Test: Weekly Current Affairs: April 22nd to 30th - UPSC MCQ

One of the significant challenges faced by India's logistics sector in transitioning to greener practices is the limited access to financing for electric vehicles. The high costs associated with transitioning to electric vehicles pose a substantial barrier to adopting more environmentally friendly transportation options. This financial challenge hinders the widespread adoption of cleaner technologies in the logistics sector, impacting the sector's ability to decarbonize effectively.

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The majority of trucks in India's logistics sector are not owned by large corporations but rather by small operators. Over 85% of trucks are owned by small operators, which complicates the adoption of green technologies due to financial and coordination challenges.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. Transitioning to electric and hydrogen vehicles indeed faces significant challenges due to high costs and the need for infrastructure development. The cost of electric vehicles (EVs) is significantly higher than traditional vehicles, and access to financing is limited, making the transition difficult.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. A structural shift from road to rail transport is one of the suggested measures to reduce emissions effectively in India's logistics sector. Rail transport is generally more energy-efficient and less carbon-intensive compared to road transport, which primarily relies on diesel-fueled trucks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C

Statement-I correctly states that India's leather industry is the largest producer and consumer of leather footwear after China. Statement-II is also accurate in mentioning that India's leather industry ranks second in leather garment exports and fourth in leather goods exports globally. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides additional relevant information that supports Statement-I.

Statement 1 is correct. Saudi Arabia is indeed the largest supplier of crude oil to India, accounting for 14.3% of India's total crude oil imports. This reflects the significant energy partnership between the two nations.

Statement 2 is correct. India is a major trade partner for Saudi Arabia, and the bilateral trade between the two countries reached USD 42.98 billion in FY 2023-24, highlighting the economic cooperation and interdependence between the two nations.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The High Level Task Force on Investment (HLTF) aims to boost collaboration, including the establishment of two refineries in India, not three. The focus also includes progress on taxation matters, but the specific number of refineries mentioned in the statement is inaccurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as only statements 1 and 2 are accurate based on the provided information.

Statement-I correctly states that India is Saudi Arabia's largest trade partner, with bilateral trade amounting to USD 42.98 billion in FY 2023-24. This fact is accurate based on the information provided in the text.

Statement-II mentions that Saudi Arabia has committed to investing USD 100 billion in India across various sectors. While this statement is also accurate according to the text, it does not directly explain or relate to the trade partnership figures mentioned in Statement-I. The investment commitment and the trade partnership are distinct aspects of the India-Saudi Arabia relations discussed in the provided content. Therefore, both statements are correct, but they are not interdependent or explanatory of each other.

The mantis shrimp's striking appendage functions as a natural phononic metamaterial, capable of absorbing and dispersing impact forces. This mechanism helps the shrimp withstand powerful strikes and manage energy propagation effectively, showcasing a remarkable evolutionary adaptation.

1. Mantis Shrimp's Striking Appendage - Functions as a natural phononic metamaterial: This pair is correctly matched. The mantis shrimp's appendage indeed functions as a natural phononic metamaterial, capable of controlling mechanical waves such as sound and vibrations.

2. Hydroxyapatite Surface - Found in human bones and provides elasticity to the mantis shrimp's limb: This pair is incorrectly matched. Hydroxyapatite is a hard mineral found in human bones and plays a role in dispersing impact forces, not providing elasticity.

3. Spring-like Tendons - Absorb shocks during strikes in mantis shrimp: This pair is correctly matched. The spring-like tendons in the mantis shrimp's limb absorb shocks during its powerful strikes.

4. SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme - Allows seamless travel between all SAARC nations: This pair is incorrectly matched in the context of the question, as the recent news indicates that India's cancellation of the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme for Pakistani nationals was a specific diplomatic move, rather than a general seamless travel arrangement for all SAARC nations.

Thus, there are two pairs that are correctly matched.

Statement-I is accurate as it highlights the unique function of the mantis shrimp's limb, which acts as a natural phononic metamaterial, controlling mechanical waves. Statement-II correctly mentions the suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) as a significant development in India's water diplomacy. However, both statements are independent of each other and do not have a direct explanatory relationship. Statement-I focuses on biological materials, while Statement-II pertains to geopolitical actions, making them separate in context. Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

- Statement 1 is correct. The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme was indeed established during the 4th SAARC Summit in 1988 with the goal of enhancing regional cooperation and connectivity among member states. This scheme aimed to facilitate people-to-people contact by allowing selected categories of individuals to travel without visas using a Special Travel Document.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme did not allow unrestricted visa-free travel for tourism purposes to all citizens of SAARC nations. Instead, it was limited to specific categories of individuals such as dignitaries, judges, parliamentarians, officials, businesspersons, journalists, and sportspersons. Pakistani nationals had limited eligibility, primarily for business visas, and not for unrestricted travel.

- Statement 3 is correct. India's decision to revoke the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme for Pakistani nationals was indeed a response to concerns over cross-border terrorism, particularly following the Pahalgam terror attack. This action was a diplomatic measure reflecting India's stance on terrorism and its impact on regional security.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and origin of the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme, highlighting its establishment during the 4th SAARC Summit in 1988 to foster regional cooperation. Statement-II accurately reflects the recent development where India revoked the SVES for Pakistani nationals in response to the Pahalgam terror attack, showcasing a notable shift in diplomatic relations within the SAARC framework. Statement-II directly aligns with and provides context to Statement-I, making both statements correct and logically connected.

The theme for World Malaria Day 2025 is "Malaria Ends With Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite." This theme emphasizes the collective responsibility and action required from individuals, communities, and organizations to combat and ultimately eliminate malaria. It calls for reinvestment in malaria control efforts, reimagining strategies for prevention and treatment, and reigniting the commitment to eradicate this deadly disease.

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Malaria is transmitted by infected female Anopheles mosquitoes, not male mosquitoes. The role of male mosquitoes does not involve the transmission of malaria.

- Statement 2 is correct. Among the Plasmodium species that cause malaria in humans, P. falciparum is indeed recognized as the most deadly. It is responsible for the majority of severe cases and fatalities due to malaria.

- Statement 3 is correct. The RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) vaccine was approved by the World Health Organization in 2021 for use in children aged 5 months and older. This marked a significant advancement in the fight against malaria, providing a new tool to help protect children in high-risk areas.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only, as statements 2 and 3 are correct based on the information provided.

1. Plasmodium vivax - Most deadly species causing malaria: This pair is incorrectly matched. Plasmodium falciparum is the most deadly species causing malaria, not Plasmodium vivax. Plasmodium vivax is known for causing recurring malaria but is not the most deadly.

2. Mosquirix (RTS,S/AS01) - First approved malaria vaccine for children: This pair is correctly matched. The RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) vaccine was the first malaria vaccine approved by the WHO in 2021 for use in children aged 5 months and older.

3. Anopheles mosquito - Transmits malaria: This pair is correctly matched. Malaria is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes, which are the primary vectors.

4. R21/Matrix-M - Vaccine approved in 2021: This pair is incorrectly matched. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine was approved in 2023, not in 2021.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Both statements are factually correct according to the information provided. Statement-I mentions the approval of the RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) vaccine by WHO in 2021 for children aged 5 months and older, which is accurate. Statement-II also correctly states that the R21/Matrix-M vaccine was approved in 2023. However, Statement-II does not provide any explanation or additional information about the first statement. Therefore, while both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, making option (b) the correct answer.

1. Taj Mahal - Built primarily from Red Sandstone: Incorrect. The Taj Mahal is built primarily from white marble sourced from Makrana, Rajasthan. Red sandstone was used in some Mughal architecture, but not predominantly in the Taj Mahal.

2. Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) - Area established to promote tourism: Incorrect. The TTZ is a defined area of 10,400 sq km established to mitigate pollution threats to the Taj Mahal, not specifically to promote tourism.

3. NEERI - Involved in evaluating environmental impacts near Taj Mahal: Correct. The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) has been instructed by the Supreme Court of India to evaluate the environmental impact of industrial units near the Taj Mahal, as part of efforts to safeguard the monument.

4. Hota Committee - Linked to studying pollution around the Taj Mahal: Correct. The Hota Committee (2016) identified local pollution sources contributing to air quality degradation in Agra, which affects the Taj Mahal.

Thus, only pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

The non-functionality of the WTO's Appellate Body since 2019 is primarily due to the US blocking new judge appointments. This has resulted in a critical impediment to the resolution of trade disputes within the organization, impacting the enforcement of global trade rules.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Appellate Body of the WTO has indeed been non-functional since 2019. This is because the United States has been blocking the appointment of new judges, leading to a paralysis in the WTO's dispute settlement mechanism. This issue has been a significant concern for the enforcement of international trade rules.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) principle is a fundamental aspect of the WTO, it is not exclusively adhered to without exceptions. The proliferation of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) allows member countries to bypass MFN obligations, thus fragmenting the multilateral trade framework of the WTO.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Doha Development Round, which was initiated in 2001, has faced significant challenges, particularly over issues such as agricultural subsidies. It has not successfully concluded, and negotiations have been stalled for many years, highlighting the conflicts between developed and developing nations.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A: 1 Only the right answer.

1. Appellate Body - Functional since 2019: Incorrect. The Appellate Body has been non-functional since 2019 because the United States has been blocking the appointment of new judges, leading to a state of "appeals into the void."

2. Doha Development Round - Stalled due to agricultural issues: Correct. The Doha Development Round, initiated to improve global trade equity, particularly for developing countries, has stalled primarily because of disagreements over agricultural subsidies between developed and developing nations.

3. Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) principle - Undermined by Free Trade Agreements (FTAs): Correct. The proliferation of FTAs has indeed undermined the MFN principle, which is a cornerstone of the WTO's multilateral trading system, by allowing countries to offer preferential treatment to specific partners.

4. National Education Policy 2020 - Drafted by Dr. K. Kasturirangan: Correct. Dr. K. Kasturirangan played a significant role in drafting India's National Education Policy 2020, which aims to reform and revitalize the Indian education system.

Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights the issue of the Appellate Body of the WTO being non-functional due to the US blocking new judge appointments since 2019, which has hampered the dispute resolution mechanism of the organization. Statement-II correctly mentions the Doha Development Round initiated in 2001, which aimed to enhance global trade equity for developing countries but has faced significant barriers, especially concerning agricultural subsidies. The failure of the Doha Round is one of the key reasons behind the challenges faced by the WTO. Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II indeed provides additional context to explain the implications of the non-functionality of the Appellate Body in the broader context of WTO challenges.

The Deputy Speaker in the Lok Sabha plays a crucial role by presiding over the House in the absence of the Speaker. This position is essential for maintaining the legislative order and impartiality within the Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members present and voting. This role ensures the continuity of proceedings and upholds democratic values by allowing for bipartisan cooperation.

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. Article 93 of the Indian Constitution does not specify a timeline for the election of the Deputy Speaker. It only mandates that the Lok Sabha shall choose two members to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker, without specifying any particular timeframe such as 30 days for the election.

- Statement 2: This statement is correct. The election process for the Deputy Speaker is governed by parliamentary rules and requires a simple majority of the members present and voting in the Lok Sabha. This ensures that the election is based on the current composition and attendance of the House, allowing for a straightforward majority decision.

- Statement 3: This statement is correct. Although not mandated by the Constitution, it has been a convention to offer the position of Deputy Speaker to a member from the opposition parties. This practice fosters a sense of bipartisanship and inclusivity within the parliamentary proceedings, reinforcing democratic values and cooperation.

Thus, the correct answer is Option D, as statements 2 and 3 are accurate reflections of the processes and conventions related to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

1. Article 93 - Incorrect. Article 93 mandates the Lok Sabha to elect a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker from among its members, not by the President.

2. Article 95(1) - Correct. Article 95(1) specifies that the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker when the Speaker is absent.

3. Election Process - Correct. The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members of the Lok Sabha present and voting.

4. Tenure - Incorrect. The Deputy Speaker does not have a fixed term of five years. The tenure of the Deputy Speaker is not fixed and lasts during the life of the Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker can vacate the office under specific conditions like resignation or removal by a majority vote.

Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights that the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is indeed elected by a simple majority of Lok Sabha members present and voting. Statement-II is also accurate as it correctly mentions that the Deputy Speaker serves during the Lok Sabha's life but can be removed by a majority vote under specific conditions. Statement-II essentially explains the process and conditions surrounding the tenure and removal of the Deputy Speaker, making both statements accurate and interconnected.

The significant advantage of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in India by 2030 is highlighted as generating economic value of Rs 33.8 lakh crore. This economic potential of AI can contribute substantially to India's GDP, aiding in achieving the nation's goal of a USD 1 trillion digital economy by 2028. AI adoption is projected to enhance productivity across various sectors, including agriculture, manufacturing, and finance, showcasing the immense economic benefits AI can bring to the country.

Let's analyze each statement based on the provided data:

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The data indicates that India successfully reduced rural poverty from 18.4% to 2.8% between the years 2011-12 and 2022-23.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The text specifies that the five most populous states accounted for two-thirds of the decline in extreme poverty by 2022-23, not just half as stated.

3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) indeed improved significantly, decreasing from 53.8% in 2005-06 to 16.4% in 2019-21, reflecting better living conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C, as only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.