biological diversity and the associated decline in ecosystem services. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • The Initiative focussed on three ecosystems, namely forests, inland wetlands and coastal and marine ecosystems. 
  • TII has been implemented under the Indo-German Biodiversity Programme as technical cooperation with GIZ. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  • The outcome of the pilot projects will be fed into the sectoral synthesis for the three ecosystems. It was released at the Brazil-India-Germany TEEB Dialogue, being hosted by India in September 2015. The overall study report was released at the 21st session of the UNFCCC CoP held in November-December, 2015 in Paris. 
  • Pavan Sukhdev, environmental economist, and Gretchen C Daily, conservation biologist, shared 2020 ‘Nobel Prize for the Environment’. Pavan Sukhdev, an international banker by training, was the lead expert on the first report of The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) published in 2008 as an initiative the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 19

Which of the following factors can affect the rotational speed of Earth?
1. Tides
2. Mean sea level
3. Wind patterns

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 19
  • Earth's rotation is the rotation of planet Earth around its own axis. Earth rotates eastward, in prograde motion. As viewed from the north pole star Polaris, Earth turns counterclockwise.
  • The Earth formed out of a nebula that collapsed. As the nebula collapsed it began rotating. The Earth's rotation comes from the initial tendency to rotate that was imparted on it when it formed, only the relatively weak tidal forces from the Moon act to slow it down. 
  • Melting land ice, like mountain glaciers and the Greenland and Antarctic ice sheets, will change the Earth’s rotation only if the meltwater flows into the oceans. If the meltwater remains close to its source (by being trapped in a glacier lake, for example), then there is no net movement of mass away from the glacier or ice sheet, and the Earth’s rotation won’t change. But if the meltwater flows into the oceans and is dispersed, then there is a net movement of mass and the Earth’s rotation will change. For example, if the Greenland ice sheet were to completely melt and the meltwater were to completely flow into the oceans, then global sea level would rise by about seven meters (23 feet) and the Earth would rotate more slowly, with the length of the day becoming longer than it is today, by about two milliseconds. Hence option 2 is correct. 
  • Because of Earth’s dynamic climate, winds and atmospheric pressure systems experience constant change. These fluctuations may affect how our planet rotates on its axis. Changes in the atmosphere, specifically atmospheric pressure around the world, and the motions of the winds that may be related to such climate signals as El Niño are strong enough that their effect is observed in the Earth’s rotation signal. 
  • From year to year, winds and air pressure patterns change, causing different forces to act on the solid Earth. During El Niño years, for example, the rotation of the Earth may slow because of stronger winds, increasing the length of a day by a fraction of a millisecond (thousandth of a second). Hence option 3 is correct. 
  • Earth's rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past. This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth's rotation. As Earth rotates, the Moon's gravity causes the oceans to seem to rise and fall. (The Sun also does this, but not as much.) There is a little bit of friction between the tides and the turning Earth, causing the rotation to slow down just a little. Atomic clocks show that a modern-day is longer by about 1.7 milliseconds than a century ago. Scientists predict that it would take 50 billion years for Earth to slow enough to permamently face the Moon, at which point the Moon would stop receding from the Earth and Moon-induced tides on Earth will cease. So in short, yes, over very long time periods the Moon will slow Earth's rotation to the point where there are no tides caused by the Moon, but at that point the Earth-Moon system will no longer exist. Hence option 1 is correct. 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 20

With reference to the phenomenon of Lake Effect Snow, consider the following statements:
1. It is the snowfall caused by a cold airmass moving over relatively warm lake waters.
2. It is commonly observed in the Great Lakes region of North America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 20
  • Lake Effect snow occurs when cold air during the winters moves across the open waters of the lakes. As the cold air passes over the unfrozen and relatively warm waters of the lakes, warmth and moisture are transferred into the lowest portion of the atmosphere. The air rises, clouds form and grow into narrow band that produces 2 to 3 inches of snow per hour or more. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • Wind direction is a key component in determining which areas will receive lake effect snow. Heavy snow may be falling in one location, while the sun may be shining just a mile or two away in either direction. The physical geography of the land and water is also important. 
  • The areas affected by lake-effect snow are called snowbelts. These include areas east of the Great Lakes, the west coasts of northern Japan, the Kamchatka Peninsula in Russia, and areas near the Great Salt Lake, Black Sea, Caspian Sea, Baltic Sea, Adriatic Sea, and North Sea. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams:
1. Jet streams are stronger in winters for both the northern and southern hemispheres.
2. Speed of jet streams gradually increases from its central core towards the outer boundary.
3. Jet streams move along with the apparent latitudinal movement of the sun.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 21
  • Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. 
  • Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • The actual appearance of jet streams results from the complex interaction between many variables - such as the location of high and low-pressure systems, warm and cold air, and seasonal changes. They meander around the globe, dipping and rising in altitude/latitude, splitting at times and forming eddies, and even disappearing altogether to appear somewhere else. 
  • Jet streams are often indicated by a line on a weather map indicating the location of the strongest wind. However, jet streams are wider and not as distinct as a single line but are actually regions where the wind speed increases toward a central core of greatest strength. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • One way of visualizing this is to consider a river. The river's current is generally the strongest in the center with decreasing strength as one approaches the river's bank. Therefore, it is said that jet streams are "rivers of air". 
  • Jet streams also "follow the sun" in that as the sun's elevation increases each day in the spring, the average latitude of the jet stream shifts poleward. With summer approaching in Northern Hemisphere, jet streams gradually keep shifting northwards. As Autumn approaches and the sun's elevation decreases, the jet stream's average latitude moves toward the equator. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 22

With reference to Pangong Tso Lake, consider the following statements:
1. It is a part of the Indus river basin area.
2. It is a narrow deep endorheic (landlocked) lake situated in Ladakh Himalayas.
3. It does not freeze in winter due to high salinity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 22
  • Recent Context: India and China are working out modalities to finalise a plan for a phased disengagement and de-escalation along the LINE OF ACTUAL CONTROL (LAC) in eastern Ladakh. The Line of Actual Control separates Indian and Chinese troops since 1962 generally runs along with the land except for the width of Pangong Tso. India controls about 45 km stretch of the Pangong Tso and china the rest. 
  • Geography of Pangong Tso: 
    1. It is a long narrow, deep, endorheic (landlocked) lake situated at a height of more than 14,000 ft in the Ladakh Himalayas. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    2. Pangong Tso is not a part of the Indus river basin area. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
    3. The brackish water lake freezes over in winter and becomes ideal for ice skating and polo. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
  • An inner line permit is required to visit the lake as it lies on the Sino-India Line of Actual Control. 
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 23

Consider the following pairs: Panch Prayag River Confluence
1. Vishnuprayag : Alaknanda and Dhauli Ganga
2. Nandpragay : Alaknanda and Nandakini
3. Karnaprayag : Alaknanda and Mandakini
4. Rudraprayag : Alaknanda and Pinder
5. Devprayag : Bhagirathi and Alaknanda

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 23
  • Vishnuprayag is one of the Panch Prayag (five confluences) of Alaknanda River, and lies at the confluence of Alaknanda River and Dhauliganga River, in Chamoli district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
  • Nandaprayag is a town and a nagar panchayat in Chamoli district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Nandaprayag is one of the Panch Prayag of Alaknanda River and lies at the confluence of the Alaknanda River and Nandakini River. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. 
  • Karnaprayag is a city and municipal board in the Chamoli District in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Karnaprayag is one of the Panch Prayag of Alaknanda River, situated at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Pindar River. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched. 
  • Rudraprayag is a town and a municipality in Rudraprayag district in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Rudraprayag is one of the Panch Prayag of Alaknanda River, the point of confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini. Kedarnath, a Hindu holy town is located 86 km from Rudraprayag. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched. 
  • Devprayag is a town and a nagar panchayat in Tehri Garhwal district in the state of Uttarakhand, India, and is one of the Panch Prayag of Alaknanda River where Alaknanda, Saraswati River and Bhagirathi rivers meet and take the name Ganga. Hence pair 5 is correctly matched.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 24

Consider the following pairs: Hill Ranges State
1. Palkonda Range : Andhra Pradesh
2. Kaimur Range : Maharashtra
3. Maikal Range : Jharkhand

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 24
  • Palkonda Hills, series of ranges in southern Andhra Pradesh state of southern India. The hills trend northwest to southeast and form the central part of the Eastern Ghats. Geologically, they are relics of ancient mountains formed during the Cambrian Period (about 540 to 490 million years ago) that were subsequently eroded by the Penneru River and its tributaries. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
  • Kaimur Hills, also called Kaimur Range, the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range, starts near Katangi in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh and run generally east for a distance of about 480 km to Sasaram in Bihar. Its maximum width is about 80 km. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
  • Maikala Range, a mountain range in Chhattisgarh state, central India. It runs in a north-south direction and forms the eastern base of the triangular Satpura Range. The Maikala Range consists of lateritecapped, flat-topped plateaus (pats) with elevations ranging from 600 to 900 meters. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Test: Geography- 5 - Question 25

With reference to different types of Shipping Ports, consider the following pairs: Type of Port Port
1. Dry Port : Kolkata
2. Inland Port : Riyadh
​3. Warm Water Port : Kushiro

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Geography- 5 - Question 25
  • The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbors and ports. Cargoes and travelers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo. 
  • These facilities are provided via arrangements of navigable channels, tugs and barges, and adequate labor and managerial services. The importance of a port is judged by the size of cargo and the number of ships handled. The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland. 
  • Ports can be classified differently for example, according to types of traffic handles, on the basis of location, on the basis of specialized functions etc. 
  • Inland Ports: These ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on the river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on the river Hoogli, a branch of the river Ganga. Inland ports are “wet ports.” located on a river or lake and not to be confused with dry ports. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
  • Dry Port: A dry port is an intermodal terminal directly connected to a seaport by road or rail. It operates as a centre for the transshipment of sea cargo to inland destinations. Dry ports are not located on a body of water. In fact, they can be hundreds of kilometers from the nearest ocean or river. Some of the dry ports are Viramgam in Gujarat, Durgapur in West Bengal, Faisalabad and Lahore in Pakistan, Riyadh in Saudi Arabia etc. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
  • Warm-water port: It is one where the water does not freeze in wintertime. Since they are available yearround, warm-water ports can be of great geopolitical or economic interest in regions having severe winters. Settlements such as Dalian in China, Vostochny Port, Murmansk and Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky in Russia, Odessa in Ukraine, Kushiro in Japan and Valdez at the terminus of the Alaska Pipeline owe their very existence to being ice-free ports. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 
  • Out Ports: These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports. These serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size. A classic combination, for example, is Athens and its outport Piraeus in Greece. 
     
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