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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 - Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 for UPSC 2025 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 preparation. The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 MCQs are made for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 below.
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Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the Gyan Bharatam Mission:

1. The Gyan Bharatam Mission aims to conserve and document manuscripts that are at least 50 years old.

2. A key component of the mission is the establishment of a national digital repository for the Indian knowledge system.

3. The mission includes the preservation of lithographs and printed volumes as part of its conservation efforts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 1

To determine the correct answer, let's analyze each statement in the context of the Gyan Bharatam Mission:

1. Statement 1: The Gyan Bharatam Mission aims to conserve and document manuscripts that are at least 50 years old.
- This statement is incorrect. According to the definition provided, a manuscript is a handwritten document that dates back at least 75 years, not 50 years. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

2. Statement 2: A key component of the mission is the establishment of a national digital repository for the Indian knowledge system.
- This statement is correct. The mission indeed focuses on creating a national digital repository to facilitate knowledge sharing and ensure the accessibility of traditional knowledge to researchers, students, and institutions globally.

3. Statement 3: The mission includes the preservation of lithographs and printed volumes as part of its conservation efforts.
- This statement is incorrect. The mission specifically targets manuscripts, which do not include lithographs and printed volumes. Only handwritten documents on materials such as paper, bark, cloth, metal, or palm leaf are considered manuscripts.

Given the analysis, only Statement 2 is correct. Thus, the correct answer is Option D.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following pairs regarding Green Cardamom and Black Kite:

1. Elettaria cardamomum - Native to evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats

2. E. facifera - Found in the Agasthyamalai hills

3. Black Kite - Classified as Endangered by the IUCN

4. Green Cardamom - Thrives in loamy soils with a pH range from 5.0 to 6.5

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 2

1. Elettaria cardamomum - Native to evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats: Correct. Green cardamom (Elettaria cardamomum) is indeed native to the evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats in India.

2. E. facifera - Found in the Agasthyamalai hills: Incorrect. E. facifera is identified in Kerala's Periyar Tiger Reserve, not the Agasthyamalai hills. It is E. tulipifera that is found in the Agasthyamalai hills.

3. Black Kite - Classified as Endangered by the IUCN: Incorrect. Black kites are classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, not Endangered. Their ability to adapt to various environments, including urban areas, has contributed to their stable conservation status.

4. Green Cardamom - Thrives in loamy soils with a pH range from 5.0 to 6.5: Correct. Green cardamom does thrive in forest loamy soils that are acidic, with a pH range from 5.0 to 6.5, which supports its growth.

Thus, only two pairs (1 and 4) are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

1. Araku Valley is known for its organic coffee plantations, which have received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

2. The Anantagiri and Sunkarimetta Reserved Forests in Araku Valley are primarily known for tea cultivation.

3. Araku Valley receives significant rainfall during the monsoon season, with temperatures ranging from 5-10°C in winter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 3

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one:

1. Statement 1 is correct. Araku Valley is renowned for its organic coffee plantations, which have indeed received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. This highlights the unique quality and origin of the coffee produced in this region.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Anantagiri and Sunkarimetta Reserved Forests are part of the Araku Valley, they are not primarily known for tea cultivation. Instead, these forests are recognized for their biodiversity and are also notable for bauxite mining activities.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Araku Valley does receive significant rainfall during the monsoon season, which is typical from June to September. Additionally, the valley experiences pleasant winters with temperatures ranging from 5-10°C, making it a popular tourist destination during this time.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:

1. The Arab League was established with the primary objective of military coordination among its member states.

2. Consensus-based decision-making in the Arab League requires all member states to agree on significant resolutions.

3. The Arab League's Arab Peace Initiative aimed to provide a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 4

1. Statement 1: Incorrect. While military coordination is one of the objectives of the Arab League, it is not the primary objective. The Arab League's primary objectives focus on economic, cultural, political, and military cooperation among member states. Therefore, stating that the primary objective is military coordination alone is inaccurate.

2. Statement 2: Correct. The Arab League makes decisions based on consensus among its member states, which means that all member states must agree on significant resolutions. This consensus-based approach emphasizes collaboration among the member states.

3. Statement 3: Correct. The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed in 2002, is indeed an effort by the Arab League to provide a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, advocating for peace in the region. This initiative was a significant diplomatic move by the Arab League to address this long-standing conflict.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D, as statements 2 and 3 are correct based on the objectives and initiatives of the Arab League.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 5

Consider the following pairs:

1. Arab League Establishment Year - 1945

2. Founding Members of Arab League - Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria

3. Observer Nations in Arab League - Brazil, Eritrea, India, Venezuela

4. Arab Peace Initiative Year - 2002

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 5

1. Arab League Establishment Year - 1945: Correct. The Arab League was indeed established in 1945, specifically on March 22, in Cairo, Egypt.

2. Founding Members of Arab League - Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria: Correct. These countries were indeed the founding members of the Arab League.

3. Observer Nations in Arab League - Brazil, Eritrea, India, Venezuela: Correct. These countries hold observer status in the Arab League, meaning they can participate in discussions but do not have voting rights.

4. Arab Peace Initiative Year - 2002: Correct. The Arab Peace Initiative was proposed in 2002, aiming for a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

All four pairs are correctly matched, confirming that the correct answer is Option D

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 6

When was the Arab League established, and where was its founding meeting held?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 6

The Arab League was established on March 22, 1945, in Cairo, Egypt. This founding meeting brought together countries such as Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria to promote economic, cultural, political, and military cooperation among member states. The League plays a vital role in fostering collaboration and addressing regional issues through diplomatic engagement.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA):

1. Spinal Muscular Atrophy is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the survival motor neuron gene (SMN1).

2. SMA leads to progressive muscle weakness by primarily affecting involuntary muscles.

3. Current treatments for SMA focus on curing the condition rather than managing symptoms.

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 7

Statement 1 is correct. Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) is indeed a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the survival motor neuron gene (SMN1), which leads to a deficiency in a protein essential for motor neuron survival.

Statement 2 is incorrect. SMA primarily affects motor neurons that control voluntary muscle movement, leading to progressive muscle weakness, while involuntary muscles typically remain unaffected.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Currently, there is no cure for SMA. The available treatments focus on managing symptoms, such as using physical therapy to improve posture, prevent joint immobility, and slow muscle weakness, rather than outright curing the condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only, as only the first statement is correct.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

1. Slender-Billed Gull - Breeds along the northern coast of the western Indian Ocean.

2. Tea Horse Road - Originated during the Tang Dynasty to facilitate trade between China and India.

3. Pallikaranai Marshland - Recognized as one of the Ramsar sites in India.

4. Ammonium Phosphate Sulphate (APS) - A fertilizer containing 20% nitrogen and 20% phosphorus.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 8

1. Slender-Billed Gull - Breeds along the northern coast of the western Indian Ocean. This pair is correctly matched. The slender-billed gull is known to breed sporadically around the Mediterranean and the northern part of the western Indian Ocean.

2. Tea Horse Road - Originated during the Tang Dynasty to facilitate trade between China and India. This pair is correctly matched. The Tea Horse Road originated during the Tang Dynasty (618-907 CE) to facilitate trade, linking China, Tibet, and India.

3. Pallikaranai Marshland - Recognized as one of the Ramsar sites in India. This pair is correctly matched. The Pallikaranai Marshland is indeed recognized as one of the Ramsar sites in India.

4. Ammonium Phosphate Sulphate (APS) - A fertilizer containing 20% nitrogen and 20% phosphorus. This pair is incorrectly matched. While APS contains 20% nitrogen, it also contains 13% sulphur, not 20% phosphorus. The phosphorus content is part of its formulation, but the statement as given is misleading in its specifics.

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, but pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 9

What event led to the significant decline of the Mughal Empire and the rise of regional powers in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 9

The Battle of Karnal in 1739 marked a crucial turning point in the history of the Mughal Empire. This battle resulted in a decisive victory for Nadir Shah's Persian army over the Mughal forces, leading to the plunder of Delhi and the massacre of civilians. The aftermath of this battle significantly weakened the Mughal Empire, paving the way for the rise of regional powers like the Marathas and the British expansion in India.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Trump administration's strict immigration policies could potentially lead to mass deportations of undocumented Indians, impacting the Indian economy through the loss of remittances and increased unemployment.

Statement-II:
The Himachal Pradesh Cabinet has approved a pilot study for the controlled cultivation of cannabis for medicinal and industrial purposes, aiming to generate revenue and create employment opportunities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 10


Statement-I discusses the potential consequences of the Trump administration's immigration policies on India, including mass deportations affecting the economy. Statement-II addresses the approval of a pilot study for controlled cannabis cultivation in Himachal Pradesh, focusing on revenue generation and job creation. Both statements are factually correct in the context provided. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to Statement-I, as they discuss separate topics – immigration policies and cannabis cultivation. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the Saffron Reedtail Damselfly:

1. The saffron reedtail damselfly is found in habitats with poor water quality, often near fast-moving forest streams.

2. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.

3. The discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka indicates the presence of a healthy ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 11

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The saffron reedtail damselfly is found in habitats with pristine water quality, not poor water quality. They are typically found near slow-moving, not fast-moving, forest streams. These damselflies require clean water for their lifecycle and are sensitive to environmental changes and pollution.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The saffron reedtail damselfly, scientifically known as Indosticta deccanensis, is indeed endemic to the Western Ghats of India. This means that it is native to and can only be found in this particular region.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka is significant as these species are indicators of a healthy ecosystem. Their presence suggests that the environmental conditions, particularly the water quality, are favorable and relatively undisturbed by pollution.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option D the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Microplastics are small plastic particles, generally measuring less than 5 mm.

Statement-II:
Primary Microplastics are tiny plastic particles intentionally created for commercial applications, including cosmetics, and include microfibers released from textiles, such as clothing and fishing nets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 12


Statement-I correctly defines microplastics as small plastic particles measuring less than 5 mm, which is a general characteristic of microplastics.
Statement-II correctly explains primary microplastics as tiny plastic particles intentionally created for commercial applications, including cosmetics, and microfibers from textiles. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or elaborate on the size range of microplastics as mentioned in Statement-I. Hence, both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not provide a direct explanation for Statement-I. This makes option (b) the most suitable choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

1. GARBH-Ini is India's first research facility focused exclusively on ferret-based vaccine development.

2. GARBH-Ini is a data repository that supports research on maternal and child health.

3. The facility aims to develop predictive tools for complications such as preterm birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 13

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. GARBH-Ini is not a facility focused exclusively on ferret-based vaccine development. Instead, it is part of a broader initiative to enhance maternal and neonatal healthcare research by providing a comprehensive data repository, not exclusively related to ferret research. The mention of ferrets was a misunderstanding of the facility's primary focus.

- Statement 2: This statement is correct. GARBH-Ini serves as a significant data repository supporting research on maternal and child health. It collects and manages a large dataset including clinical data, medical images, and bio-specimens from pregnant women, newborns, and postpartum mothers.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. One of the aims of the GARBH-Ini facility is to develop predictive tools for complications such as preterm birth, leveraging its extensive data resources to support global studies and improve health outcomes in maternal and neonatal care.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Trump's trade war with China resulted in the Phase One Deal on January 15, 2020, aimed at structural reforms and increased purchases by China, which China failed to meet.
Statement-II:
India emerged as a significant beneficiary from the trade diversions caused by US tariffs on China, particularly in the electronics sector.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 14

Statement-I correctly highlights the initiation of Trump's trade war with China leading to the Phase One Deal. However, statement-II accurately mentions India's benefit from US tariffs on China, especially in the electronics sector, but it does not directly relate to the Phase One Deal or the failure to meet commitments by China. Therefore, both statements are correct, but they are not directly explanatory of each other.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs regarding recent international relations topics:

1. US Tariffs: Imposed on EU for agricultural goods

2. India-US Immigration: Deportation of illegal Indian immigrants

3. India-Indonesia Relations: Focus on strengthening cybersecurity

4. US-China Trade Tension: China investigating Google for antitrust violations

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 15

1. US Tariffs: Imposed on EU for agricultural goods - Incorrect. While there have been discussions about tariffs on the EU, the focus in the provided text is on the possibility of future tariffs due to perceived trade imbalances, not specifically on agricultural goods.

2. India-US Immigration: Deportation of illegal Indian immigrants - Correct. The text mentions that the Trump administration has initiated the process of deporting illegal Indian immigrants, raising concerns about bilateral relations.

3. India-Indonesia Relations: Focus on strengthening cybersecurity - Correct. The ties between India and Indonesia include security cooperation, which involves addressing cybersecurity threats as part of their comprehensive strategic partnership.

4. US-China Trade Tension: China investigating Google for antitrust violations - Correct. The text indicates that in response to US tariffs, China has retaliated by investigating Google for antitrust violations.

Only pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched according to the context provided.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding Anamudi Shola National Park:

1. Anamudi Shola National Park is part of the Western Ghats, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

2. The park is exclusively composed of montane wet temperate forests.

3. The Kerala Water Authority has been granted permission to use forest land from the park for infrastructure development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 16

- Statement 1 is correct. Anamudi Shola National Park is indeed part of the Western Ghats, which has been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its exceptional biodiversity and unique ecosystems.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. While Anamudi Shola National Park does feature montane wet temperate forests, it is not exclusively composed of them. The park also includes a variety of other vegetation types, including moist deciduous forests and southern subtropical hill forests.

- Statement 3 is correct. The Kerala Water Authority has received approval from the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) to use a portion of the forest land from Anamudi Shola National Park for constructing a weir across the Silandhi River, highlighting the ongoing balance between infrastructure development and environmental conservation.

Hence, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 17

What is the primary objective of the proposed Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 17

The primary objective of the proposed Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 in India is to streamline and modernize the country's immigration framework. This bill aims to consolidate existing laws, such as the Foreigners Act of 1946 and the Passport (Entry into India) Act of 1920, into a comprehensive legislation that enhances national security, regulatory control, and efficiency in managing immigration processes. By repealing outdated laws and introducing new provisions, the bill seeks to address contemporary immigration challenges effectively.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Anamudi Shola National Park is situated in the Western Ghats of Kerala and is known for its rich biodiversity and unique ecosystems.
Statement-II:
Mount Etna, Europe's most active volcano, is located in the Metropolitan City of Catania in Sicily and is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 18


Statement-I is accurate. Anamudi Shola National Park is indeed located in the Western Ghats of Kerala and is renowned for its diverse vegetation and ecological significance. It is surrounded by other protected areas such as Eravikulam National Park and Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. Mount Etna is not located in the Metropolitan City of Catania in Sicily. Mount Etna is situated on the eastern coast of Sicily, but Catania is the city closest to the volcano, not its exact location. Additionally, while Mount Etna is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it is not specifically designated as such in the provided text.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The recent return of Donald Trump to the presidency signifies a notable transition in U.S. foreign policy, especially regarding European security, global trade dynamics, and domestic political ideologies.
Statement-II:
The India-Myanmar border region, particularly Manipur, is experiencing a significant humanitarian crisis characterized by armed conflict, displacement, and resource scarcity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 19


Statement-I correctly discusses the implications of Donald Trump's return to the presidency on U.S. foreign policy, focusing on European security, global trade dynamics, and domestic political ideologies. Statement-II accurately describes the humanitarian crisis in the India-Myanmar border region, specifically in Manipur, highlighting armed conflict, displacement, and resource scarcity. While the two statements address different topics, both are factually accurate in their respective contexts, making the correct option (a), where both statements are correct and Statement-II provides information distinct from Statement-I.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 20

What is the primary focus of the Evo 2 AI system introduced by Nvidia?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 20

The Evo 2 AI system introduced by Nvidia is primarily focused on advancing genetic research. This revolutionary AI system is designed to understand the genetic code across all life forms, making significant strides in genomic data analysis. Trained on a massive dataset and developed in collaboration with leading institutions, Evo 2 represents a breakthrough in genetic research with diverse applications in scientific fields.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. Donald Trump's return to the presidency has led to a shift from multilateral trade agreements to bilateral deals, affecting European economies.

2. The U.S. under Trump's leadership has shown reduced commitment to NATO, raising concerns about European security.

3. India's foreign policy is becoming more aligned with China due to the fragmentation of the West.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 21

1. Statement 1: Correct. The text indicates that the U.S. is moving from multilateral trade agreements to bilateral deals, which is impacting European economies. This signifies a shift in trade policy under Trump's return to the presidency.

2. Statement 2: Correct. The return of Donald Trump has been associated with a reduced commitment to European security, particularly concerning NATO, which has raised concerns among European allies.

3. Statement 3: Incorrect. The text does not suggest that India's foreign policy is becoming more aligned with China due to the fragmentation of the West. Instead, it highlights India's pragmatic approach to recalibrate its foreign policy amidst changing geopolitical dynamics, without specifically aligning with China.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the right choice.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

1. Fiscal Deficit Target for FY26 - 4.4% of GDP

2. Inland Mangrove Recognized as Biodiversity Heritage Site - Guneri, Gujarat

3. FDI Limit in Insurance - Raised to 100% for companies investing the entire premium in India

4. Tax Benefits for Self-Occupied Properties - Claims allowed on three houses

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 22

1. Fiscal Deficit Target for FY26 - 4.4% of GDP: This pair is correctly matched. The Union Budget for FY26 targets a fiscal deficit of 4.4% of GDP, as mentioned in both summaries.

2. Inland Mangrove Recognized as Biodiversity Heritage Site - Guneri, Gujarat: This pair is correctly matched. The inland mangrove in Guneri village, located in Kutch, Gujarat, is indeed recognized as a Biodiversity Heritage Site, highlighting its ecological importance.

3. FDI Limit in Insurance - Raised to 100% for companies investing the entire premium in India: This pair is correctly matched. The budget introduced reforms increasing the FDI limit in insurance to 100%, provided the entire premium is invested in India.

4. Tax Benefits for Self-Occupied Properties - Claims allowed on three houses: This pair is incorrectly matched. The budget allows tax benefits for self-occupied properties on two houses, not three.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 2, and 3.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following pairs:

1. Debt-GDP Ratio: Measures the national debt in relation to GDP, serving as an indicator of fiscal health.

2. ASMITA Initiative: Aims to provide digital textbooks to enhance educational resources in Indian languages.

3. Onchocerciasis: A parasitic disease caused by Onchocerca volvulus, also known as river blindness.

4. Fiscal Deficit: A measure of a country's total debt as a percentage of its GDP.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 23

1. Debt-GDP Ratio: Correctly matched. The debt-GDP ratio indeed measures a country's national debt in relation to its GDP and serves as an indicator of fiscal health, capturing both past and present borrowing trends.

2. ASMITA Initiative: Incorrectly matched. The ASMITA Initiative is not about digital textbooks but aims to develop 22,000 books in Indian languages over five years to integrate these languages into the education system. The Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme provides digital textbooks.

3. Onchocerciasis: Correctly matched. Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by Onchocerca volvulus, commonly known as river blindness, and it is transmitted via the bite of an infected blackfly.

4. Fiscal Deficit: Incorrectly matched. Fiscal deficit refers to the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total revenue (excluding borrowing), not a measure of total debt as a percentage of GDP.

Thus, two pairs (Pairs 1 and 3) are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

1. South Georgia Island is a part of the British overseas territory known as South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands.

2. The island experiences a sub-Antarctic climate and is covered mostly by tropical vegetation.

3. The island is home to significant wildlife populations, including millions of seabirds and seals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 24

Statement 1 is correct. South Georgia Island is indeed a part of the British overseas territory known as South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands. This territory is located in the South Atlantic Ocean and is under British administration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While South Georgia Island experiences a sub-Antarctic climate characterized by cold, wet, and windy conditions, it is not covered by tropical vegetation. Instead, it has sparse vegetation primarily consisting of resilient grasses and tundra plants, with most of the island covered by perpetual snow.

Statement 3 is correct. The island is renowned for its rich biodiversity, being home to millions of seabirds, such as king penguins, albatrosses, and petrels, as well as large populations of seals, including fur seals and elephant seals. This makes South Georgia Island an ecologically significant area.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 25

What is the practice of hastening the death of a patient to alleviate suffering called?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 25

Passive Euthanasia involves intentionally causing a patient's death by withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatments. It is a method of euthanasia where medical professionals withhold or withdraw life-sustaining treatments from a terminally ill patient. This is done to alleviate the patient's suffering and allow them to pass away naturally.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The legal battles between the Delhi Government and the Central Government primarily revolve around bureaucratic appointments and governance powers in Delhi.
Statement-II:
The PM-AJAY scheme aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Castes communities through various income-generating schemes and infrastructure improvement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 26


Statement-I correctly highlights the key issues in the legal disputes between the Delhi Government and the Central Government, focusing on bureaucratic appointments and governance powers. Statement-II accurately describes the objectives of the PM-AJAY scheme, aimed at improving the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Castes communities through various initiatives. However, there is no direct connection or explanation between the two statements, making option (b) the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 27

Consider the following pairs regarding Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) and Fort William:

1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.

2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.

3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.

4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 27

1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.
This statement is correctly matched. Congenital heart disease is indeed one of the medical conditions linked to PAH. PAH can result from various underlying conditions, including congenital heart disease, liver disease, HIV, and connective tissue diseases like scleroderma and lupus.

2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.
This statement is incorrectly matched. Currently, there is no cure for PAH. The available treatments focus on managing symptoms and improving quality of life but do not offer a definitive cure.

3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.
This statement is correctly matched. Fort William in Kolkata was renamed Vijay Durg as part of efforts to remove colonial symbols and honor indigenous military history, specifically drawing inspiration from the significant naval fort under Chhatrapati Shivaji in Maharashtra.

4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.
This statement is incorrectly matched. Fort William was originally constructed by the British, not specifically by Robert Clive, and the first version was established by the English East India Company in 1696. The current structure dates from after the Battle of Plassey in 1757, where Clive played a significant role, but he did not construct the original fort.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 28

What sparked significant debate regarding the recommendation to reconstruct the Teesta-3 dam in Sikkim?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 28

The destruction caused by a Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) in October 2023 ignited significant debate regarding the recommendation to reconstruct the Teesta-3 dam in Sikkim. This catastrophic event resulted in over 100 fatalities and extensive damage across four districts. The incident raised critical environmental, geological, and socio-economic concerns that experts believe must be thoroughly assessed before any reconstruction efforts are undertaken.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 29

Consider the following pairs:

1. Indirect Prompt Injection: Embedding overt commands within content to manipulate AI chatbots.

2. China's Monopoly Over Critical Manufacturing Equipment: China controls a significant share of high-tech machinery necessary for semiconductor and electronics manufacturing.

3. Control Over Key Raw Materials: China imposed export restrictions on rare earth elements like gallium and germanium, impacting global supply chains.

4. Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2024: India ranked 96 out of 180 countries, with a score of 48.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 29

1. Indirect Prompt Injection: This pair is incorrectly matched. Indirect prompt injection involves embedding covert, not overt, commands within content to manipulate AI chatbots into unintended actions.

2. China's Monopoly Over Critical Manufacturing Equipment: This pair is correctly matched. China indeed plays a pivotal role in the production of high-tech machinery necessary for semiconductor and electronics manufacturing, impacting global supply chains.

3. Control Over Key Raw Materials: This pair is correctly matched. China has imposed export restrictions on key raw materials like gallium and germanium, which are crucial for technology sectors, affecting global supply chains.

4. Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2024: This pair is incorrectly matched. India's CPI score for 2024 was 38, not 48, reflecting a decline and indicating ongoing challenges in public sector integrity.

Only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, thus making Option B: Only two pairs the correct answer.

Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 30

Consider the following pairs:

1. Karnataka - Ranked first in Panchayat Devolution Index

2. Uttar Pradesh - Improved rank due to enhanced financial autonomy

3. Bihar - Suffered from a shortage of Panchayat secretaries

4. Telangana - Model for effective digital governance

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: UPSC Monthly Mock - February 2025 - Question 30

1. Karnataka - Ranked first in Panchayat Devolution Index: This pair is correctly matched. Karnataka was indeed ranked as the top state in the Panchayat Devolution Index.

2. Uttar Pradesh - Improved rank due to enhanced financial autonomy: This pair is incorrectly matched. Uttar Pradesh improved its rank due to enhanced accountability measures, not financial autonomy.

3. Bihar - Suffered from a shortage of Panchayat secretaries: This pair is correctly matched. Bihar is noted for having many Panchayats suffering from a shortage of essential personnel, such as Panchayat secretaries.

4. Telangana - Model for effective digital governance: This pair is correctly matched. Telangana is mentioned as a model for effective digital governance.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4. However, the statement specifies that only pairs 1 and 3 are correct, making the choice "Only two pairs" as per the information provided.

Note: The correct option should have been Option C: Only three pairs, based on the pairs given above and the solution provided.

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