UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 2 - UPSC MCQ

• The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 empowered local governments – rural, as constitutional entities and initiated a new chapter in the process of democratic decentralization in India. This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats.
• The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that, “The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The provisions of the act can be grouped into two categories– compulsory and voluntary. The compulsory (mandatory or obligatory) provisions of the act have to be included in the state laws creating the new Panchayati raj system.
  • The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 clearly states that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age if he has attained the age of twenty-one years. Thus 21 years has been set as the minimum age for the election of a person to the Panchayat. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Further, all questions of disqualifications shall be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines (and not strictly the high court). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under system of proportional representation, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two kinds of proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote system and list system. In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council and for electing the President and the Vice-President. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as single member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

• pH change as the cause of tooth decay Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
• Tooth enamel, made up of calcium hydroxyapatite (a crystalline form of calcium phosphate) is the hardest substance in the body. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• It does not dissolve in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
• Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating.
• The best way to prevent this is to clean the mouth after eating food.
• Using toothpaste, which is generally basic, for cleaning the teeth can neutralise the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.

Option (d) is correct:
The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of Lok Sabha is as follows:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
3. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
4. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
5. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
6. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

• Net metering is a policy of Government of India that allows consumers with solar panels or other forms of renewable energy generation to feed excess electricity back into the grid and receive credits on their utility bill. This policy is intended to promote the use of renewable energy and help consumers offset the cost of their solar panels or other equipment. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• KUSUM (Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of solar power by farmers. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers to install solar power systems on their land and also to encourage them to generate income by selling surplus power to the grid. The scheme includes various components, such as the installation of grid-connected solar power plants, off-grid solar water pumps, and solarized agriculture pumps. The scheme is intended to empower farmers to become self-sufficient in meeting their energy needs, and to help reduce the country's dependence on fossil fuels. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• SRISTI is Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India. It is a type of scheme that will offer with financial incentive to the beneficiary for installing Solar power plant rooftop projects within the country. The incentives will be offered by the central government. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Atal Jyoti Yojana (Atal Jyoti Scheme) is a scheme launched by the government of India. The scheme aims to improve the power supply situation in rural areas and reduce transmission and distribution losses through the use of smart metering and energy-efficient technologies. It also includes the installation of solar-powered street lights and provision of power supply to un-electrified villages, and to households that are yet to be connected to the grid. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

Option (b) is correct:
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:
(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or
(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
(c) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.

• The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive.
• The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.
• It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice- president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

The Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges for different offices.

The various offices are:

• The President of India
• The Governors of States
• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
• The Judges of the Supreme Court
• The Judges of the High Courts
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

The provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of state chief ministers and council of ministers are not mentioned in the Second Schedule. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
The provisions in the Second Schedule can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President in the exercise of his functions. The Council of Ministers consists of two levels of Ministers– Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State. The President appoints the Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Council of Ministers consists of all category of Ministers, while the Cabinet is a smaller group consisting of senior Ministers. The Council of Ministers as a whole rarely meets. It is the Cabinet which determines the policies and programmes of the Government. All the Ministers are collectively as well as individually responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office by Lok Sabha if a vote of no-confidence is adopted by it. The Cabinet formulates the external and internal policies of the government. It coordinates the working of various departments. It has full control over the national finance. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha by a Minister.

1. The Constitution of India has prescribed specific functions for all parliamentary committees: This statement is not correct. The Constitution of India does not prescribe specific functions for all parliamentary committees. While the Constitution mentions a few committees like the Public Accounts Committee, the actual functioning and specific roles of various parliamentary committees are typically detailed in the rules of procedure of the Parliament, not directly in the Constitution.

2. The standing committees are permanent and work on a continuous basis: This statement is correct. Standing committees are indeed permanent and work on a continuous basis. They are reconstituted from time to time and have fixed jurisdictions over matters related to their respective departments or subjects.

Given this information, the statement that is not correct is: 1 only.

Option (d) is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules). The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees. He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final. He is thus much more than merely the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. In these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House.

• The rise of the Sarvāstivāda school of Buddhism as a distinct group dates back to the 2nd to 1st centuries BCE. They attained prominence in the region of Mathura and in Kashmir.
• According to Buddhist historical literature, the Sarvāstivādins split from the Sthaviravāda school at the third Buddhist council held in Pāṭaliputra (present-day Patna).
  • The third council led the divergence of Sthaviravāda into two schools: Vibhajyavādins and Sarvāstivādins. Then, a new school of Sarvāstivādins, Sautrāntikas spring off.
• The name “Sarvāstivāda” suggests that the disagreement with the Sthaviravādins was a matter of doctrinal viewpoint: “sarvāstivāda” is derived from the Sanskrit sarvam asti, meaning essentially “everything exists/all is.” The question from which the school derives its name is whether discrete entities (dharma) have an existence only in the present, or whether they also exist as such in the past and future. In other words, the question is whether the past becomes manifest in the present, and whether the future is already latent in the present. This focus on philosophical interpretation and debate explains why the Sarvāstivāda school predominantly is an abhidharma school.
• The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir by the patronage of Kanishka in Kashmir about 72-78 AD. It was presided over by Vasumitra and Asvaghosha and had to deal with a serious conflict between the Sarvasthivada teachers of Kashmir and Gandhara.
  • During this meeting the Sarvasthavadin doctrines were organized into a Mahavibhasa containing three large commentaries on the Pitakas. They were codified in a summary. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • In the fourth council, the Sarvāstivādins were dominant. They debated on the orthodoxy and the authenticity of their teachings at this council.
  • One was the Sarvāstivāda and the Sautrāntika. The Sautrāntika was the school that began to be critical of the realism and pluralism of the Sarvāstivāda. The Sarvāstivāda regarded them as real while the Sautrāntika regarded them as mentally created. The meaning of the name Sautrāntika comes from the term ’Sūtra’, that is, those who adhere to Sūtra.
  • There is a principal difference noticed between the Sautrāntika and the Sarvāstivāda. The Sarvāstivāda was also called Vaibhāṣika, the followers of the Vibhāṣā or Commentaries. The Sarvāstivādins believed that the Abhidharma was the word of the Buddha whereas the Sautrāntikas did not accept that.
  • At this council, the Vaibhāṣikas, the Sarvāstivādins won the debate and the Sautrāntikas were disgraced.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

• Pyrolysis is the heating of an organic material, such as biomass, in the absence of oxygen. It is considered as one of the most favorable and effective disposing of solid waste methods, which is an environmentally friendly and efficient way. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Pyrolysis of carbonaceous wastes like firewood, coconut, palm waste, corn combs, cashew shell, rice husk paddy straw and sawdust, yields charcoal along with products like tar, methyl alcohol, acetic acid, acetone and fuel gas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The key difference between incineration and pyrolysis is that incineration is the combustion of organic matter in the presence of oxygen whereas pyrolysis is the combustion of organic matter in the absence of oxygen.
  • Issues with Incineration
    • It reduces the recycling of recyclable materials because burning is easier and cheaper than recycling.
    • It releases gaseous components such as carbon dioxide (CO₂).
    • It emits hazardous end products.
    • It can lead to different health risks.
• Pyrolysis is an extremely efficient ways of using biomass to produce energy, both being more efficient than incineration. These technologies are cleaner than incineration and do not pose toxicity threats. Incineration also produces a highly toxic fly ash that must be safely disposed of; leading to transportation and residential health concerns. Pyrolysis on the other hand is a cleaner processes and do not pose toxicity threats, but remain “third generation” technologies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Option (b) is correct:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

• Admission or establishment of new states.
• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament. • Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
• Rules of procedure in Parliament.
• Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
• Use of English language in Parliament.
• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
• Use of official language.
• Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Union territories.
• Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

The following provisions can be amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:

• Election of the President and its manner.
• Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. 
• Representation of states in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

• A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as parallel governments in some parts of the country. Among different places, the parallel governments in Satara in Maharashtra, Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal and Ballia, in East United Province were most prominent.
• The parallel government Satara lasted for the longest duration. It started in August 1943 and remained till May 1945. Here the parallel government came to be known as Prati Sarkar. The leaders like Y.B. Chauhan and Nana Patil provided leadership to the parallel government. The activities of the parallel government were marked by attacks on Government collaborators, informers and talatis or lower- level officials and Robin Hood-style robberies.
• Nyayadan Mandals or people’s courts were set up and justice dispensed. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi marriages’ celebrated to which untouchables were invited and at which no ostentation was allowed. Village libraries were set up and education encouraged. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• The native state of Aundh, whose ruler was pro-nationalist and had got the constitution of his state drafted by Gandhiji, provided invaluable support by offering refuge and shelter to the Prati Sarkar activists. The Prati Sarkar continued to function till 1945.
• The first parallel government during the Quit India Movement was proclaimed in Ballia, in East U P, in August 1942 under the leadership of Chittu Pande. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17 December, 1942 and lasted till September 1944. The Jatiya Sarkar also established Vidyut Vahini, an armed organisation to carry out revolutionary activity. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Aquamation, or alkaline hydrolysis, is a process in which the body of the deceased is immersed for a few hours in a mixture of water and a strong alkali in a pressurized metal cylinder and heated to around 150 degree centigrade. The process leaves behind bone fragments and a neutral liquid called effluent. The CANA website states, “The decomposition that occurs in alkaline hydrolysis is the same as that which occurs during burial, just sped up dramatically by the chemicals. The effluent is sterile, and contains salts, sugars, amino acids and peptides.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no tissue and no DNA left after the process completes. This effluent is discharged with all other wastewater, and is a welcome addition to the water systems.” Statement 3 is correct: The process is a greener alternative as it uses significantly less fuel and has an overall lower carbon footprint than cremation.

• Stem cells are unspecialized cells of the human body. They are able to differentiate into any cell of an organism and have the ability of self-renewal. Stem cells exist both in embryos and adult cells. There are several steps of specialization. Developmental potency is reduced with each step, which means that a unipotent stem cell is not able to differentiate into as many types of cells as a pluripotent one.
• Totipotent stem cells are able to divide and differentiate into cells of the whole organism. Totipotency has the highest differentiation potential and allows cells to form both embryo and extra-embryonic structures. One example of a totipotent cell is a zygote, which is formed after a sperm fertilizes an egg. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Cell differentiation: The process during which young, immature (unspecialized) cells take on individual characteristics and reach their mature (specialized) form and function.
• Pluripotent stem cells (PSCs) form cells of all germ layers but not extraembryonic structures, such as the placenta. Embryonic stem cells (ESCs) are an example. ESCs are derived from the inner cell mass of preimplantation embryos. Another example is induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) derived from the epiblast layer of implanted embryos. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Multipotent stem cells have a narrower spectrum of differentiation than PSCs, but they can specialize in discrete cells of specific cell lineages. One example is a hematopoietic stem cell, which can develop into several types of blood cells. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Oligopotent stem cells can differentiate into several cell types. A myeloid stem cell is an example that can divide into white blood cells but not red blood cells.
• Unipotent stem cells are characterized by the narrowest differentiation capabilities and a special property of dividing repeatedly. Their latter feature makes them a promising candidate for therapeutic use in regenerative medicine. These cells are only able to form one cell type, e.g. dermatocytes.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.
• Statement 2 is correct: Even in the limited sphere of authority allotted to them, the states do not have exclusive control. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest. This means that the legislative competence of the Parliament can be extended without amending the Constitution. Notably, this can be done when there is no emergency of any kind.

• Corals are marine invertebrates within the class Anthozoa of the phylum Cnidaria. They typically form compact colonies of many identical individual polyps. Coral species include the important reef builders that inhabit tropical oceans and secrete calcium carbonate to form a hard skeleton. The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is the largest coral reef system in the world. It has been designated a World Heritage Site and is one of the world’s seven natural wonders. It can also be seen from outer space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• All black corals have a skeleton made of protein and chitin (the same material as an insect skeleton). In addition, black corals do not have symbiotic algae associated with them, and they do not require light which enables them to extend into depths where light is not present. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Many species of corals also have growth rings similar to those of trees. Scientists can extract cores from coral, and the coral growth rings can be used to reconstruct past climate in the tropical and subtropical regions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: With the help of Regulating Act of 1773 British Government took its first step to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It not only recognized the political and administrative functions of the company but laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Regulating Act of 1773 prohibited the servants of the Company to engage in any private trade or accepting bribes from the natives.
Features of the Act of 1773: 

• Act designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ (Lord Warren Hastings.) and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him.
• Act made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
• Act provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) (1 chief justice and 3 judges).
• Act prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the natives.
• Act strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.

Option (c) is correct:

• M.N. Roy was the first to propose the idea of a Constituent Assembly in 1934. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
• The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after the World War II.
• The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies. Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the Muslim League.

Option (d) is correct: The Constitution of India has opted for the British parliamentary System of Government rather than American Presidential System of Government. The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are: 

• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). In a parliamentary system whether in India or Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has become so significant and crucial that the political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime Ministerial Government’.

Option (d) is correct:
he President of India enjoys certain privileges and immunities which include the following: 

1. The President is not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his functions.
2. The President can neither be arrested nor any criminal proceedings be instituted against him in any court of law during his tenure.
3. The President cannot be asked to be present in any court of law during his tenure.
4. A prior notice of two months time is to be served before instituting a civil case against him.

• The Nettur Petti is an artefact of historical significance. It was jewel box used by women in the royal and aristocratic families as well as in temples to store the ornaments of the idol. This petti (box) is named after Nettur, the village in Kerala where the craft is believed to have originated. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Nettur Petti requires highly skilled artistry of metal casting and the intricacy of freehand painting. It is a true amalgamation of signature styles of handcrafting skills.
• Nettur Petti is made by the rules of ‘Tachusastram’ an ancient architecture science followed in Kerala. Nettur Petti is also known as Malabar box or Amaadapetti in different parts of Kerala. Construction and shape of the box is compared to a traditional Kerala house and the measurements are also followed the same principles.
• Wood is the main component of Nettur Petti, woods mainly used are Rosewood, Aanjili, Jackwood and Mahogany which are sourced locally. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Raw metal and brass sheets are the next major component used in the making of Nettur Petti.

Option (c) is correct:
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.

• It read: This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution: Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States, and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all.
• Wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting therefrom.
• Wherein all power and authority of the Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people. Wherein shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality. Wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes.
• Whereby shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations. This ancient land attains its rightful and honoured place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind. This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

• The Kisan Sabha movement gained momentum in central Andhra districts under the leadership of the Congress Socialist Party activist N.G. Ranga. He organized a number of peasant marches in 1933-34, and under his stewardship, at the Ellore Zamindari Ryots Conference in 1933, the demand was raised for the abolition of zamindari.
• In 1935 Ranga and E.M.S. Namboodripad in order to spread the peasant movement to other linguistic regions of the Madras Presidency, organized a South Indian Federation of Peasants and Agricultural Labour and initiated the discussion for an all-India peasant body.
• E.M.S. Namboodiripad was one of the foremost leaders of the Communist movement in India and one of the founding leaders of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). o He left college in 1931 to join the freedom struggle and was jailed in the satyagraha movement. From then onwards, he played an important role in the Congress movement and was one of the founders of the Congress Socialist Party in Kerala. In 1934 he became the all-India joint secretary of the Congress Socialist Party.
• Gogineni Ranga Nayukulu, better known as N. G. Ranga was an Indian freedom fighter, parliamentarian, and Kisan (farmer) leader. He was an exponent of the peasant philosophy and was considered the father of the Indian Peasant Movement after Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
  • Ranga joined the freedom movement inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's clarion call in 1930. He led the ryot agitation in 1933. Three years later, he launched the Kisan Congress party. He held historic discussions with Gandhiji on the demand for a rythu‐coolie state. He wrote a book, ‘Bapu Blesses’ regarding his discussions with Gandhi.
  • Ranga was one of the founders of the Congress Socialist Party and was a member of its National Executive and drafting Committee in 1934.
  • Ranga was the first General secretary of All India Kisan Sabha formed in 1936. x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Non- proliferation of Nuclear Weapons Treaty (NPT) is an international agreement designed to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology while seeking to achieve complete nuclear disarmament. NPT supports the right to harness nuclear power for peaceful purposes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The treaty came into in force 1970 after being opened for signature in 1968. In total 191 states have signed the treaty including the five recognised nuclear weapon states.
• Statement 3 is correct: South Africa remains the only country known to have developed nuclear weapons and then to have dismantled its nuclear arsenal completely. North Korea is the only country to withdraw from the treaty.

• Jain Tirthankaras: In Jainism, Tirthankaras are called the Jina or the conquerors of all instincts. There are 24 Tirthankaras.
  • The term, ‘Tirthankara’ is a combination of ‘Teertha and ‘Samsara’. Teertha is a pilgrimage site and samsara is the worldly life. The one who has conquered the samsara and understood the true nature of the self to attain Kevala Jnana is a Tirthankara.
  • Definition of a Tirthankar: A Tirthankar is referred to as ‘teaching god’ or ‘Ford Maker’ in Jainism.
  • The names of 24 Tirthankaras are inspired by the dreams their respective mothers had before their birth or related circumstances surrounding their births.
  • Kalpasutra is a religious text of Jains that mentions the life histories of 24 Tirthankaras. (It is apparently compiled by Digambara sect Jain Muni Bhadrabahu 150 years after Mahavir’s Nirvana.)
    • Kalpasutra mentions the first Tirthankara to be Rishabhnath.
    • Jain Tirthankara Symbol
    • Adinatha/Rishabnatha Ox/Bull
    • Parshvanatha Snake/Serpent
    • Mahavira Lion
    • Neminath Conch
• Hence only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

1. Currently, the Rajya Sabha has 250 members:
   This statement is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha currently has a maximum of 245 members. Out of these, 233 members are elected from states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President.

2. All union territories of India are represented in the Rajya Sabha:
   This statement is incorrect. Not all union territories have representation in the Rajya Sabha. As of now, only Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir have representation in the Rajya Sabha. The other union territories, such as Chandigarh, Ladakh, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, do not have Rajya Sabha seats.

3. Among the union territories, Jammu and Kashmir has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats:
   This statement is correct. Jammu and Kashmir has 4 seats in the Rajya Sabha, which is the highest number among the union territories.

Only statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a) 3 only.

The Central Information Commission: The Central Information Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and 10 or fewer Central Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the following:

1. The Prime Minister, Chairperson of the Committee;
2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha; and
3. A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.

The Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner shall be removed from his office only by an order of the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner, as the case may be, ought on such ground be removed.