Test: Weekly Current Affairs: October 8th to 14th - UPSC MCQ

The Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) in India play a crucial role in accelerating the trial process for serious criminal cases, particularly focusing on offenses like sexual crimes and violations under specific acts such as the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act). These courts were established to address the delays in traditional court systems and provide swift justice to victims of heinous crimes.

To determine which statements are correct, let's analyze each one based on the data provided:

• Statement 1: "The share of Government Health Expenditure (GHE) in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increased significantly from 1.13% in 2014-15 to 1.84% in 2021-22."
  This statement is correct. The NHA estimates indicate that there has been a significant increase in the share of GHE in GDP, reflecting the government's increased investment in healthcare over the years, particularly in response to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Statement 2: "The Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) as a percentage of Total Health Expenditure (THE) decreased from 62.6% in 2014-15 to 39.4% in 2021-22."
  This statement is also correct. The reduction in OOPE as a percentage of THE indicates that the government's efforts to increase public health spending have been successful, leading to a greater reliance on public health services and reduced financial burden on individuals.
• Statement 3: "The Social Security Expenditure (SSE) on health as a share of Total Health Expenditure rose from 5.7% in 2014-15 to 12% in 2021-22."
  This statement is incorrect. While there was an increase in the SSE share of Total Health Expenditure, it rose to 8.7% in 2021-22, not 12%.
  Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B: 1 and 2 Only the correct answer.

1. The first pair is correctly matched. The Government Health Expenditure (GHE) as a percentage of GDP indeed increased from 1.13% in 2014-15 to 1.84% in 2021-22. This reflects the government's increased commitment to public healthcare, especially post-COVID-19.

2. The second pair is correctly matched. Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) as a share of Total Health Expenditure decreased from 62.6% in 2014-15 to 39.4% in 2021-22. This decline is due to increased public health spending, reducing the financial burden on individuals.

3. The third pair is incorrectly matched. In fact, the share of Government Health Expenditure in Total Health Expenditure increased from 29% in 2014-15 to 48% in 2021-22, not the other way around. This indicates a shift towards more public funding in health services.

4. The fourth pair is correctly matched. Social Security Expenditure on Health as a share of Total Health Expenditure increased from 5.7% in 2014-15 to 8.7% in 2021-22. This growth includes government-funded health insurance, reducing out-of-pocket payments.

The primary objective of DRDO's new program is to minimize dependence on foreign imports for defence products through indigenisation. This initiative aims to foster the development of innovative military technologies within the country, thereby enhancing national security by promoting self-reliance in defence production.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The DRDO's initiative indeed focuses on advanced research in areas such as artificial intelligence, quantum computing, and blockchain, which are part of its efforts to transform military technologies and enhance national security.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Technology Development Fund (TDF) does not solely collaborate with multinational corporations; it primarily collaborates with private sectors, particularly MSMEs (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises) and startups to develop necessary military hardware and software. This collaboration is focused on boosting indigenous capabilities rather than relying on multinational corporations.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The DRDO's program is inspired by the US DARPA model, aiming to reduce dependency on foreign imports by fostering indigenisation and advancing innovative military technologies. This initiative supports the development of systems and components needed for the tri-services (Army, Navy, Air Force) within India.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

1. Agni Missile Series - Indigenisation: Correctly matched. The Agni missile series is a product of indigenous development efforts by DRDO, aimed at reducing dependence on foreign imports for strategic defence capabilities.

2. Blockchain - Cutting-edge technology: Correctly matched. Blockchain is recognized as a cutting-edge technology with potential applications in secure communications and data integrity, both of which are relevant to modern defence strategies.

3. Light Combat Aircraft Tejas - Disruptive technology: Incorrectly matched. While the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas is an important indigenous development, it is not categorized as disruptive technology. It represents significant indigenisation efforts to enhance air defence capabilities.

4. Quantum Computing - Futuristic technology: Incorrectly matched. Quantum computing is considered a futuristic technology due to its potential to revolutionize processing capabilities and cryptography, making it a focus area for DRDO's advanced research initiatives.

Thus, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.

The study emphasizes that the high consumption of advanced glycation end products (AGEs) found in ultra-processed foods is a significant reason behind India's status as the "diabetic capital of the world." These harmful substances are formed during high-temperature cooking methods and contribute to various health issues, including diabetes.

• Statement 1 is correct. Ultra-processed foods contain high levels of advanced glycation end products (AGEs), which are harmful compounds formed when sugars react with proteins or fats during high-temperature cooking processes such as frying or roasting. These AGEs contribute to oxidative stress and inflammation, which are key factors in the development of various chronic diseases, including diabetes.
• Statement 2 is correct. The consumption of ultra-processed foods is associated with quick spikes in blood sugar levels, leading to insulin resistance over time. This is primarily due to their high glycemic index, which rapidly increases blood glucose levels, thus contributing to the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While ultra-processed foods are typically low in fiber, they are not high in essential vitamins and minerals. Instead, they are often high in calories, unhealthy fats, sugars, and salt, all of which can promote weight gain and obesity. These nutritional imbalances, rather than an abundance of essential nutrients, contribute to health issues.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct answer. This conclusion is supported by the detailed understanding of how ultra-processed foods negatively impact health, specifically in relation to diabetes and obesity.

1. Advanced Glycation End Products (AGEs) - Reduce oxidative stress: Incorrect. Advanced Glycation End Products (AGEs) actually contribute to oxidative stress, which is an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants, leading to inflammation and cellular damage.

2. Ultra-processed foods - High in fiber and low in calories: Incorrect. Ultra-processed foods are typically low in fiber and high in calories, which can lead to weight gain and obesity, both of which are significant risk factors for diabetes.

3. Additives in UPFs - May contribute to inflammation: Correct. Additives like preservatives, artificial colors, sweeteners, and emulsifiers found in ultra-processed foods may negatively impact health and contribute to inflammation, gut imbalances, and metabolic disorders.

4. Dietary interventions with low-AGE foods - Improve insulin sensitivity: Correct. Dietary interventions focusing on low-AGE foods have shown to improve insulin sensitivity and reduce inflammation compared to high-AGE diets, thus potentially lowering the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.

Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights that Floriculture is indeed recognized as a "sunrise industry" by the Indian government due to its economic potential and growth prospects. Conversely, Statement-II is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that Floriculture primarily involves the cultivation of food crops like grains, vegetables, and pulses for direct consumption. In reality, Floriculture is the cultivation of flowering and ornamental plants for various uses, including direct sales, cosmetics, perfumes, and pharmaceutical applications, rather than food crops.

The study emphasizes that the high consumption of Advanced Glycation End (AGE)-rich foods is a significant reason behind India's status as the "diabetic capital of the world." AGEs are harmful substances formed during high-temperature cooking methods like frying or roasting when sugars react with proteins or fats. These compounds contribute to oxidative stress, inflammation, and cellular damage, all of which are linked to diabetes.

- Statement 1: This is correct. Advanced glycation end products (AGEs) are indeed harmful substances that contribute to oxidative stress, which can lead to inflammation and cellular damage. This is one of the reasons why high consumption of AGE-rich foods is linked to increased diabetes risk.

- Statement 2: This is incorrect. Ultra-processed foods are generally low in fiber and high in calories, which is contrary to what is stated here. These characteristics actually contribute to rapid spikes in blood sugar levels and are linked to obesity and diabetes, not beneficial blood sugar maintenance.

- Statement 3: This is correct. Dietary interventions that focus on low-AGE foods have been shown to improve insulin sensitivity and reduce inflammation, which are beneficial for individuals at risk of developing diabetes.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the right answer.

1. Advanced Glycation End Products (AGEs) - Correctly matched. AGEs are harmful compounds formed when sugars react with proteins or fats during high-temperature cooking methods like frying or roasting. These compounds contribute to oxidative stress, inflammation, and cellular damage, which can increase the risk of diabetes.

2. Ultra-Processed Foods (UPFs) - Incorrectly matched. UPFs are typically low in fiber and high in calories, which can lead to weight gain and obesity, both significant risk factors for diabetes. They are not high in fiber and low in calories.

3. Insulin Resistance - Correctly matched in terms of its contribution to diabetes but not correctly matched in the statement context. Insulin resistance is indeed a condition that leads to reduced insulin sensitivity, contributing to the development of type 2 diabetes.

4. Additives in Foods - Incorrectly matched. While additives in foods can have various effects, many, such as preservatives, artificial colors, and emulsifiers, can negatively impact health, contributing to inflammation and gut imbalances, rather than improving metabolism and gut health.

Statement-I correctly defines floriculture as the cultivation of flowering and ornamental plants for various purposes. Statement-II highlights challenges faced by floriculture farmers in India, which include high initial costs, inadequate infrastructure, and export barriers. Both statements are correct, but Statement-II provides additional information about challenges specific to the floriculture industry, without explaining the definition provided in Statement-I. Thus, option (b) is the correct choice.

The primary goal of the European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is to align the carbon price for imports with that of EU-produced goods to ensure fair competition and promote cleaner industrial practices in non-EU nations. By doing so, the EU aims to maintain equitable competition and encourage the adoption of greener production methods globally.

• Statement 1 is correct. The CBAM requires EU importers to register and acquire certificates that reflect the carbon emissions associated with the goods they import. This mechanism is intended to ensure that imported goods are subject to the same carbon emission pricing as goods produced within the EU.
• Statement 2 is correct. The European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) does indeed mandate that specific commodities, including coffee and palm oil, must not come from recently deforested land or contribute to forest degradation. This regulation aims to prevent deforestation linked to agricultural expansion.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the EUDR aims to reduce carbon emissions, the specific target of reducing carbon emissions by at least 32 million metric tonnes annually is not associated with the CBAM, but rather with the EUDR's objectives concerning deforestation and forest degradation. The CBAM itself primarily focuses on fair competition and aligning carbon pricing, not directly setting a specific emission reduction target.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

• CBAM covers goods like cement, iron and steel, and fertilizers.
  This is correctly matched. CBAM initially targets high-risk carbon leakage goods, including cement, iron and steel, aluminum, fertilizers, electricity, and hydrogen.
• EUDR aims to reduce carbon emissions by at least 50 million metric tonnes annually.
  This is incorrectly matched. The EUDR aims to reduce at least 32 million metric tonnes of carbon emissions annually from the commodities it regulates.
• CBAM requires importers to register with national authorities and acquire certificates.
  This is correctly matched. Importers under CBAM must register with authorities and obtain CBAM certificates corresponding to the carbon emissions of their imports.
• EUDR mandates that commodities like cocoa and soy do not originate from recently deforested land.
  This is correctly matched. EUDR requires that commodities such as cattle, wood, cocoa, soy, palm oil, coffee, and rubber, and related products do not come from recently deforested land.
  Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

The correct answer is Option A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
- Statement I correctly highlights India's perception of the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) as a form of protectionism and a non-tariff barrier for specific commodities entering the EU market.
- Statement II accurately points out that the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) may pose challenges for India's target of achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070.

Revising the base year for GDP calculations is essential to incorporate changes in economic structures, indicators, and consumer behaviors over time. By updating the base year, countries like India can ensure that GDP figures accurately reflect the current economic realities and provide a more precise assessment of economic performance.

1. The first pair is correctly matched. The previous base year revision indeed changed from 2004-05 to 2011-12.

2. The second pair is incorrectly matched. The methodology for the private corporate sector during the last revision did not rely on the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Instead, it primarily used data from audited balance sheets in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) database, moving away from IIP and the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) data.

3. The third pair is incorrectly matched. The criticism was about the use of a single deflator, not the double deflation method. The concern was that India used a single deflator instead of the internationally accepted double deflation method, which involves using different price indices like CPI and WPI to adjust both nominal value-added and output prices.

4. The fourth pair is correctly matched. The Advisory Committee on National Accounts Statistics (ACNAS) is indeed chaired by Biswanath Goldar, determining the new base year for GDP data.

Thus, only the first and fourth pairs are correctly matched.

The earliest epigraphical evidence of Sati dates back to the Eran Pillar Inscription from Madhya Pradesh in 510 AD. This historical record marks one of the earliest documented instances of the Sati practice, shedding light on its early existence and cultural significance.

Fast-Track Courts (FTSCs) were established in India primarily to accelerate the resolution of serious criminal cases, especially those related to sexual offenses such as rape and violations under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act). This initiative aimed to address the increasing number of sexual crimes and the lengthy trial durations in traditional courts, ensuring timely justice for victims. The establishment of FTSCs was formalized through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act in 2018 and subsequent implementation through a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in 2019.

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987, specifies life imprisonment for the abetment of Sati, not for glorification. Glorification of Sati is punishable by imprisonment ranging from one to seven years, along with a fine.

2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829 was indeed implemented by Lord William Bentinck and it made the practice of Sati illegal in the territories under the control of the British East India Company, specifically in Bengal. It was a significant step in the legal abolition of Sati.

3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act of 1856 was introduced primarily due to the efforts of social reformer Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar. Raja Rammohan Roy was instrumental in campaigning against the practice of Sati, but he was not directly associated with the movement for widow remarriage.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Fast-Track Courts (FTSCs) were established in India primarily to accelerate the resolution of serious criminal cases, especially those related to sexual offenses such as rape and violations under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act). This initiative aimed to address the increasing number of sexual crimes and the lengthy trial durations in traditional courts, ensuring timely justice for victims. The establishment of FTSCs was formalized through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act in 2018 and subsequent implementation through a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in 2019.

1. Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829 - Governor-General William Bentinck: This pair is correctly matched. William Bentinck was the Governor-General who implemented the Bengal Sati Regulation, making the practice illegal in British India.

2. Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 - Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar: This pair is correctly matched. Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a key reformer who advocated for the remarriage of Hindu widows, leading to the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act in 1856.

3. Age of Consent Act, 1891 - Lord Curzon: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Age of Consent Act, 1891, was passed during the tenure of Lord Lansdowne, not Lord Curzon. The act raised the age of consent for girls from 10 to 12 years.

4. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 - Harbilas Sarda: This pair is correctly matched. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929, is also known as the Sarda Act, named after its sponsor, Harbilas Sarda, which aimed to restrain child marriages by setting minimum ages for marriage.

Statement-I is accurate as the earliest epigraphical evidence of Sati is indeed traced back to the Eran Pillar Inscription from Madhya Pradesh in 510 AD. This historical fact aligns with recorded evidence. Statement-II is also correct as the Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829, enacted under British Governor-General William Bentinck, declared the practice of Sati illegal in British India. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to Statement-I, making option (b) the correct choice.