UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 - UPSC MCQ

• The relationship between the Governor and his ministers is similar to that between the President and his ministers, both President and  the Governor can exercise some functions 'on his discretion'. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The judges of the Supreme Court (including the Chief justice of India) are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a collegium. The judges of a state high court are also appointed by the President. The governor has no power to appoint the judges of a high court. He can only be consulted by the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

(i) Article 98 of the Constitution provides for a Secretariat of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament has framed, Lok Sabha Secretariat (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 1955 (R&CS Rules)and Rajya Sabha Secretariat (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 1957 (R&CS Rules).

(ii) Functions:

• The Secretariat functions under the overall guidance and control of the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. The main activities of the Secretariat inter alia include the following:
• providing secretarial assistance and support to the effective functioning of the House.
• payment of salary and other allowances to the Members of the House;
• providing amenities as admissible to Members of the House;
• servicing the various Parliamentary Committees;
• preparing research and reference material and bringing out various publications;
• recruitment of manpower in the Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Secretariat and attending to personnel matters; and
• preparing and publishing a record of the day-to-day proceedings of the House and bringing out such other publications, as may be required concerning the functioning of the House and its Committees.

(iii) The LAFEAS (Legislative, Financial, Executive, and Administrative Services) of each house deals with the salaries of their respective members. Hence statement 2 is correct.

(i) The Startup India Scheme is an initiative of the Government of India in 2016. The primary objective of Startup India is the promotion of startups, generation of employment, and wealth creation. The Startup India has initiated several programs for building a robust startup ecosystem and transforming India into a country of job creators instead of job seekers. There is a requirement that the start-ups must be registered with the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Hence statement 1 is correct.

(ii) Recently in 2019, the government notified new rules pertaining to angel tax which will exempt (angel tax is the tax levied on such investments made by external investors in startups or companies) registered start-ups of a specified size from the tax. The new rules:

• Definition of start-up broadened: An eligible start-up would be one that is registered with thegovernment and has been incorporated for less than 10 years (from previous 7 years), and has aturnover that has not exceeded ₹100 crore over that period.
• Start-ups can apply for an exemption if their paid-up share capital is up to Rs 25 crore,compared to Rs 10 crore earlier. Hence statement 2 correct.
• Start-ups may raise tax free capital from investments made by✓ non-residents✓ Listed company having a net worth of INR 100 Crores or turnover of at least INR 250 Crores.

(iii) The notification imposes certain restrictions on investments by the start-ups.

• The start-up have to attest to the fact that it has not invested in any land that is not being used in its ordinary course of business, any vehicle over the value of ₹10 lakh, any jewellery, among other things.

• Summer season local winds in Northern India, known as Loo, is a result of the advection process.
• The Loo is a hot and dry summer wind that blows over the western Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India. It is especially strong in the months of May and June. Due to its very high temperatures, exposure to it often leads to fatal heat strokes.
• Advection is the transfer of heat or matter by the flow of a fluid, especially horizontally in the atmosphere or the sea.

• Lala Lajpat Rai was a freedom fighter, part of the famous radical trio of ‘Lal, Bal, Pal’, is known as ‘Punjab Kesari’ or ‘The Lion of Punjab’. He was a lawyer, a prolific writer and also a leading freedom fighter who faced multiple stints in jail for his campaigns against the British Raj.
• In college, he reportedly developed a deep friendship with Lala Hans Raj and Pandit Guru Dutt Vidyarthi, all three of whom were deeply inspired by the teachings of Arya Samaj, the Hindu reformist movement founded by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Statement 1 is correct: The three were ardent proponents of robust swadeshi infrastructure to wean Indians off British systems, and while Rai went on to co-found the Punjab National Bank in 1894, Hans Raj and Vidyarthi co-founded the ubiquitous DAV schools. In the early 1920s, Rai also set up the National College in Lahore, whose students would include Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev.
• Statement 2 is correct: He was also a supporter of the two-nation theory, saying that while Hindus and Muslims needed to unite to overthrow the British Raj, a separate nation for each would solve the greater purpose of peaceful coexistence. An article Rai wrote in The Tribune on 14 December 1923, titled “A clear partition of India into a Muslim India and non-Muslim India” evoked much controversy.
• Statement 3 is correct: In 1928, Rai led a peaceful march to protest against the commission. However, British police officer James A. Scott ordered a lathi-charge and Rai was among the protesters injured seriously. He succumbed to his injuries on 17 November 1928. Bhagat Singh and other revolutionaries planned to kill the Superintendent of Police who ordered lathi-charge at the protestors as revenge for Lala Lajpat Rai’s death. However, Bhagat Singh and his associates ended up killing the Assistant Superintendent of Police by mistake.

• Who is a star campaigner: A star campaigner can be described as persons who are nominated by parties to campaign in a given set of constituencies. These persons are, in almost all cases, prominent and popular faces within the party. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Only registered political parties can have star campaigners. A recognized political party can have 40star campaigners and an unrecognized (but registered) political party can have 20. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.
• Benefits of having a star campaigner: The expenditure incurred on campaigning by such campaigners is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate. However, this only applies when a star campaigner limits herself to a general campaign for the political party she represents.
• Even the candidates contesting in the particular election can be listed as a star campaigner. The recent general election, as well as the Delhi election, saw the incumbent Chief Minister, the Prime Minister and various other MLAs / MPs who were re-running for the election, in the list of star campaigners. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

(i) The DASH diet stands for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, is a healthy eating plan intended to help lower blood pressure without medication. It emphasizes foods that are low in sodium and high in potassium, calcium, magnesium, protein, and fiber — such as leafy greens, fruits, whole grains, nuts, fat-free or low-fat dairy, and lean meats. The eating plan recommends limiting foods high in saturated fat, such as red meat and whole-milk dairy, as well as sugary foods and sweetened beverages. It has been ranked as a top diet for 2020 by U.S. News and World Report. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

(ii) Other types of diet include:

• The Paleo Diet: This is a natural way of eating, one that almost abandons all intake of sugar. The only sugar in a Paleo diet comes from fruit.
• The Blood Type Diet: the premise of these diets attempts to match people with their common dietary needs based on their blood type. For example, individuals with type O blood are recommended to eat lots of food that are high in protein.
• Raw Food Diet: This is a diet that places a premium on eating uncooked and unprocessed foods. The diet eliminates the intake of any foods that have been pasteurized or produced with any kind of synthetics or additives.

(i) Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).
As per the Act, the local bodies constitute the BMC in accordance with Section 41, within their area of jurisdiction for the purpose of promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity including preservation of habitats, conservation of land races, folk varieties and cultivars, domesticated stocks and breeds of animals, micro-organisms and chronicling of knowledge relating to biological diversity.

(ii) The BMC consists of a Chairperson, and six persons nominated by local bodies, including 1/3rd women and 18% SC/ST.

(iii) The functions of BMCs are as under:

• Prepare, maintain and validate People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local people. The BMC is to maintain a Register giving information about the details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC.
• Advice on any matter referred to it by the State Biodiversity Board or Authority for granting approval, to maintain data about the local vaidhya (traditional healer) and practitioners using the biological resources.
• Preserve and promote local biodiversity- breeds of birds, animals and plants.
• Advice State & National Biodiversity Boards on matters related to local biodiversity.
• Under the Nagoya Protocol of Convention on Biodiversity (CBD), they can collect fees for granting access to Biodiversity register to researchers and commercial companies.

(i) The three most important ports of Sangam age known as the "Golden Triangle" are Puhar, Muzirisand Korkai. These three acted as the most important trading ports of that time.

(ii) Korkai: Korkai is a small village in the Srivaikuntam taluk of Thoothukudi district in Tamil Nadu, India. It was called Pandya-Kavada in the Kapatapuram in Kalithogai. It is situated about 3 km north of the Thamirabarani River and about 6 km from the shore of Bay of Bengal. Korkai was the capital, principal center of trade and important port of the Early Pandyan Kingdom. At that time, it was located on the banks of the Tamiraparani River and at the sea coast, forming a natural harbour. It was famous for its pearls. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

(iii) Puhar: Puhar is a town in the Nagapattinam district in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveripattinam, which for a while served as the capital of the Early Chola kings. Puhar is located near the end point of the Kaveri river, aside from the sea coast. It is mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea. It was the great centre of trade and commerce (mainly centre of cotton cloth) and excavations show that it had a large dock.

(iv) Muziris or Muchiri: Muziris was an ancient harbour - possible seaport and urban centre - on the Malabar Coast (modern-day Indian state of Kerala) that dates from at least the 1st century BC. Akananuru, Periplus of Erythraean Sea, Purananuru and several other important literature of Sangam times, mention Muziris as an important port of Cheras. The Periplus speaks of cargo-laden ships landing here from Arabia and Egypt, and gives long lists of imports and exports. A 2nd-century document known as the Vienna Papyrus records an agreement concerning the transportation of goods between two merchants—one based in Alexandria, the other in Muchiri.

(i) The third battle of Panipat took place on 14 January, 1761 between the Marathas under Sadashiv RaoBhau and the Afghans under Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghan victory was complete and the Maratha casualties were very heavy, estimated at 75,000. A number of factors were responsible for the defeat of the Marathas and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali:

• Abdali's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of Bhauji. Abdali's army has been estimated at 60,000 while the Maratha combatants did not exceed 45,000.
• Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat. The road to Delhi was cut off. There was no food for men and no fodder for the horses. On the other hand, the Afghans kept their supply lines open with the Doab and the Delhi region. In fact, famine conditions in the Maratha camp compelled Bhau to precipitate the action of attack.
• While all the Muslim powers of Northern India rallied to the side of Abdali, the Marathas had to fight alone. The overbearing attitude of the Marathas and their policy of indiscriminate plunder had estranged not only the Muslim powers but the Hindu powers like the Jats and the Rajputs. Even the Sikhs, the deadly enemies of the Afghans, did not help the Marathas.

(ii) The other factors were the existence of mutual jealousies among the Maratha chiefs, the strict discipline of the better equipped Abdali's army and the overconfidence of Sadashiv Rao Bhau.

• The eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current is related to the Convergence of the two equatorial currents. Convergence raises the level of ocean in the western parts by few centimeters which creates an equatorial counter current. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The West Australian Current is a cool surface current of the Southern Indian Ocean. It starts as the Southern Indian Ocean Current, a part of the larger Antarctic Circumpolar Current (also known as the West Wind Drift). As the current approaches Western Australia, it turns north, parallel to the western coast of Australia, and becomes the West Australian Current. Hence statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
• One branch of the southern Indian equatorial current moves southward through Mozambique Channel known as Mozambique current. It is a warm current.
• Like Pacific and Atlantic Oceans eastward flowing current, known as west wind drift, is also generated in the Indian Ocean. This current is produced due to eastward blowing westerlies along 40°N latitude known as ‘roaring forties’.

(i) Interferons are proteins that are produced by the body’s cells as a defensive response to viruses. They are important modulators of the immune response. Interferon was named for its ability to interfere with viral proliferation.

(ii) Interferons can also combat bacterial and parasitic infections, inhibit cell division, and promote or impede the differentiation of cells. They are produced by all vertebrate animals and possibly by some invertebrates as well.

(iii) Interferons are categorized as cytokines, small proteins that are involved in intercellular signaling. Interferon is secreted by cells in response to stimulation by a virus or other foreign substance, but it does not directly inhibit the virus’s multiplication. Rather, it stimulates the infected cells and those nearby to produce proteins that prevent the virus from replicating within them.

(iv) Interferons were discovered in 1957 by British bacteriologist Alick Isaacs and Swiss microbiologist Jean Lindenmann. Research conducted in the 1970s revealed that these substances could not only prevent viral infection but also suppress the growth of cancers in some laboratory animals.

(v) Interferons came into use

• to treat hairy cell leukemia
• combat Kaposi sarcoma, which frequently appears in AIDS patients
• treating viral infections such Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

• The Speaker is the 'Head of the Lok Sabha', and its representative. Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the House’ means the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House. There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (and not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which acts as a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the country. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Summoning: The President of India from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• According to the World Bank, “poverty is pronounced deprivation in wellbeing. In India, Planning Commission used to estimates the number and proportion of people living below the poverty line at national and State levels, separately for rural and urban areas. (Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITII Aayog’s task force)
• Poverty estimates based on a large sample survey of household consumption expenditure carried out by the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) after an interval of approximately five years. The Commission has been estimating the poverty line and poverty ratio since 1997 on the basis of the methodology spelt out in Lakdawala Committee Report.
• In India there are two methods of poverty estimation namely Uniform Recall Period (URP) and Mixed Recall Period (MRP). Up until 1993-94, the poverty line was based on URP data. In URP, consumer expenditure data for all the items are collected for a 30-day recall period.
• Since 1999-2000, however, data are being collected according to MRP. In MRP, consumer expenditure data for five non-food items, namely clothing, footwear, durable goods, education, and institutional medical expenses, are collected for a 365-day recall period and the consumption data for the remaining items are collected for a 30-day recall period.
• The methodology of estimating poverty and the identification of BPL households have been a matter of debate. Two committees under the chairmanship of Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar and Dr. N.C. Saxena have submitted their reports on methodology for estimation of poverty and methodology for conducting BPL census in rural areas, respectively. Further, an Expert Group under the chairmanship of Prof. S.R. Hasim has been set up to recommend methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas.

• Operation Clean Art was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
• It was conceived by WCCB (Wildlife Crime Control Bureau) with the singular aim of ensuring that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.
• These animals were poached by “hunting communities” across the country.
• The mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act and any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.
• Brushes made of mongoose hair are preferred because they are superior and hold colour better.
• The IUCN Status in its Red List is least concerned.
• There are six species of mongoose found in India- Indian grey mongoose, Small Indian mongoose, Ruddy mongoose, Crab-eating Mongoose, Stripe-necked mongoose and Brown mongoose.

About WCCB

• WCCB is the statutory multi-disciplinary body under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
• It was established in June 2007 by amending the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972, a special Act to protect the wildlife and fauna in the country.

(i) With a view to improve the Governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs), the Government set up an autonomous Banks Board Bureau having three ex-officio members and three expert members in addition to Chairman. All the Members and Chairman are part-time. The Chairman of Bank Board Bureau is appointed by the Central government.

(ii) The Banks Board Bureau has its genesis in the recommendations of The Committee to Review Governance of Boards of Banks in India (also known as P.J.Nayak Committee), May 2014. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

(iii) As part of its mandate, and guided by a spirit of collaboration, the bureau is engaging with various stakeholders. The objective of such engagement being to help prepare the banks in the public sector universe to take on the competition have the ability to appropriately manage and price risk across business cycles, develop resilience to generate internal capital and have the capacity to generate external capital warding of the moral hazard in counting on the scarce budgetary resources of taxpayers. The Bureau is also engaging with the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to help build capacity to attract, retain and nurture both talent and technology - the two key differentiators of business competencies in the days to come.

(iv) Functions of the Banks Board Bureau:

• To be responsible for the selection and appointment of the Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks(PSBs) and FIs (Whole-time Directors and Non-Executive Chairman); Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, confirmation or extension of tenure and termination of services of the Board of Directors of the above-mentioned levels;
• o To advise the Government on the desired structure at the Board level, and, for senior management personnel, for each PSB and FI;
• To help banks to develop a robust leadership succession plan for critical positions that would arise in the future through appropriate HR processes including performance management systems.
• To build a data bank containing data relating to the performance of PSBs/FIs and its officers;
• To advise the Government on the formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for managerial personnel in PSBs/FIs;
• To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programs for management personnel in PSBs/FIs; and To help banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plans etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(i) The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) established in 1985 is a voluntary self-regulatory council, registered as a not-for-profit Company under section 25 of the Indian Companies. Act with the objective of ensuring that all advertising should be legal, decent, honest and truthful along with a sense of social responsibility to the consumer and to the rules of fair competition. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

(ii) The ASCI is not a Government body, nor does it formulate rules for the public or for the relevant industries. It has adopted a Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising. It is a commitment to honest advertising and to fair competition in the market-place. It stands for the protection of the legitimate interests of consumers and all concerned with advertising – advertisers, media, advertising agencies and others who help in the creation or placement of advertisements. Hence statement 2 is not correct

(iii) ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Advertising Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. ASCI seeks to ensure that advertisements conform to its Code for Self-Regulation.

(iv) Objectives of ASCI: The main objects to be pursued by the Company on its incorporation are:

(v) To monitor administer and promote standards of advertising practices in India with a view to

(vi) Ensuring the truthfulness and honesty of representations and claims made through advertising and safeguarding against misleading advertising.

• Ensuring that Advertising is not offensive to generally accepted norms and standards of public decency.
• Safeguarding against the indiscriminate use of advertising for the promotion of products or services, which are generally regarded as hazardous to society or to individuals or which are unacceptable to society as a whole.
• Ensuring that advertisements observe fairness in competition and the canons of generally accepted competitive behaviour.
• To codify adopt and from time to time modify the code of advertising practices in India and implement, administer and promote and publicize such a code.
• To provide facilities and machinery in the form of one or more Consumer Complaints Council shaving such composition and with such powers as may be prescribed from time to time to examine complaints against advertisements in terms of the Code of Advertising practices and report thereon.
• To give wide publicity to the Code and seek adherence to it of as many as possible of those engaged in advertising.
• To print and publish pamphlets, leaflets, circulars or other literature or material that may be considered desirable for the promotion of or carrying out of the objects of the Company and disseminate it through any medium of communication.

(i) The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:

• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill.

(ii) Voting on Demands for Grants is the fourth stage in the enactment of the budget.

• The Lok Sabha takes up the voting of demands for grants. The demands are presented ministry-wise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.
• The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Second, the voting is confined to the votable part of the budget—the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed). Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.

• Statement 2 is correct: Rahnumai Maz Dayasan sabha or religious reform association was founded by Dadabhai Nauroji, Nauroji Furdoonji, and S S Bengalee in 1851. The objective of this association was the regeneration of the social condition of the Parsi community and restoration of the Zoroastrian religion to its pristine Purity.
• Statement 1 is not correct. The sabha had focused on the improvement of the condition of Parsi women and propagated for removal of the purdah system, raising the age of marriage among women and the education of women.
• Statement 3 is correct. The newspaper Rast-Goftar (Truthteller), a Gujarati fortnightly, was an important newspaper that propagated the message of this association. It was founded by Dadabhai Nauroji in 1851to clarify Zoroastrian concepts and promote Parsi social reforms.

(i) Constitutionalism has a variety of meanings. Most generally, it is "a complex of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behavior elaborating the principle that the authority of government derives from and is limited by a body of fundamental law". Constitutionalism’ means limited government or limitation on government. It is the antithesis of arbitrary powers. Constitutionalism recognizes the need for a government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism. A government that goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy.

(ii) Constitutionalism could be seen as constituting the following elements:

• government according to the constitution;
• separation of power;
• sovereignty of the people and democratic government;
• constitutional review;
• independent judiciary;
• limited government subject to a bill of individual rights;
• controlling the police;
• civilian control of the military; and
• no state power, or very limited and strictly circumscribed state power, to suspend the operation of some parts of, or the entire, constitution.

(iii) These nine elements of constitutionalism can be divided into two groups, one concerns power construction and power lodging; and the other deals with rights protection. These two groups of institutional arrangements work together to ensure the supremacy of the constitution, the existence of limited yet strong government, and the protection of basic freedom• Fundamental rights: These are sets of rights guaranteed to the citizens that place a certain restriction on the exercise of powers of the government. The Supreme court in its I.R Coelho judgment (2007) stated that "The principle of constitutionalism is now a legal principle which requires control over the exercise of Governmental power to ensure that it does not destroy the democratic principles upon which it is based. These democratic principles include the protection of fundamental rights."

Management effectiveness evaluation is defined as the assessment of how well protected areas are being managed – primarily the extent to which management is protecting values and achieving goals and objectives. The term management effectiveness reflects three main ‘themes’ in protected area management:

• Design issues relating to both individual sites and protected area systems;
• Adequacy and appropriateness of management systems and processes;
• Delivery of protected area objectives including conservation of values.

IUCN-WCPA has developed a management effectiveness evaluation framework which provides a consistent basis for designing evaluation systems for protected areas.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Laffer curve was developed by economist Arthur Laffer. It depicts the relationship between tax rate and tax revenue generated by the government. It looks like an inverted U curve which means an increase in the tax rate increases the tax revenue until it reaches its maximum beyond which any tax rate hike would dissuade taxpayers to work less. So, statement (1) is not correct.

Phillips curve expresses the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment. For instance, an increase in the money supply would increase the aggregate demand in the economy, which would cause the output to rise at higher prices and unemployment to fall in the economy. So statement (2) is correct.

Kuznets curve defines the relationship between output and income inequality. It looks like an inverted U curve, which means that initially, economic development causes higher inequality but, later, economy witnesses trickle-down effects of higher growth reaching down to lower and middle-income strata of the society. Consequently, it enables them to access affordable healthcare and quality education and thus reduces income inequality in the economy. So statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

The Ramsar Convention has declared 10 more wetlands in India as sites of international importance. Beas conservation reserve Punjab is one of the Ramsar sites. The Beas Conservation Reserve (Punjab) is a 185-kilometre stretch of the Beas River majorly in Punjab. The River is dotted with islands, sand bars and braided channels, creating a complex environment supporting substantial biodiversity. The Reserve hosts the only known population in India of the endangered Indus river dolphin. Further threatened species include the endangered mahseer and hog deer as well as the vulnerable smooth-coated otter. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

The PCA norms trigger if a bank's net NPA crosses 6 per cent or if CRAR (capital to risk-weighted assets) is below the regulatory requirement of 10.88 per cent as of March 2019. PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI. The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for banks that become undercapitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of profitability. It aims to check the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking sector.

The framework was reviewed in 2017 based on the recommendations of Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 16 (5th April 2020) the working group of the Financial Stability and Development Council on Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions in India and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission. PCA is intended to help alert the regulator as well as investors and depositors if a bank is heading for trouble. The idea is to head off problems before they attain crisis proportions. Essentially PCA helps RBI monitor key performance indicators of banks, and takes corrective measures, to restore the financial health of a bank.

The Department of Financial Services covers the functioning of Banks, Financial Institutions, Insurance Companies and the National Pension System. The Department is headed by the Finance Secretary who is assisted by other functionaries. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Hence Statements (1) and (2) are correct.

Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates from amongst the members a panel of not more than ten chairpersons. Any of them can preside over the house in the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker. However, a member of the panel of chairpersons cannot preside over the House, when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant. During such time, the Speaker’s duties are to be performed by such member of the House as the President may appoint for the purpose. Hence Statement (3) is not correct.

As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Hence Statement (4) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Frogs and toads are carnivores. So, statement 1 is correct.

The unique feature of Monotremes, a sub-division of mammal, is that monotremes lay eggs rather than giving birth to young ones. There are only five living species of monotreme. They are- the duck-billed platypus and four of spiny anteaters. These are found in Australia and guinea. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The most harmless sharks tend to be the largest and they eat plankton. For example, the basking shark, the whale shark and the megamouth sharks. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Net factor income earned from abroad is the income earned by Nationals working overseas minus income paid to outsiders working in Indian Territory. Since GNP is the income earned by Nationals anywhere in the world; therefore GNP at factor cost- GDP at factor cost is equal to Net factor income earned from abroad. So statement (a) is correct.

GDP can be either less than or more than or equal to GNP depending on the value of Net factor income earned from abroad. So statement (b) is not correct.

In economics, leakage is a diversion of funds from some iterative process. For example, in the Keynesian depiction of the circular flow of income and expenditure, leakages are the non-consumption uses of income, including saving, taxes, and imports. So statement (c) is correct.

GDP at factor cost = GDP at market prices – taxes + subsidies. Hence, GDP at factor cost includes no tax and excludes no subsidies. So, statement (d) is correct. Therefore, the answer is (b).

The government recently lifted end-use restrictions for coal mines to end the captive mining regime, one of the last vestiges of the licence-quota raj, and opened the gates wider for private entry when the blocks are auctioned for commercial coal mining. Captive Coal Mining means the coal which taken out by a Company for its use & it won't be able to sell it in the market. Mostly Steel Producing Companies & Electricity Generation Companies used to have this Captive Coal Mining. The Coal which is extracted is used only by the Company and their Subsidiaries. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

A ‘session’ of the Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation (or dissolution in the case of the Lok Sabha). Each session consists of many meetings. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by Adjournment or Adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (only for Lok Sabha). An Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time and not a session. The presiding officer of the House does it. It does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Hence, Statement (1) is correct.

On the other hand, the prorogation is done by the President after the presiding officer declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of a session is completed. The President can also prorogue the House while in session. The Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. Hence, Statement (2) is also correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).