UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 - UPSC MCQ

Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with power to issue directions for interception or monitoring or decryption of any information through any computer resource:
Where the Central Government or a State Government or any of its officers specially authorised by the Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be, in this behalf may, if satisfied that it is necessary or expedient to do in the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to above or for investigation of any offence, it may, subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), for reasons to be recorded in writing, by order, direct any agency of the appropriate Government to intercept, monitor or decrypt or cause to be intercepted or monitored or decrypted any information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource.

• The procedure and safeguards subject to which such interception or monitoring or decryption may be carried out, shall be such as may be prescribed.
• The subscriber or intermediary or any person in-charge of the computer resource shall, when called upon by any agency referred to in sub-section (1), extend all facilities and technical assistance to-
  (a) provide access to or secure access to the computer resource generating, transmitting, receiving or storing such information; or
  (b) intercept, monitor, or decrypt the information, as the case may be;or
  (c) provide information stored in computer resource.
  (d) The subscriber or intermediary or any person who fails to assist the agency referred to in sub- section (3) shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

Recently in December 2018, the government has empowered 10 central agencies to monitor and decrypt any information on any computer in India. The order authorizes the Intelligence Bureau,  Narcotics Control Bureau, Enforcement Directorate, Central Board of Direct Taxes, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, Central Bureau of Investigation, National Investigation Agency, Cabinet Secretariat (R&AW), Directorate of Signal Intelligence (for service areas of Jammu and Kashmir, North-East and Assam only) and the Commissioner of Police, Delhi, to track content ―generated, received and stored" in any computer belonging to any individual or organization.

Statement 1 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly, the personnel of the state services hold office during the pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state services.

Statement 2 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by the parliament with a special majority.

• When Gandhi decided that the Indian Opinion, his weekly paper, should be printed at a farm away from the city, he purchased an estate in Natal province, fourteen miles from Durban (South Africa). This would be a place where everyone would labour, and draw the same salary. He called this the Phoenix Settlement. It was desolate, overgrown with grass and trees, snake infested and suffered from severe winters as well as water scarcity. In this inhospitable area came and settled some Englishmen, a few Tamil and Hindi speaking people, one or two Zulus, and six Gujarat is.
• Gandhi could not actually live on the land for long, but would visit it at frequent intervals. His visits were special occasions which the children of the Settlement eagerly looked forward to. He would laugh and play with them. The settlers would prepare special dishes, Gandhi relishing good food in those days, and eat together on Sundays. The press-workers did all the work in the press themselves, bringing out the Indian Opinion. On nights when the final printing was done, they would need to stay up all night. To encourage them, kheer would be served

• The Sun generates a magnetic field that extends out into space. However, the sun's magnetic field changes both its shape and intensity over the surface, and over time, much more rapidly.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Heliosphere is often described as a kind of bubble that contains our solar system. It is the domain of the Sun‘s magnetic influence, which extends beyond Pluto and is caused by the Sun‘s solarwinds.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Sunspots form on the surface of the Sun due to strong magnetic field lines coming up from within the Sun through the solar surface and appear visibly as dark spots compared to their surroundings. These sunspots which can become many times bigger than the Earth are always dark because they are much cooler than the surrounding surface of the Sun itself. A big sunspot can have a temperature of 3700°C.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The Sun's magnetic field changes polarity approximately every 11 years. It happens at the peak of each solar cycle as the sun's inner magnetic dynamo re-organizes itself. On the other hand, Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years, although it has been more than twice that long since the lastreversal.

(i) The first Buddhist Council was held at Rajagraha under the chairmanship of Mahakasapa immediately after the death of Buddha. Its purpose was to maintain the purity of the teachings of the Buddha. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
(ii) The second Buddhist Council was convened at Vaisali around 383 B.C. The third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of Asoka. Moggaliputta Tissa presided over it. The final version of Tripitakas was completed in this council. The fourth Buddhist Council was convened in Kashmir by Kanishka under the chairmanship of Vasumitra. Asvagosha participated in this council. The new school of Buddhism called Mahayana Buddhism came into existence during this council.
(iii) The Buddhism preached by the Buddha and propagated by Asoka was known as Hinayana. So, during the earlier Buddhist Councils the debate between followers of Hinayana and Mahayana sects was not found as the Mahayana tradition as a different sect did not come into existence. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Original jurisdiction means the power to hear the appeal in the first instance, not by way of appeal. Original jurisdiction of High Court extends to –
(a) Matters of admiralty, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court.
(b) Disputes related to election of members of Parliament and State legislature ( Article 329(b)).
(c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
(d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
(e) Cases ordered to be transferred from subordinate court involving the interpretation of the constitution to its own file.
(f) The four High Courts (Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi) have original civil jurisdiction in cases of higher value.

Statement 2 is correct: Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends to the disputes between– 
(a) Centre and one or more states.
(b) Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on other side
(c) Between two or more states( Article131)

Statement 3 is correct: Jurisdiction and powers of Supreme court are – 
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Writ jurisdiction
(c) Appellate jurisdiction
(d) Advisory jurisdiction
(e) Court of record ( Article 129)
(f) Power of judicial review
(g) Other powers
(h) Jurisdiction and power of High court are – 
(i) Original jurisdiction
(ii) Writ jurisdiction
(iii) Appellate jurisdiction
(iv) Supervisory jurisdiction
(v) Control over subordinate courts
(vi) Court of record ( Article 215)
(vii) Power of judicial review

• Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct: The World Bank’s Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF) supports developing countries in establishing and implementing market-based climate change mitigation mechanisms by providing results-based financing for proven emission reductions achieved at sectoral level. TCAF supports developing countries in planning, implementing, and scaling up their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to accelerate the transition to low-carbon economies. As well, TCAF helps shape international carbon markets for the post-Kyotoera.
• The TCAF will fund emission reduction activities using broad-based programmes to overcome the project-based approach, achieving a transformative effect in partner countries. The funded measures are integrated into the respective national climate change strategies, thus boosting national climate change mitigation effort and securing a lasting contribution to achieving climatically sound sustainable development.
• Transformative Carbon Asset Facility is an international finance facility piloting innovative, results-based carbon market mechanism set up at Paris Climate Change summit 2015.

3. Dharanikota (now called Dharanikota) is a village in Guntur district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is located in Amaravathi mandal of Guntur revenue division.

Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants  –  khud-kashta  and  pahi-  kashta. The former were residents of the village in which they held their lands. The latter were non- resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis. People became pahi-kashta either out of choice
Example, when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable – or out of compulsion
Example, forced by economic distress after a famine

• The burials in the Harappan period were all in brick or stone lined rectangular or oval pits. The body was usually interred clothed shrouded or in a wooden coffin in the north south direction in a straight direction. It was important that the body did not come into contact with the ground. The only evidence of wooden coffins is the presence of a wooden stain in the body of the corpse. The bodies of the individuals were usually buried with their jewellery which usually consisted of bangles made from shell, steatite beads, etc, and the men usually wore earrings. Copper mirrors have been found only amongst the bodies of the females which show specificity of grave goods bygender.
• A few unique burials were found in the grave sites of Lothal, Ropar, and Rojdi. In Ropar a man was found buried with a dog. In Rodji two infants were found buried beneath the floor of a house. In Lothal three double burials have been found. There are some examples from Lothal of pairs of skeletons with a male and a female each buried together. Hence option (c) is correct. The unique burials in this site show that not all burials were solely centred on social hierarchy andstatus.

• The process of digestion allows large food particles to be broken down into nutrient molecules that are small enough for intestines to absorb. The activity of digestive enzymes is a driving force in breaking down the foods we consume. These enzymes come from a variety of sources as food moves through your digestivetract.
• Salivary Glands: Although food stays in mouth for a relatively short time, carbohydrate digestion begins here. Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase, which initiates the digestion of starch into maltose.
• Stomach: Glands within stomach secrete gastric juice, a fluid containing hydrochloric acid and a protein- digesting enzyme known as pepsin. Unlike other digestive enzymes that are inactive in a highly acidic environment, pepsin becomes active in the presence of acid. This enzyme serves to break down large protein molecules into smaller fragments known as peptides. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Pancreas: Pancreas secretes enzymes into your small intestine that digest starches, fats and peptides. Specifically, pancreatic amylase completes the digestion of starches, begun in mouth, to release molecules of maltose, while pancreatic lipase breaks down fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides. A number of proteases and peptidases secreted by pancreas into small intestine further break down proteins into peptides and large peptides into smaller peptides.
• Small Intestine: The remainder of digestive enzymes comes from the cells lining small intestine. These enzymes include maltase, lactase and sucrase that digest maltose to two glucose units, lactose to glucose plus galactose and sucrose to glucose plus fructose, respectively. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched and pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• The Know India Programmes (KIP) is an important initiative of the Government of India with an aim to engage and make the students and young professionals of Indian Diaspora, in the age group of 18 to 30years, feel a sense of connect with their motherland, to be motivated and inspired by transformational changes taking place in India and to give them an exposure to various aspects of contemporary India‘s forms of art, heritage and culture.
• KIP provide a unique forum for students & young professionals of Indian origin to visit India, share their views, expectations & experiences and to develop closer bonds with the contemporary India. Know India Programme is organized by the Ministry of External Affairs.

• Siberian cranes are a large, strikingly majestic migratory bird that breeds and winters in wetlands. They are known to winter at Keoladeo National park in India, The last documented sighting of them in India was during the winter months of 2002.
• This critically endangered species is now found only in two populations, the Eastern (Siberia to China) and the Western. All but a few existing birds belong to the eastern population, which breed in north- eastern Siberia and spend their winter along the middle Yangtze River in China. The western population winters at a single site along the south coast of the Caspian Sea in Iran and breeds just south of the Ob River east of the Ural Mountains in Russia.
• THREATS: Habitat loss, especially due to changing hydrology caused by water diversions and conversion of wetlands, illegal take including hunting, trapping and poisoning, pollution and environmental contamination.

• In order to realise the objectives of equality and justice as laid down in the Preamble, the Constitution makes special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. In case of the states, the President issues the notification after consulting the governor of the state concerned.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from Presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent Presidential notification. The lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory.

• Statement 1 is correct: Asian Premium is an extra charge being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to western countries.
• The Asian Premium has its origins in the late 1980s when Saudi Arabia, the de-facto OPEC leader, adopted a marker based price system for its oil exports – West Texas Intermediate (WTI) for the US, Brent for Europe and Dubai/Oman for Asia.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It is charged by the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
• Statement 3 is not correct: India is coordinating with China and other Asian countries to voice against the "Asian Premium", in order to scrap the discriminatory treatment.

• The European Economic Area (EEA) The EEA includes EU countries and also Iceland, Liechtenstein  and Norway. It allows them to be part of the EU‘s single market.
• The EEA Agreement guarantees equal rights and obligations within the internal market for individuals  and economic operators in the EEA. It provides for the inclusion of EU legislation covering the four freedoms — the free movement of goods, services, persons and capital — throughout the 31 EEA States. In addition, the Agreement covers cooperation in other important areas such as research and development, education, social policy, the environment, consumer protection, tourism and culture, collectively known as―flanking and horizontal‖policies. The Agreement guarantees equal rights and obligations with in the Internal Market for citizens and economic operators in the EEA. The EEA Agreement also states that when a country becomes a member of the European Union, it shall also apply to become party to the EEA Agreement (Article 128), thus leading to an enlargement of the EEA.
• The European Union (EU) is an economic and political union of 28 countries. It operates an internal (or single) market which allows free movement of goods, capital, services and people between member states.
• EU countries:
  The EU countries are: Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the UK.
• Switzerland is neither an EU nor EEA member but is part of the single market - this means Swiss nationals have the same rights to live and work in the UK as other EE Anationals.
• Turkey is also not a member of EU or EEA.

The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus) occurs in the central and southern Western Ghats, North-east India, eastern India and northern India and in some parts of southern peninsular India. It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES).

• The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is an oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon which affects weather activities across the globe including Monsoons. It can be defined as an eastward moving 'pulse' of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.
• The journey of MJO goes through eight phases. When it is over the Indian Ocean during the Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Tibetan plateau, heats up during summer and thereby establishes an atmospheric circulation that is conducive for the monsoon. As the vast Tibetan plateau, high up in the mountains, warms during the summer months, it heats the air above, which then rises and creates an areas of low pressure. That belt of low pressure takes in moisture from the oceans, thus initiating the monsoon. However, increased snowfall in Tibet will reduce the temperature and consequently weaken the atmospheric circulation which is conducive for the Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream maintain a high pressure over the North Indian Plain and inhibits the formation of Monsoons. It is only after the northward movement of Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream,  leads to formation of a zone of low pressure, which attracts inflow of Monsoon winds. Any, southward movement of Subtropical Westerly Jet will lead to formation of High pressure in North India and inhibit the formation of Monsoons. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• The first Portuguese encounter with the subcontinent was on 20 May 1498 when Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on Malabar Coast.
• The people of Holland (present Netherlands) are called the Dutch. Next to the Portuguese, the Dutch set their feet in India. Historically the Dutch have been experts in sea trade. In 1602, the United East India Company of the Netherlands was formed and given permission by the Dutch government to trade in the East Indies including India.
• In 1608 AD, the British East India Company sent Captain William Hawkins to the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir to secure royal patronage. He succeeded in getting royal permit for the Company to establish its factories at various places on the Western coast of India. Then in 1615 AD, Sir Thomas Roe was sent by Emperor James I of England to Jahangir‘s court, with a plea for more concession for the Company. Roe was very diplomatic and thus successfully secured a royal charter giving the Company freedom to trade in the whole of the Mughal territory.
• The last European people to arrive in India were the French. The French East India Company was formed in 1664 AD during the reign of King Louis XIV to trade with India. In 1668 AD the French established their first factory at Surat and in 1669 AD established another French factory at Masaulipatam. In 1673 AD the Mughal Subedar of Bengal allowed the French to set up a township at Chandernagore.

• Committee on Government assurances examines the assurances, undertakings and promises given by ministers from time to time on the floor of house and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In the Lok Sabha, It consists of 15 members and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• When the Lok sabha has dissolved all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions, and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the committee on Government assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok sabha. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• India has replaced Japan as world's second largest steel producing country, while China is the largest producer of crude steel accounting for more than 51 percent of production, according to World Steel Association. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• India's crude steel production in 2018 was at 106.5 MT, up by 4.9 percent from 101.5 MT in 2017, meaning India has replaced Japan as the world's second largest steel producing country. Japan produced 104.3 MT in 2018, down 0.3 percent compared to 2017.
• The Government of India gave its approval for the National Steel Policy (NSP) 2017. A National Steel Policy is already in place. The new Steel Policy enshrines the long term vision of the Government to give impetus to the steel sector. It seeks to enhance domestic steel consumption and ensure high quality steel production and create a technologically advanced and globally competitive steel industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• A reduction in the import of coking coal is a challenge before the country’s steel players in meeting the target production of 300 million tonnes by 2030-31. According to the steel industry, around 85% of the coking coal requirement of manufacturers is currently coming from imports, while the remaining is from domestic production, including that of Coal India. However, the National Steel Policy has envisaged an increase in the share of domestic washed coking coal and a lowering of import dependence to 50% by 2030-31. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The great Emperor Ashoka, the third monarch of the Maurya dynasty converted to Buddhism after witnessing the horrific effects of war in Kalinga. He became a champion and patron of Buddhism and strove to spread Dhamma throughout his empire and beyond. He erected pillars and edicts all over the subcontinent and even in modern-day Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan to spread the Buddha’s word. James Prinsep, a British antiquary and colonial administrator was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s edicts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• In eastern part of the empire, Magadhi language in Brahmi script is used. (Magadhi is the dialect of Prakrit found in Magadha). In western parts of the Mauryan Empire, Prakrit in kharoshti script is used. Major Rock Edict XIII contains an extract in Greek and Aramaic as well. Hence, statement 1 is not correct
• Major Rock Edict XIII mentions the victory over Kalinga. It also mentions Ashoka’s Dhamma victory over Greek Kings Antiochus of Syria (Amtiyoko), Ptolemy of Egypt (Turamaye), Magas of Cyrene (Maka), Antigonus of Macedon (Amtikini), Alexander of Epirus (Alikasudaro). Also mentions Pandyas, Cholas, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct. Recently, India has become the second largest fish producing country in the world contributing to 5.43% of global fish production.
• Statement 2 is correct. There are two branches of the fishery sector namely Inland Fisheries and Marine Fisheries. The total fish production during 2017-18 is estimated to be 12.60 million metric tonnes, of which nearly 65% is from the inland sector and about 50% of the total production is from culture fisheries and constitutes about 6.3% of the global fish production.
• Statement 3 is not correct. Fish and fish products account for around 10% of the total exports of the country and nearly 20% of the agricultural exports. An umbrella scheme ‘Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries’ has been formulated by merging all the existing schemes. The scheme 'Blue Revolution' has been launched with the outlay of Rs. 300 crore for the integrated development of the Fisheries sector in the country. It aims to fully tap the total fish potential of the country both in the inland and the marine sector and triple the production by 2020. Government had notified National Policy on Marine Fishing 2017 to ensure the health and ecological integrity of the marine living resources of India’s EEZ through sustainable harvests.

• Option 1 is correct. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has launched the ‘Udyami Mitra’ Portal to improve the accessibility of credit and handholding services to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises(MSMEs).
• Option 2 is correct. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is implementing Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), which is a major credit-linked subsidy programme, aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of micro- enterprises in the non-farm sector by helping traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
• Option 3 is correct. The objectives of the scheme is to organize the traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them competitive and provide support for their long term sustainability, sustained employment, to enhance marketability of products of such clusters,to equip traditional artisans of the associated clusters with the improved skills.
• Option 4 is correct. CriSidEx is a composite index based on a diffusion index of 8 parameters and measures MSE business sentiment on a scale of 0 (extremely negative) to 200 ( extremely positive) . It is developed jointly by CRISIL & SIDBI

• Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. The articles clarify that “a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a minister”. The Constitution specifies that the number of ministers including the Chief Minister has to be within 15% of the total number of members of the assembly (10% in the case of Delhi, which is a union territory with legislature).
• The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.Provisions of Articles 102 and 191 also protect a legislator occupying a government position if the office in question has been made immune to disqualification by law. In the recent past, several state legislatures have enacted laws exempting certain offices from the purview of office of profit. Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended several times to expand the exempted list.There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Born in modern-day Kashmir, 14th-century Kashmiri saint and mystic poet Lal Ded (Mother Lalla), also known as Lalla or Lalleshwari, was married at the age of 12 into a family that was reported to have regularly mistreated her. After becoming a disciple of Sidh Srikanth, she renounced her material life and marriage to become a devotee of the god Shiva. Hence statement 1 is correct. As a mystic, she wandered naked, reciting her proverbs and quatrain-based poems. Lal Ded often used her poetry as a peaceful means of engagement with both Shaivism and Sufism. She was the creator of the style of mystic poetry called vatsun or Vakhs, literally "speech" (Voice). Known as Lal Vakhs, her verses are the earliest compositions in the Kashmiri language and are an important part in the history of modern Kashmiri literature. Hence statement 2 is correct

Her poetry has been translated widely, including English translations by Jane Hirshfield in Women in Praise of the Sacred: 43 Centuries of Spiritual Poetry by Women (1994), Coleman Barks in Naked Song: Lalla (1992), and K.C.I.E. Sir George Grierson in Lalla-Vakyani or The Wise Sayings of Lal-Ded, A Mystic Poetess of Ancient Kashmir (1920)

• Statement 1 is correct: Both types of elephant are members of the same taxonomical family, elephantidae, but are of a different genus; elephas maximus (Asian elephants), Loxodonta africana (African savanna elephants) and Loxodonta cyclotis (African Forest Elephant). The African elephant is significantly larger, with bulls growing up to 4 m tall. The biggest Asian males reach no more than 3.5 m.
• Statement 2 is correct: Elephant has been declared the National Heritage Animal of India by the MoEFCC in 2010.
• Statement 3 is correct: Led by partners Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW), Gaj Yatra is the biggest event ever planned around India’s National Heritage Animal – the Asian elephant. It will move through 12 elephant range States over the next few months, generating a groundswell of popular and policy support to help secure Right of Passage for elephants through 101 vital migratory corridors mapped across India.

• The Inclusive Development Index (IDI) is an annual assessment of 103 countries is released by the World Economic Forum. The index measures the countries performance on eleven dimensions of economic progress in addition to GDP. It has 3 pillars; growth and development; inclusion and; inter generational equity – sustainable stewardship of natural and financial resources.
• The index has also classified the countries into five sub-categories in terms of the five-year trend of their overall Inclusive Development Growth score — receding, slowly receding, stable, slowly advancing and advancing. Despite its low overall score, India is among the ten emerging economies with ‘advancing’ trend. Only two advanced economies have shown ‘advancing’ trend. Recently, India was ranked at the 62nd place among emerging economies on an Inclusive Development Index.

• The Treaty of Salbai was signed on 17 May 1782, by representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company after long negotiations to settle the outcome of the First Anglo-Maratha War. Under its terms, the Company retained control of Salsette and Broach and acquired guarantees that the Marathas would defeat Hyder Ali of Mysore and retake territories in the Carnatic. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed on 18 March 1792 at the end of the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on August 12, 1765, between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Robert Clive as a result of the Battle of Buxar. With this treaty, East India Company got a strong political footing in India. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Brahmanas are a number of prose commentaries attached to the Vedas, the earliest writings of Hinduism, explaining their significance as used in ritual sacrifices and the symbolic import of the priests’actions.
• The main content of the Brahmanas is to specify prescriptions(Vidhi) and proscriptions(Nishedha) while performing yagas.
• All Vedas, in course of time, gave rise to Brahmanas.
• The Brahmanas are prose explanations of the Samhita (a collection of hymns or sacred formulas) portions of Vedas. They detail every possible aspect of the sacrifice, from the configuration of bricks for the altar, to the materials to be used for sacrifice, to the amount of grass one should strew on the ground, to the size of the spoon used to ladle clarified butter into the fire,etc.
• Appended to the Brahmanas are chapters written in similar language and style, but with a more philosophical content, which specifically instruct that the matter of these chapters should be taught only in the forest, away from the village.
  ⇒ Those later works, called Aranyakas, served as a link between the Brahmanas and the Upanishads, the speculative philosophical texts that constitute the latest genre of Vedic literature. In these two categories of literature, the emphasis shifts from the power of the sacrifice to speculation on the power behind the sacrifice.
• Because the Upanishads constitute the concluding portions of the Vedas, they are called vedanta (“the conclusion of the Vedas”), and they serve as the foundational texts in the theological discourses of many Hindu traditions that are also known as Vedanta.
• Purana, (Sanskrit: “Ancient”) refers to a number of popular encyclopaedic collections of myth, legend, and genealogy, varying greatly as to date and origin. There are traditionally 18 Puranas, but there are several different lists of the 18, as well as some lists of more or fewer than 18.
  ⇒ The earliest Puranas, composed perhaps between 350 and 750 CE, are the Brahmanda, Devi, Kurma, Markandeya, Matsya, Vamana, Varaha, Vayu, and Vishnu. The next earliest, composed between 750 and 1000, are the Agni, Bhagavata, Bhavishya, Brahma, Brahmavaivarta, Devibhagavata, Garuda, Linga, Padma, Shiva, and Skanda. Finally, the most recent, composed between 1000 and 1500, are the Kalika, Kalki, Mahabhagavata, Naradiya, and Saura.