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Test: History - 6 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: History - 6

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Test: History - 6 - Question 1

Which of the following is/are the reasons for increased quest for and discovery of a sea route to India in 15th Century by European Nations?

  1. Obsession of Prince Henry of Portugal to find India.

  2. Red sea trade route was monopolised by Islamic rulers.

  3. The art of ship building and navigation had made great advances in Europe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 1
option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Historians have observed that the idea of finding an ocean route to India had become an obsession for Prince Henry of Portugal, who was nicknamed the ‘Navigator’.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In 1453, Constantinople fell to the Ottoman Turks, due to which merchandise trade from India to the European markets came under Arab Muslim intermediaries. The Red Sea trade route was a state monopoly from which Islamic rulers earned tremendous revenues.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In 15th Century, Europe had made great advances in the art of ship-building and navigation. Hence, there was eagerness all over Europe for adventurous sea voyages to reach the unknown corners of the East.

Test: History - 6 - Question 2

With reference to Colonial powers in India, arrange the following treaties in chronological order:

  1. Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle

  2. Treaty of peace of Paris

  3. Treaty of Ryswick

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 2
Option c is correct
  • Treaty of Ryswick: In July 1697 the treaty brought to an end the Nine Years War, in which Louis XIV's France faced a grand coalition of England, the Dutch, and Spain. Louis agreed to return most of his territorial acquisitions or réunions made since Nijmegen, but retained the important fortress town of Strasbourg.

    • The Dutch were allowed to garrison barrier fortresses in the Spanish Netherlands. In India Pondicherry was restored to French by Dutch.

    • The treaty, negotiated with much difficulty, lasted only four years before the War of the Spanish Succession broke out.

  • Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: It was signed between British and French in 1748 after first Carnatic war. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle 1748 was negotiated largely by Britain and France with the other powers following their lead, ending the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–48).

    • The treaty was marked by the mutual restitution of conquests, including the fortress of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, to France; Madras in India, to England.

  • Treaty of peace of Paris: The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies.

    • In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there. In India Pondicherry, Karaikal and other French possessions were returned to the French on condition that they should not fortify them and it ended the third Carnatic war in 1763.

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Test: History - 6 - Question 3

With reference to the treaty of Allahabad in 1765, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Allahabad and Benaras were surrendered to Shah Alam II by Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula.

  2. Shah Alam – II agreed to pay Rs.50 lakh to company as war indemnity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 3
Option d is correct
  • Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 - one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity.

Test: History - 6 - Question 4

With reference to the policy of annexation by diplomacy and administrative mechanisms by British, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 4

Option c is correct

  • Policy of Ring Fence: It is followed by Warren Hastings, under which aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. Broadly speaking, it was the policy of defence of their neighbours’ frontiers for safeguarding their own territories. This policy of Warren Hastings was reflected in his war against the Marathas and Mysore. NOT by Lord Hastings. Both are different.

  • Policy of Subsidiary Alliance: It is followed by Lord Wellesley, under which the allying Indian state’s ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. Also, the Indian ruler had to agree to the posting of a British resident in his court. Under the system, the Indian ruler could not employ any European in his service without the prior approval of the British. Nor could he negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the governor-general. In return for all this, the British would defend the ruler from his enemies and adopt a policy of non-interference in the internal matters of the allied state.

  • Policy of Doctrine of Lapse: It is followed by Lord Dalhousie, under which the adopted son could be the heir to his foster father’s private property, but not the state; it was for the paramount power (the British) to decide whether to bestow the state on the adopted son or to annex it.

Test: History - 6 - Question 5

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Poligars revolt?

  1. Poligars or Palayakkars were the class of viceroys forming the second tier in the administrative system created by the Vijayanagar empire.

  2. While the Northern Poligars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British east India company.

  3. The poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the ‘kawal’ fees.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 5
Option b is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The roots of the poligars or Palayakkars date back to 14th century to the beginning of Vijayanagar empire in south India who established a unique three tier administrative system thereby creating an administrative class called the ‘ Palayakkars’.

  • This three-tier set up consisted of the emperor at Vijayanagar at the top of pyramid; the Nayakas or viceroys forming the second tier and the Palayakkars or polygars comprising the grassroot leaders in the hierarchy. This system allowed for an efficient revenue administration as well as created a mechanism to help raise an army, besides keeping generals, warriors, courtiers etc.

  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: By the 18th century While the Northern Polygars fell under the kingdom of Mysore, those in southern Tamil Nadu had to deal with the revenue demands of the British East India company. Between 1803 and 1805, the poligars of North Arcot rose in rebellion against the company as they were deprived of their right to collect the kawal fees(Kawal or ‘watch’ was an ancient institution of Tamil Nadu. It was a hereditary village police office with specified rights and responsibilities.

Test: History - 6 - Question 6

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the People’s uprisings during British era?

  1. Increasing number of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders caused the exploitation of common people and gave rise to uprisings.

  2. These uprisings were very stubborn in nature and were not pacified by concessions.

  3. Destruction of indigenous industry is also a causative factor for people’s uprising.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 6
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Exploitation of rural society increased with the growth of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders and thus gave rise to civil uprisings like civil uprisings in Gorakhpur, Basti and Bahraich due to involvement of English officers as izaradars (revenue farmers in Awadh

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: These uprisings were not so obstinate and were often pacified through concessions by the authorities like Ho and Munda Uprisings where British agreed to the demand of Chhotanagpur as their area and deployed force there

  • Statement 3 is correct: Destruction of indigenous industry led to migration of workers from industry to agriculture, increasing the pressure on land/ agriculture and resulted in civil Uprisings.

Test: History - 6 - Question 7

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 1857 revolt?

  1. The 1857 revolt failed as most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause.

  2. The revolt was led by enlightened and educated middle class.

  3. The Madras army remained complete loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 7
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the reasons for failure of 1857 revolt that most of the Rajas and Nawabs helped the British cause. Sir Dinkar Rao of Gwalior and Salar Jung of Nizam did everything to suppress the rebellion.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The revolt was led by old feudal lords not the enlightened middle educated class. These people had already been defeated many times.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Madras army remained completely loyal to the British and half of the company’s troops did not join the revolt and fought against Indians. The south India was not affected by this revolt. Punjab, Sindh, Rajputana, and east Bengal remain undisturbed.

Test: History - 6 - Question 8

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Delhi durbar of 1877?

  1. It was announced by Lord Canning.

  2. Indian states were to be treated as parts of single charge of British Crown.

  3. The Queen’s proclamation issued in Delhi’s Durbar promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 8
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi durbar of 1877 was not announced by Lord Canning. It was largely an official event not a popular occasion with mass appeal like 1903 and 1911.It was organized by Lytton, The then Viceroy of India. Lord Canning announced Queen’s proclamation at a durbar at Allahabad in 1858 according to which, the era of annexations and expansion had ended and the British promised to respect the dignity and rights of the native princes.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian states were henceforth to recognize the paramountcy of the British crown and were treated as parts of a single charge as a part of Queen’s proclamation announced at durbar held at Allahabad in 1858 and not the 1877 Delhi Durbar.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Queen’s proclamation of 1858 promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed. It was also promised that old Indian rights, customs and practices would be given due regard while framing and administering the law.

  • The Delhi durbar of 1877 gave a new title” Qaisar-I-Hind, the Empress of India to British monarch- Queen Victoria. Delhi durbar was held 3 times in the old Mughal capital of Delhi, first in 1877, and then again in 1903 and 1911.

Test: History - 6 - Question 9

Which of the following were the main provisions of Cornwallis Code?

  1. There was a separation of revenue and justice administration.

  2. European subjects were also brought under jurisdiction.

  3. Government officials were not answerable to the civil courts for actions done in their official capacity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 9
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: There was a separation of revenue and justice administration. As a part of the Cornwallis Code the collector was now responsible only for the revenue administration with no magisterial functions. The Zamindars were also relieved of their police duties.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The principle of sovereignty of law was established and European subjects were also brought under jurisdiction.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Government officials were made answerable to the civil courts for actions done in their official capacity.

Test: History - 6 - Question 10

With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted.

  2. A law member was added to the governor-eneral’s council.

  3. The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 10
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: All restrictions on European immigration and acquisition of property in India were lifted. It opened the way for wholesale colonisation of India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A law member was added to the governor-general’s council. It was added for professional advice on law making. Later, the law member was made the full member of the governor-general’s executive council by the Charter Act of 1853.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The administration was urged to take steps to improve the conditions of the slaves and to abolish slavery. Slavery was abolished in 1843.

Test: History - 6 - Question 11

The staple commodities of import by the English East India Company in the middle of the 18th century were

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 11
Option d is correct
  • Main items of import from different regions are Pearls, raw silk, wool dates, dried fruits, rose water, coffee, gold, drugs, and honey, ivory and drugs, raw silk and porcelain, tea, Main items of Export are Cotton textiles, raw silk, and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper etc

Main items of import from various regions were as under:

  • Persian Gulf region-Pearls, raw silk, wool dates, dried fruits, and rose water

  • Arabia-coffee, gold, drugs, and honey

  • China-tea, sugar, porcelain and silk

  • Tibet-gold, musk, and woolen cloth

Test: History - 6 - Question 12

Which of the statements are correct regarding the Ring Fence policy?

  1. It was meant to keep India safe from Napoleonic danger.

  2. The states brought under the system were assured of military assistance against external aggression at their own expense.

  3. The forces in the allied states were organised, equipped and commanded by the officers of the company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 12
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Warren Hasting followed this policy to counter the powerful combination of the Marathas, Mysore and Hyderabad. He followed a policy of Ring-fence (1773-1785) which aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the company’s frontiers. It was the subsidiary alliance policy adopted by Wellesley to keep India safe from Napoleonic danger.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The states brought under the ring-fence system were assured of military assistance against external aggression at their own expense.

  • Statement 3 is correct: To safeguard against the dangers from afghan invaders and the Marathas, the East India company undertook to organize the defence of the frontiers. For example to defend the Bengal, it required to defend the frontier of Awadh. Thus, in ring fence policy the Allies were required to maintain forces which were to be organised, equipped and commanded by the officers of the company who in turn were to be paid by the rulers of these states.

Test: History - 6 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the conditions prevalent in India in the eighteenth century:

  1. Status of slaves in India was worse than that in Europe.

  2. The children from the marriages among the slaves were also considered slaves.

  3. Slaves were usually treated as hereditary servants rather than menials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Status of slaves in India was better than that in Europe as they were usually treated as hereditary servants rather than menials. Marriage took place among the slaves and the offspring coming out of such wedlock were considered as free citizens. However due to distress, famines, calamities and extreme poverty people were compelled to sell their offsprings. But in Europe Slaves were treated worse and forced to do menial jobs and the child from the marriage alliance between the slaves was also considered as slave.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Marriages took place among the slaves and the offspring coming out of such deadlock were considered free citizens.

  • Statement 3 is correct: As Slaves were usually treated as hereditary servants rather than menials. The advent of Europeans heightened the slavery and slave trade in India.European trading companies purchased slaves from the market of Bengal, Assam and Bihar and took them to the European and American market.

Test: History - 6 - Question 14

Who among the following was the prominent believer of the ‘Conspiracy Theory’ regarding the foundation of Indian National Congress?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 14
Option b is correct

Foundational theories of INC and prominent believers:

  • Safety Valve Theory —Lala Lajpat Rai

  • Conspiracy Theory—R.P. Dutt

  • Lightning conductor Theory—G.K. Gokhale

Marxist historians used it to build up a conspiracy theory. R. P. Dutt argued that Congress was born out of a conspiracy of the British to end any possibilities of an uprising and bourgeois leaders were a part of it. This conspiracy theory is discredited by opening of Dufferin’s private papers revealed that no one in ruling circles took Humes predictions of chaos seriously as Sumit Sarkar points out. This was also proved wrong as there was no evidence found of the existence of the seven volumes of secret report in any archives of either India or London.

Test: History - 6 - Question 15

Which of the following measures/initiatives were taken to directly or indirectly strengthen the Make in India initiative?

  1. One-District-One-Product (ODOP) initiative

  2. Toycathon 2021

  3. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes

  4. Gatishakti programme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 15
'Make in India’ recently completed 8 years since its inception.

Following measures were taken to strengthen the Make in India initiative:

Option 1 is correct:

  • The One-District-One-Product (ODOP) initiative:

  • It is aimed at facilitating the promotion and production of indigenous products from each district of the country and providing a global platform to the artisans and manufacturers aiming to contribute to the socio-economic growth of various regions of the country.

Option 2 is correct:

  • In an attempt to reduce the import of foreign made toys and enhance India's ability to manufacture toys domestically, the Basic Custom Duty on the import of toys was increased from 20 percent to 60 percent.

Initiatives such as:

  • The India Toy Fair 2021, Toycathon 2021, Toy Business League 2022 have been conducted to encourage innovation in this sector.

Option 3 is correct:

  • Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes:

As a part of the 'Make In India' program, the government introduced Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes across 14 key manufacturing sectors in 2020-21 as a big boost to the 'Make in India' initiative.

Option 4 is correct:

  • 'Gatishakti' programme:

  • The programme will ensure logistical efficiency in business operations through the creation of infrastructure that improves connectivity.

  • This will enable faster movement of goods and people, enhancing access to markets, hubs, and opportunities, and reducing logistics cost.

Test: History - 6 - Question 16

The "Black hole tragedy" is associated with

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 16
Option b is correct

Siraj-ud-Daula imprisoned 146 Englishmen (Black hole tragedy) who were lodged in a very

tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation in 1756.

Test: History - 6 - Question 17

Which of the following states accepted the Subsidiary Alliance of British?

  1. The Peshwa

  2. The Sindhia

  3. The Holkar

  4. The Bhonsle Raja of Berar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 17
Option d is correct
  • The Indian princes who accepted the subsidiary system were: the Nizam of Hyderabad (September 1798 and 1800), the ruler of Mysore (1799), the ruler of Tanjore (October 1799), the

  • Nawab of Awadh (November 1801), the Peshwa (December 1801), the Bhonsle Raja of Berar (December 1803), the Sindhia (February 1804), the Rajput states of Jodhpur, Jaipur, Macheri, Bundi and the ruler of Bharatpur (1818).

  • The Holkar were the last Maratha confederation to accept the Subsidiary Alliance in 1818.

Test: History - 6 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:

  1. He founded the Bethune school at Calcutta.

  2. He is known as the father of Indian Renaissance.

  3. He was a member of the TattwabodhiniSabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 18
Option b is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: As secretary of Bethune School (established in 1849), Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was one of the pioneers of higher education for women in India. The Bethune School was founded by him at Calcutta. It was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women's education in the 1840s and 1850s

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Ram Mohan Roy is known as the father of Indian Renaissance.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Debendranath Tagore, son of Dwarkanath Tagore, established Tattwabodhini (Truth-seekers) Sabha. Among its first members were the "two giants of Hindu reformation and Bengal Renaissance", Akshay Kumar Datta and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Test: History - 6 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Lee Commission:

  1. It suggested that secretary of state should continue to recruit Indian Civil Service.

  2. It recommended for immediate establishment of public service commission.

  3. It was established during the Viceroyship of Lord Reading.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 19
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Lee Commission was established in 1924; It suggested that secretary of state should continue to recruit Indian Civil Service (ICS).

  • Statement 2 is correct: Lee Commission recommended for immediate establishment of public service commission in accordance with provisions of Government of India Act-1919.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Lord Reading (1921-1926) was the Viceroy when Lee Commission was established

Test: History - 6 - Question 20

In the context of Indian history, Tinkathia System refers to

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 20
Option b is correct
  • The Tinkathia system was an arrangement in Champaran that forced peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of their land. The Planters followed illegal means of indigo farming on land holding of farmers.

  • The first satyagraha of Gandhi in India, Champaran Satyagraha, was undertaken against this exploitative agricultural arrangement. Rajkumar Shukla requested Gandhi to look into the problem of farmers of Champaran. Later, Gandhi convinced local authorities about the injustice caused by the Tinkathia system.

Test: History - 6 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Lapse:

  1. Jhansi was the first state to be annexed under this policy.

  2. It was articulated by the Court of Directors of the East India Company.

  3. Annexation by lapse of ‘Karauli’ was disallowed by the court of directors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 21
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The first victim of the Doctrine of Lapse policy was Satara (1848). Appa Sahib, the king of Satara, died without natural heir in 1848. Just before death he had adopted a child but did not seek permission from the company. Jaitpur and Sambhalpur were next victims (1849). Baghat (1850), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854) also became victim of doctrine of Lapse

  • Statement 2 is correct: Though Doctrine of Lapse is attributed to Lord Dalhousie (1848-56), he was not its originator. The Court of Directors of the East India Company had articulated this early in 1834. It was a coincidence that during his tenure, several important cases arose in which the ‘Doctrine’ could be applied. Maharaja Ranjit Singh had annexed a few of his feudatory principalities on account of ‘Lapse’.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Karauli was another state annexed by Dalhousie but the court of Directors over ruled his decision and karauli was permitted to nominate her adopted son as the successor king.

Test: History - 6 - Question 22

Satya Prakash, a weekly to promote widow remarriage, was started by

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 22
Option d is correct
  • Karsandas Mulji, a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji, was one of the pioneer Indian social reformers working for the cause of women emancipation.

  • In 1850s-60s, Mulji was a prominent member of the “Bombay intelligentsia” which was in conflict with the “Merchant Aristocracy” over social issues.

  • Mulji’s place in Indian history as a reformer is due to the Maharaj libel case in 1862 which earned him the title of “a Reformer, a Martin Luther of the Banian Caste”.

  • He started the Satya Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to advocate widow remarriage.

Test: History - 6 - Question 23

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel had actively taken up the cause of Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 23
Option a is correct
  • Bardoli Satyagraha, 1928 was a movement in the independence struggle led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel for the farmers of Bardoli against the unjustified hike in land revenue.

  • The Bardoli Taluk in modern-day Gujarat was hit by floods and famines in 1925, which adversely affected crop yield. This affected the farmers financially. Ignoring the plight of the farmers, the Bombay Presidency increased the tax rates by 22%. In

  • January 1928, farmers in Bardoli invited Vallabhbhai Patel to launch the protest movement wherein all of them resolved not to pay taxes. Patel agreed to take on the leadership role only after getting assurances from the farmers of their resolve to the movement. He informed them of the possible consequences of their move such as confiscation of land and property and imprisonment.

  • Patel got in touch with the government and appraised it of the situation. He got the reply that the government was unwilling to make any concessions. Gandhiji also lend support to the movement through his writings in ‘Young India’ magazine.

  • Outcome - The British Government setup Maxwell-Broomfield commission, reduced land Revenue to 6.03% and returned confiscated land back to farmers. In this struggle, Vallabhbhai

  • Patel got the title of “Sardar” by local farmers of Bardoli.

Test: History - 6 - Question 24

Which of the following events occurred during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Willingdon?

  1. Separation of Burma from India

  2. Poona Pact

  3. Arrival of Simon Commission

  4. August Offer

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 24
Option a is correct

Lord Willingdon served as Viceroy of India from 1931 to 1936. Important events of this period include:

(1) Separation of Burma from India (1935)

(2) Poona Pact (1932)

(3) Second Round Table Conference (1931) and Third Round Table Conference (1932)

(4) Relaunching of Civil Disobedience Movement (1932)

(5) Communal Award by Ramsay MacDonald (1932)

(6) Government of India Act 1935

  • The Indian Statutory Commission also referred to as the Simon Commission, was a group of seven Members of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon (later, 1st Viscount Simon). The commission arrived in British India in 1928 to study constitutional reform in Britain's largest and most important possession. Lord Irwin was the viceroy when Simon Commission arrived.

  • The August Offer was an offer made by Viceroy Linlithgow in 1940 promising the expansion of the Executive Council of the Viceroy of India to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving full weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians' right to frame their own constitution.

Test: History - 6 - Question 25

With reference to Kathak Dance, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the only form of classical dance wedded to Hindustani or North Indian music.

  2. The dancers wear heavy ghunghroos.

  3. It involves sharp bends of the upper or lower part of the body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is correct: Kathak is the only classical dance of India having links with Muslim culture - unique synthesis of Hindu and Muslim genius in art. It is the only form of classical dance wedded to Hindustani or North Indian music.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The heavy ghunghroos are worn by the dancers. A Wide variety of sounds are hidden in these ghunghroos like running trains, heavy rains, Sound of Horse riding (Ghode ki chaal) and much more. This adds more beauty to the performance.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: Full foot contact is of prime importance with no sharp bends of the upper or lower part of the body. Equal distribution of Body weight along the horizontal and vertical axis. It is world famous for spectacular footwork, amazing spins, Nazakat and Padhant (Chanting of bols, toda, tukdas by the dancer himself and then performing). A distinctive feature of Kathak is that it creates a nexus between the dancer and audience.

Test: History - 6 - Question 26

Which of the following reform measures was/were introduced by Montagu-Chelmsford reforms?

  1. It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.

  2. It introduced bicameralism both in centre and provinces.

  3. It extended the principle of communal representation.

  4. It introduced a system of direct election for the first time in the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 26
Option b is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: In order to pacify the growing demand of Home Rule, Montagu- Chelmsford reforms were announced, which were incorporated in the Government of India Act,1919. Formation of Public Service Commission was introduced by these reforms. A central public service commission was setup in 1926 for recruiting civil servants.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Bicameralism was introduced only in the centre by Montagu- Chelmsford reforms. Thus, Indian Legislative Council was replaced by an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative assembly). Government of India Act 1935 introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms introduced, for the first time, direct elections in the country. The majority of members of both the houses were chosen by direct election.

Other Provisions of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms:

  • It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

  • It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force.

  • It advocated the need to emancipate the local governments and legislatures from central control; and to advance, by successive stages, in the direction of conferring responsible government on the provinces.

  • It introduced the idea of Council of Ministers being responsible to the parliament and elucidated the principle of accountable governance by directing that the Government of India must remain wholly responsible to Parliament.

Test: History - 6 - Question 27

With regard to the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929), consider the following statements:

  1. The two-nation theory was rejected by the Congress.

  2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved.

  3. The Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 27
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Two Nation Theory was propounded by the Muslim League in its Lahore Session, 1940. It was not rejected by the Indian National Congress in its Lahore Session, 1929.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in the Lucknow session at 1916, not in the Lahore session of 1929.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In December 1929 under the presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Indian National Congress at its Lahore session passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution declaring complete independence to be the goal of the national movement.

    Significance of the Lahore Session 1929

    (1) The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted.

    (2) Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.

    (3) Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were asked to resign their seats.

    (4) January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajy(a) Day, to be celebrated everywhere .

Test: History - 6 - Question 28

Which of the following was/were the causes of the 1857 revolt?

  1. Impoverishment of peasants by heavy taxation.

  2. Denial of the right of succession to Hindu princes.

  3. Rampant corruption in the Company’s administration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 28
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: The colonial policies of the East India Company destroyed the traditional economic fabric of the Indian society. The peasantry were never really to recover from the disabilities imposed by the new and a highly unpopular revenue settlement. Impoverished by heavy taxation, the peasants resorted to loans from money- lenders/traders at usurious rates, the latter often evicting the former from their land on non-payment of debt dues. It was one of the economic causes of the 1857 revolt.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Doctrine of Lapse had caused suspicion and uneasiness in the minds of almost all ruling princes in India. The right of succession was denied for the Hindu Princes and the guarantee of adoption to the throne was disallowed. It was one of the political causes of the 1857 revolt.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Rampant corruption in the Company’s administration, especially among the police, petty officials and lower law courts, was also a cause of the 1857 revolt.

Test: History - 6 - Question 29

Which of the following Countries is/are non-signatory/non-signatories to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

  1. India

  2. China

  3. Israel

  4. France

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 29
Option a is correct
  • Three UN member states have never accepted/signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), but possess or are thought to possess nuclear weapons: India, Israel, and Pakistan.

  • Five states are recognized by NPT as nuclear weapon states (NWS): China (1992), France (1992), the Soviet Union (1968; obligations and rights now assumed by the Russian Federation), the United Kingdom (1968), and the United States (1968), which also happen to be the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council.

Test: History - 6 - Question 30

With regard to Ahmadiyya Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. It was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad.

  2. It was based on the principles of universal religion of all humanity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: History - 6 - Question 30
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Ahmadiyya Movement forms a sect of Islam which originated from India. It was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in Punjab in 1889.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ahmadiyya Movement was based on liberal principles. It described itself as the standard-bearer of Mohammedan Renaissance, and based itself on the principles of universal religion of all humanity, opposing jihad (sacred war against non-Muslims). The Ahmadiyya Movement spread Western liberal education among the Indian Muslims. The Ahmadiyya community is the only Islamic sect to believe that the Messiah had come in the person of Mirza Ghulam Ahmad to end religious wars and bloodshed and to reinstate morality, peace and justice. They believed in separating the mosque from the State as well as in human rights and tolerance. However, the Ahmadiyya Movement, like Baha’ism which flourished in the West Asian countries, suffered from mysticism.

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