Test: Weekly Current Affairs: February 8th to 14th - UPSC MCQ

1. SEBI - Self-Regulatory Body: Incorrect. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is a statutory regulatory body, not a self-regulatory body. It was established to regulate the securities market in India and protect investors' interests.

2. IRDAI - Regulates the insurance sector: Correct. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is responsible for regulating and overseeing the insurance industry in India. It ensures the fair treatment of policyholders and the financial soundness of the insurance industry.

3. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission - Regulates tariffs for government-owned electricity generating companies: Correct. The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is involved in regulating tariffs of electricity generated by government-owned companies, among other functions related to grid operation and electricity distribution.

4. RBI - Oversees credit supply and banking operations: Correct. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country, and it regulates the credit supply and oversees banking operations to ensure financial stability and economic growth.

In summary, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 1 is not.

- Statement 1 is correct. Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 indeed disqualifies individuals sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more from contesting elections during the period of imprisonment and for an additional six years following their release.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) Case, 2002 required candidates to disclose their criminal records at the time of nominations, but it did not mandate political parties to publish these records transparently. The Public Interest Foundation Case, 2018, later mandated political parties to publish these records.

- Statement 3 is correct. Section 11 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides the Election Commission with the power to remove or reduce the period of disqualification for certain individuals, as seen in the case involving Prem Singh Tamang.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only. The explanation clearly aligns with the answer, ensuring accuracy and clarity.

The First Amendment Act of 1951 aimed primarily to protect land reform laws from judicial review by introducing provisions such as the Ninth Schedule, which listed laws that could not be challenged in court. This amendment was crucial in facilitating the redistribution of land from large landowners, known as zamindars, to peasants, thereby supporting the government's initiative to achieve social justice and economic equality post-independence. An interesting fact is that this amendment marked a significant shift in the relationship between the state and property rights, prioritizing social reform over individual property claims.

To determine which statements are correct, let's evaluate each one based on the provided content.

1. Statement 1: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) held the repo rate at 6.5% in the Economic Survey 2024-25.

- This statement is correct. The Economic Survey mentions that the RBI maintained the repo rate at 6.5%.

2. Statement 2: According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, India's Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) have decreased to 2.6%, a 12-year low.

- This statement is also correct. The survey highlights that the GNPA has indeed decreased to 2.6%, marking a 12-year low.

3. Statement 3: The Economic Survey 2024-25 projects India's services sector to grow by 8.5% due to strong performance in IT and finance.

- This statement is incorrect. The Economic Survey projects the services sector to grow by 7.2%, not 8.5%. Therefore, this statement does not align with the data provided.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making the correct answer Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Statement-I correctly highlights the objective of the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, which is to enhance credit access for MSMEs by providing loan guarantees. Statement-II accurately describes the role of the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd (NCGTC) in providing loan guarantees to financial institutions, including support for underserved sectors like MSMEs. Statement-II explains how NCGTC's functions align with the objectives stated in Statement-I, making both statements correct and interconnected.

The emergence of a terror regime, particularly following the collapse of governments like the Assad regime in Syria, has significantly strengthened terrorist infrastructures. This instability creates a power vacuum that terrorist organizations exploit to gain control and resources. An interesting fact is that such power vacuums often lead to the establishment of failed states, where governance is weak or non-existent, further allowing extremist groups to thrive and expand their influence.

- Statement 1 is correct. Under Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), a husband cannot be charged with rape if his wife is not below 15 years of age. This exception provides immunity to husbands under these circumstances, despite ongoing debates about consent.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. As of the latest information available, the Supreme Court of India has not criminalized marital rape. The issue remains a topic of legal debate, with ongoing petitions and discussions seeking to address this legal gap.

- Statement 3 is correct. The age of consent was effectively raised to 18 years following the Independent Thought vs Union of India case in 2017, which deemed the previous exemption allowing sexual intercourse with a wife aged 15 or above as arbitrary and unconstitutional.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

1. Exception to Marital Rape in India: Section 375(2) of IPC does indeed exempt husbands from rape charges if the wife is above 15 years of age. This is correct as per the current legal stance, although the age of consent was raised to 18 years, the legal exemption still stands as per the given notes. Correctly matched.

2. Age of Consent: The Independent Thought vs UoI Case, 2017, did indeed raise the age of consent to 18 years. Correctly matched.

3. Recognized Form of Violence: Marital rape is not legally recognized as a crime in India under certain conditions, contrary to the claim. Incorrectly matched.

4. Technological Advancements in Warfare: The statement claims India leads in developing quantum computing and hypersonic weapons, which is not accurate. Nations like the US, China, and Russia are leading in these technologies, not India. Incorrectly matched.

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, so the answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, establishes that individuals who are sentenced to two years or more are disqualified from contesting elections while they are in prison and for a period of six years after their release. This provision aims to uphold the integrity of the electoral process by ensuring that individuals who have committed serious offenses cannot participate in elections for a significant period. Interestingly, this legal framework reflects a broader global trend toward regulating the eligibility of convicted individuals in political contexts, with various countries adopting different approaches to ensure democratic integrity.

The Economic Survey 2024-25 projects a GDP growth range for India between 6.3% to 6.8% for the fiscal year 2025-26. This forecast indicates the expected trajectory of India's economic growth in the upcoming financial year, highlighting the potential performance and expansion of the country's economy.

- Statement 1: The First Amendment Act of 1951 indeed introduced the Ninth Schedule, which was designed to protect certain laws, especially those related to land reforms, from being challenged and invalidated by the judiciary. This statement is correct.

- Statement 2: The Shankari Prasad case did not establish that constitutional amendments could not alter fundamental rights. In fact, it upheld the notion that constitutional amendments, including those affecting fundamental rights, were valid. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

- Statement 3: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 did redefine the Right to Property. It was removed from the list of fundamental rights and was made a legal right under Article 300A. This means that the state cannot deprive a person of their property except by authority of law. This statement is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

The Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India case primarily addressed the validity of the First Amendment Act, 1951, which aimed to restrict the Right to Property. This case was significant as it set a precedent regarding the limits of constitutional amendments in India, highlighting the tension between individual rights and legislative power. An interesting fact is that this case underscored the ongoing debate about the power of Parliament to amend fundamental rights, a topic that continues to resonate in Indian constitutional discourse.

1. Article 12: Correctly matched. Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines "State" for the purpose of Part III, which deals with Fundamental Rights. It includes the government and Parliament of India, the government and the legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

2. Article 32: Correctly matched. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is known as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution, as described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

3. Article 226: Incorrectly matched. Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of not only Fundamental Rights but also for any other legal rights. It provides the High Courts with a broader scope than the Supreme Court in matters of writ jurisdiction.

4. Article 51A: Incorrectly matched. Article 51A specifies the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India. It does not relate to the issuance of writs or the powers of High Courts.

Thus, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, while pairs 3 and 4 are incorrectly matched.

Statement-I incorrectly suggests that regulatory bodies in India primarily focus on promoting monopolies in critical sectors. This is inaccurate as the primary role of regulatory bodies is to ensure fair practices, protect public interests, and enforce standards in specific sectors, as correctly stated in Statement-II. Regulatory bodies are established to monitor and regulate sectors of the economy to prevent monopolies and ensure a level playing field, rather than promoting monopolies. Hence, Statement-I is incorrect, while Statement-II is correct in explaining the actual role of regulatory bodies.

The current legal stance on marital rape in India, as per the information provided, states that husbands cannot be charged with rape if their wives are above 15 years of age, under Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code. This exemption allows husbands immunity from rape charges under certain conditions, despite issues of consent.

1. Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs - Correctly matched. The Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs indeed provides a 60% guarantee coverage to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans to MSMEs, helping them access credit for equipment and machinery purchases.

2. National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC - Incorrectly matched. NMDFC was established in 1994, not in 2007, to provide concessional credit for self-employment initiatives aimed at the socio-economic development of minority communities.

3. Jiyo Parsi Scheme - Correctly matched. Launched in 2013, the Jiyo Parsi Scheme aims to reverse the declining Parsi population through scientific measures, including financial assistance for fertility treatments.

4. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) - Correctly matched. PMJVK focuses on enhancing community infrastructure in minority-concentrated areas, covering aspects like health, skill development, women's projects, water supply, sanitation, and sports.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not.

The primary objective of the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MCGS-MSME) is to enhance access to credit for MSMEs by providing guarantees for loans, thereby reducing the perceived risk for lenders. This initiative aims to boost the manufacturing sector, support Make in India goals, improve credit access for MSMEs, and promote employment growth in the sector.

The primary objective of the First Amendment Act, 1951 in India was to protect land reform laws from judicial review. This amendment aimed to shield land reform laws from being struck down due to violations of fundamental rights. By introducing provisions like the Ninth Schedule, it helped in safeguarding these laws, especially concerning land reforms, from legal challenges.

Gender budgeting in India serves the primary purpose of ensuring that policies and resource allocations are gender-sensitive, addressing the unique needs of different genders and promoting gender equality. By adopting a strategic approach to allocate resources effectively, gender budgeting aims to combat gender inequality and empower women, aligning with global goals for gender equality and sustainable development.

Statement-I correctly presents the sector-wise growth projections for India's GDP in FY25, including the growth rates for agriculture, industry & manufacturing, and services as per the Economic Survey 2024-25. Statement-II accurately describes the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in issuing writs under Article 32 and Article 226 respectively, in alignment with the legal provisions regarding writ jurisdiction in India. However, these statements pertain to distinct topics and do not have a direct explanatory relationship, hence both statements are correct but not interrelated.

Approximately 8.3% of children globally have faced online sexual abuse in the past decade, which translates to one in twelve children. This statistic underscores the critical need for increased awareness and protective measures for children in online environments. It's important to note that the growing prevalence of internet usage among children, especially during periods of increased online activity like the Covid-19 pandemic, has contributed to this alarming trend.

Statement-I is incorrect because marital rape is not recognized as a crime in India. On the other hand, Statement-II is correct since India's defence budget is indeed lower than that of China. This makes option (d) the correct answer because while Statement-II is accurate, Statement-I is inaccurate.

The recent trend in terrorism emphasizes the evolution of new methods and strategies among extremist groups, significantly influenced by geopolitical instability and digital radicalization. This shift has led to unpredictable terrorism trends, including the resurgence of dormant groups and the adoption of unconventional tactics. An interesting aspect of this evolution is how technology has played a crucial role, allowing terrorist organizations to enhance their operational capabilities through advanced tools and cyber tools.

To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one based on the information provided:

1. Statement 1: The Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme provides a 70% guarantee coverage to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans extended to MSMEs.

- This statement is incorrect. The scheme provides a 60% guarantee coverage, not 70%. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. Statement 2: The scheme is applicable until a cumulative guarantee of Rs 7 lakh crore is issued or for a period of four years, whichever comes first.

- This statement is correct. The scheme is indeed applicable for four years or until a cumulative guarantee of Rs 7 lakh crore is achieved, as per the details provided.

3. Statement 3: Eligible borrowers under the scheme must have a valid Udyam Registration Number.

- This statement is correct. The scheme specifies that eligible borrowers need to have a valid Udyam Registration Number.

Based on the analysis, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

1. Section 8(3) is correctly matched. This section indeed disqualifies individuals sentenced to two years or more from contesting elections during the period of their imprisonment and for six years after their release.

2. Section 8(1) is correctly matched. It leads to immediate disqualification for individuals convicted of serious offenses, such as rape, terrorism, and corruption, without regard for the duration of the sentence.

3. Section 11 is incorrectly matched. It does not involve the Supreme Court but rather empowers the Election Commission of India to remove or reduce the period of disqualification in certain cases. An example includes the controversial case of Prem Singh Tamang.

4. Section 8(4) is incorrectly matched. This section was struck down by the Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas Case, 2013. It previously allowed convicted legislators to continue in office while appealing their convictions, but this provision no longer exists.

Thus, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.