Test: Weekly Current Affairs: March 22nd to 31st - UPSC MCQ

The recent fine imposed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) on Meta and the ban on sharing user data collected on WhatsApp with other Meta companies primarily stem from concerns related to anti-competitive practices. This action signifies the growing scrutiny of Big Tech companies in India and the necessity for a robust competition law framework to ensure fair practices in the digital market.

1. Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 - Establishment of a Data Protection Board: This pair is correctly matched. The DPDP Act, 2023, indeed proposes the establishment of a Data Protection Board to oversee personal data protection and compliance in India.

2. Operation Green Hunt - Naxalite counter-insurgency operations: This pair is correctly matched. Operation Green Hunt refers to coordinated efforts by Indian security forces to combat Naxalite insurgency in various affected states.

3. Universal Service Obligation Fund Scheme (Digital Bharat Nidhi) - Installation of mobile towers in remote areas: This pair is correctly matched. The scheme, now known as Digital Bharat Nidhi, aims to enhance communication infrastructure, including the installation of mobile towers in remote and rural areas.

4. NCLAT - Imposes fines on Big Tech companies in India: This pair is incorrectly matched. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a judicial body that hears appeals against the orders of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) but does not impose fines. It can stay or overturn CCI's decisions, as seen in the stay on CCI's fine against Meta.

In conclusion, pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

The in-house inquiry mechanism, established in 1999, is designed to handle allegations against judges that do not meet the threshold for impeachment. It begins with a preliminary inquiry, and if the complaint is deemed credible, it leads to a detailed investigation overseen by a three-member committee. This process allows for a thorough examination of allegations against judges to ensure accountability and uphold judicial integrity.

1. Statement 1: The Supreme Court Collegium's recommendation for the transfer of a judge does not require the consent of the concerned judge.

- This statement is correct. Under Article 222 of the Indian Constitution, the President can transfer a judge from one High Court to another on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, and the consent of the judge is not necessary for such a transfer.

2. Statement 2: The in-house inquiry mechanism was established to address allegations against judges that do not warrant impeachment.

- This statement is also correct. The in-house inquiry procedure was established to handle allegations of misconduct against judges that are serious but do not meet the criteria for impeachment. It allows for a thorough investigation while maintaining judicial standards and integrity.

3. Statement 3: Judicial transfers in India are notified through the Gazette of India after the President's approval.

- This statement is correct as well. Once the President approves the recommendation of the Collegium for the transfer of a judge, it is notified via the Gazette of India, which is a standard procedure for official notifications.

Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2 and 3.

1. Judicial Transfers - Article 222 of the Indian Constitution: Correctly matched. Judicial transfers are governed by Article 222, which allows the President to transfer judges based on the recommendations of the Chief Justice of India.

2. In-House Inquiry - Established in 1999 following the C. Ravichandran Iyer case: Correctly matched. The in-house inquiry mechanism was indeed established in 1999, following the C. Ravichandran Iyer case, to manage allegations against judges that do not qualify for impeachment.

3. Role of the Executive in Judicial Transfers - Initiated by the Chief Justice of India: Incorrectly matched. While the Chief Justice of India plays a crucial role in recommending transfers, the role of the executive involves forwarding the Collegium's recommendation through the Union Law Minister and the Prime Minister before the President approves it. The initiation is not by the executive but by the judiciary.

4. Migration Trends Post-Covid - Driven by climate change in agrarian states: Incorrectly matched. While climate change influences migration trends, the primary driver of post-Covid migration trends was the economic impact of the Covid-19 pandemic and the subsequent reversal of migration patterns, not solely climate change.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1 and 2.

Statement-I correctly highlights that the transfer of judges in India is indeed governed by Article 222 of the Indian Constitution, which empowers the President to transfer judges based on the recommendations of the Chief Justice of India. This process does not require the consent of the judge being transferred.
Statement-II accurately describes the outcomes of in-house inquiries against judges in India. These inquiries can lead to various outcomes based on the severity of the misconduct, ranging from warnings for minor infractions to recommendations for resignation or impeachment for serious misconduct. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the process outlined in Statement-I.

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) was indeed established in 1997 to promote economic cooperation and regional integration among countries bordering the Indian Ocean. It aims to enhance economic growth and sustainable development in the region.

Statement 2 is also correct. One of the significant challenges faced by IORA is financial constraints. The organization operates on a limited budget primarily reliant on member-state contributions, which restricts its operational capacity and affects the execution of its mandates.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While IORA does include member states and dialogue partners, their collaboration is not limited exclusively to maritime safety. The organization engages in a variety of initiatives, including trade, investment, disaster management, and sustainable development, among others.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. IORA Establishment Year - 1995: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Indian Ocean Rim Association was formally established on March 7, 1997. The vision for IORA originated during a visit by Nelson Mandela to India in 1995, but its actual establishment was in 1997.
2. Current Member States of IORA - 23: This pair is correctly matched. IORA comprises 23 member states.
3. IORA Secretariat Location - Mauritius: This pair is correctly matched. The IORA Secretariat is located in Ebene, Mauritius.
4. India's Vision Related to IORA - SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region): This pair is correctly matched. India's strategic vision related to its engagement in the Indian Ocean Region, including IORA, is encapsulated in the SAGAR initiative, which focuses on maritime security and sustainable development.
Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

The Cost Inflation Index (CII) plays a crucial role in ensuring that taxpayers do not incur excessive taxes on long-term capital gains due to asset price increases. By adjusting the purchase price of assets for inflation, the CII helps in maintaining a fair taxation system. This index is particularly important for determining the salaries and pensions of Members of Parliament every five years, aligning them with economic conditions and inflation rates.

- Statement 1: The statement is correct. The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 indeed highlights stagnation and a decline in real wages for regular workers, with slight decreases noted in the report.

- Statement 2: The statement is correct. According to the provided information, MPs' salaries are adjusted based on the Cost Inflation Index (CII) every five years, as established by the Finance Act, 2018.

- Statement 3: The statement is incorrect. The text indicates that the average income of a retired Member of Parliament exceeds that of the average Indian, suggesting a widening income gap between political leaders and the general populace.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Cost Inflation Index (CII) - Correctly matched. The CII is indeed used to adjust MPs' salaries every five years based on inflation, as stipulated by the Finance Act, 2018.

2. India Employment Report (IER) 2024 - Incorrectly matched. The IER 2024 indicates stagnation and a decline in real wages for the working population, but it specifically mentions a slight increase for self-employed individuals, not a decline.

3. Salaries, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954 - Correctly matched. This act was amended in 2018 to include the indexing of MPs' salaries to the Cost Inflation Index.

4. Average real wages for regular salaried workers in 2023 - Incorrectly matched. The average real wages for regular salaried workers actually decreased from Rs 10,925 in 2022 to Rs 10,790 in 2023, rather than increased.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

One of the key challenges faced by India's automobile sector is the shortage of skilled workers, particularly in automation and hydrogen technology. This scarcity hampers progress in sustainable mobility and technological advancements within the industry. Addressing this shortage through targeted training and education programs is crucial for the sector's growth and competitiveness in the global market.

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The automobile industry in India has been de-licensed since 1991, allowing 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) through the automatic route. This policy has indeed facilitated the entry of global manufacturers such as Suzuki, Hyundai, and Honda into the Indian market, significantly boosting the manufacturing capabilities of the country.

2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. Import dependency for critical components like lithium-ion cells and semiconductors does impact the costs in the Indian automobile sector. Such dependencies expose the sector to global supply chain disruptions, leading to increased costs and potential production delays, especially given the volatility in global markets for these materials.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The auto component industry contributes 2.3% to India’s GDP, not more than 5%. While the industry is a significant part of the economy, its contribution is less than what is implied in the statement.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A: 1 Only the correct choice.

1. Total vehicle production in 2023-24 - 28 million units: This pair is correctly matched. The information states that India's vehicle production reached 28 million units in the 2023-24 period.

2. Electric Vehicle registrations by August 2024 - 4.4 million: This pair is correctly matched. The data provided indicates that Electric Vehicle registrations crossed 4.4 million by August 2024.

3. Automotive industry contribution to GDP - 10%: This pair is incorrectly matched. The automotive industry contributes approximately 6% to India's GDP, not 10%.

4. Export of auto components in FY24 - USD 21.2 billion: This pair is correctly matched. It is mentioned that the export of auto components reached USD 21.2 billion in FY24.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Therefore, the answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

The collegium system, governing the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts, raises concerns due to the lack of defined criteria for selecting judges. This ambiguity can potentially lead to issues such as favoritism and nepotism, commonly referred to as the "Uncle Judge Syndrome." Having clear and transparent selection criteria is essential to ensure merit-based appointments and maintain the integrity of the judicial system.

1. Statement 1: The appointment of Supreme Court judges is indeed made by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution, but it involves consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other judges, not unilaterally without any consultation. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

2. Statement 2: The collegium system does indeed govern the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts. This system, developed through Supreme Court judgments, is criticized for lacking a formal structure and transparency, which is correct. Thus, this statement is correct.

3. Statement 3: The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was proposed to create a more transparent and accountable system for judicial appointments. However, it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 because it was perceived to undermine judicial independence, which is correct. Thus, this statement is correct.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 2 and 3 Only.

1. Article 124(2) - Appointment of High Court judges: Incorrect. Article 124(2) pertains to the appointment of Supreme Court judges, not High Court judges. High Court judges are appointed under Article 217.

2. Article 217 - Consultation with the Chief Justice of India for Supreme Court judges: Incorrect. Article 217 deals with the appointment of High Court judges, where the President consults the Chief Justice of India and other relevant authorities. The appointment of Supreme Court judges is guided by Article 124.

3. Collegium System - Lacks legislative backing and transparency: Correct. The collegium system, which governs the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts, indeed lacks formal legislative backing. It is often criticized for its lack of transparency and accountability.

4. National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) - Established by the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act: Correct. The NJAC was introduced by the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, aiming to make the process of judicial appointments more transparent and accountable. However, it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.

Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched, making the total number of correctly matched pairs three.

The 2017 ruling in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India affirmed that abortion falls under a woman's right to privacy and liberty as per Article 21. This legal decision played a crucial role in recognizing and upholding the rights of women in making choices regarding their reproductive health and autonomy.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 2021 indeed allows abortions up to 24 weeks, but it requires the approval of two registered medical practitioners (RMPs). This is part of the legal provisions to ensure safe and regulated abortion services.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Shantilal Shah Committee, established in 1966, indeed proposed the broadening of abortion laws in India. The committee's recommendations were instrumental in the enactment of the MTP Act of 1971, aimed at reducing unsafe abortions and maternal mortality rates.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. Mandatory pregnancy registration in states like Haryana does not enhance confidentiality; rather, it compromises confidentiality and may push women towards unsafe abortions due to fear of disclosure and stigma. This is contrary to the objective of encouraging women to seek safe abortion services.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the right answer.

1. Shantilal Shah Committee - This is correctly matched. The Shantilal Shah Committee was established in 1966 to address the issue of unsafe abortions and recommended broadening abortion laws to protect women's health.

2. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita - This is incorrectly matched. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, formerly known as the Indian Penal Code, still criminalizes abortions outside the exceptions provided in the MTP Act, 2021. It does not decriminalize all abortions.

3. MTP Act, 2021 - This is correctly matched. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 2021 allows abortions up to 24 weeks with the approval of two registered medical practitioners under certain conditions.

4. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India - This is correctly matched. The ruling recognized abortion as part of a woman's right to privacy and liberty under Article 21.

Additional Information: The Shantilal Shah Committee played a crucial role in the formulation of the MTP Act of 1971. The Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case reaffirmed the fundamental right to privacy, influencing various aspects of personal liberty, including reproductive rights.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, but since the question requires us to identify how many are correctly matched according to the options given, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs, because pair 2 is incorrect.

Statement-I correctly highlights that legal reforms in India have not completely removed barriers to safe abortion services. Statement-II supports this by indicating that access to abortion in India is still conditional and varies significantly across different states. The conditional nature of abortion access in India, despite legal reforms, underscores the persistence of barriers and challenges faced by individuals seeking abortion services. Thus, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II provides relevant context that explains Statement-I.

Recent data indicating a reduction in poverty levels and an increase in household incomes has prompted the need for a reassessment of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013. This data suggests that the current beneficiaries of the NFSA may no longer require as much subsidized food support, signaling a potential shift in policy priorities towards more effective resource allocation strategies.

- Statement 1 is correct. The Shanta Kumar Committee, formed in 2015, indeed recommended reducing the PDS coverage to 40% to better target food subsidies. This recommendation was made to improve the targeting of subsidies and ensure that only those who genuinely need assistance receive it.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) in rural areas actually increased by 45% from 2011-12 levels, not 38%. The 38% increase pertains to the urban areas. This distinction is crucial for understanding the economic trends in rural versus urban areas over the given period.

- Statement 3 is correct. The government spends approximately Rs 2 lakh crore annually on the National Food Security Act. This expenditure highlights the significant financial commitment involved in providing subsidized food to a large segment of the population.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as both these statements accurately reflect the information provided in the context of reassessing food subsidies in India.

1. Shanta Kumar Committee (2015) - Recommended reducing PDS coverage to 40%: This pair is correctly matched. The Shanta Kumar Committee indeed recommended reducing the Public Distribution System (PDS) coverage to 40% to better target subsidies.

2. NFSA, 2013 - Provides subsidized food to over 60 crore people: This pair is incorrectly matched. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 actually provides subsidized food to over 81 crore people, not 60 crore.

3. Rural MPCE in 2023-24 - Increased by 45% from 2011-12 levels: This pair is correctly matched. The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) in rural areas increased by 45% from the 2011-12 levels.

4. SBI Study 2024 - Estimates India's poverty ratio to be around 10%: This pair is incorrectly matched. The SBI study estimates India's poverty ratio to be around 4-4.5% in 2024, not 10%.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Statement-I correctly states that the Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) has significantly risen in both rural and urban areas, as mentioned in the key takeaways of the provided information. This rise in MPCE is supported by the data presented in the context.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. While it is true that the government spends a significant amount annually on the National Food Security Act (NFSA), the specific amount mentioned in the statement (Rs 2 lakh crore) does not directly relate to the opportunity for resource reallocation as implied in the statement. The opportunity for resource reallocation is discussed in the Additional Details section in relation to the significant reduction in poverty levels and the need to reassess the coverage of the NFSA. Therefore, Statement-II does not accurately align with the information provided.