UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 3 - UPSC MCQ

• Narouji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, S.S. Bengalee, and others began religious reforms among the Parsis in Mumbai in the middle of the 19th century. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• In 1851, they founded the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha, or Religious Reform Association. Hence statement 1 is not correct. x They played an important role in the spread of education, especially among girls. 
• They also campaigned against the orthodox practices of the Parsi religion. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• In course of time, the Parsis became one of the most progressive sections of Indian society. 
• The message of reform was spread by the newspaper Rast Goftar (Truth-Teller). 
• Parsi religious rituals and practices were reformed and the Parsi creed was redefined. 
• In the social sphere, attempts were made to uplift the status of Parsi women through the removal of the purdah system, and raising the age of marriage and education. Gradually, the Parsis emerged as the most westernized section of Indian society.

Saman Bird Sanctuary is notable for the following:

• It is a seasonal oxbow lake located in the Ganges floodplain.
• Hosts migratory birds such as the common teal, northern pintail, and great white pelican.
• Recognised as a Ramsar site, providing habitat for vulnerable species like the sarus crane and greater spotted eagle.
• Incorrectly stated to be in Manipur; it is actually located in Uttar Pradesh.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option D

The Tungabhadra River:

• The ancient name of the river was Pampa.
• It flows through the states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• It originates on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, joins the Krishna River, and then drains into the Bay of Bengal.
• The historic city of 'Hampi is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
• Major Tributaries: Tunga, Kumudvati, Varada, Bhadra, Vedavathi and Handri.

Super Blue Moon A super blue moon combines a supermoon and a blue moon. A supermoon occurs when the moon aligns closely with Earth during its orbit, making it appear larger and brighter. This alignment, called perigee, contrasts with apogee when the moon is farthest in its elliptical orbit around Earth. While the difference is subtle, near the horizon, an optical illusion can make it seem larger. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

A blue moon is the second full moon in a month. Despite its name, a blue moon isn't blue; it's the traditional name for the second full moon in a month. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

Sometimes, smoke or dust in the air can scatter red wavelengths of light, as a result of which the moon may, in certain places, appear more blue than usual, but this has nothing to do with the name “blue” moon. Blood Moon: A blood moon occurs during a total lunar eclipse when the Earth aligns between the Moon and the Sun, casting a shadow on the Moon. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Only the red-tinted light refracted by Earth's atmosphere reaches the Moon's surface, giving it a reddish glow. The term "blood moon" can also refer to a reddish Moon caused by atmospheric conditions or autumn foliage.

• The constitution specifies the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the state and central governments. The Seventh Schedule is the most important part of the constitution in this regard. It specifies the role and responsibilities into three lists namely,
• nion List, State List and Concurrent List. The three lists have been changed since they first came into being; the Union list contained 97 subjects and now is at 100 subjects, the state list contained 66 subjects but is now at 61 subjects, and concurrent list contained 47 subjects but now has 52 subjects on the concurrent list.
• The Indian Constitution specifies subjects like, criminal law, criminal procedure, preventive detention, forests, Education, Marriage and divorce, protection of wild animals and birds, Bankruptcy and insolvency, trade unions, industrial and labour disputes, population control and family planning etc., to the Concurrent list. Census comes under union list, and Betting and gambling comes under State list.

So, Option (b) is correct.

When the Lok Sabha is dissolved:

• a Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse;
• a Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses;
• a Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses, but it would not lapse if in respect of it a joint session of the two Houses had already been called by the President. A joint sitting of the two Houses may still be held in spite of the dissolution of Lok Sabha, if it has been convened already before Lok Sabha stands dissolved.
• A Bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the President does not lapse with the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Dissolution of the House does not wipe out contempt proceedings in the House. The new House constituted after election can punish for contempt of the House dissolved.

• Article 74 of the Indian constitution provides for a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions: There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
• The Supreme Court has clarified the implications of Art. 74(2) in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India. No court is concerned with what advice was tendered by the Minister to the President. The court is only concerned with the order's validity and not with what happened in the inner councils of the President and the Minister.
• An order cannot be challenged on the ground that it is not in accordance with the advice tendered by the Minister or that it is based on no advice. Article 74 was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to the effect that the president shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with the advice rendered by the council of ministers.
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 further added a provision to this article to the effect that the president may require the council of ministers to reconsider such advice and the president shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. So, Option (a) is correct. 

Defamation is the act of communicating false statements about a person that injure the reputation of that person when observed through the eyes of ordinary man. Any false and unprivileged statement published or spoken deliberately, intentionally, knowingly with the intention to damage someone's reputation is defamation. A man's reputation is treated as his property and such damage are punishable by law. It could be written or verbal. Written defamation, printed or typed material or images is called as libel and spoken defamation is called slander. Article 19 of the Constitution grants various freedoms to its citizens. However, Article 19(2) has imposed reasonable exemption to freedom of speech and expression granted under Article 19(1) (a). Contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence are some exceptions Under Indian law, defamation is both a criminal (punishable with imprisonment) as well as civil offence (punishable through the award of damages). So, Statement 1 is correct.

Criminal defamation is clearly defined under Indian laws; Civil defamation is derived from case laws. Defamation as a civil offence is punishable under the law of torts; the legality of civil defamation was at issue in R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu (1994). in comparison, the criminal law on defamation is codified under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ("IPC"). Criminal defamation is an offence that is punishable under the Indian Penal Code 1860. Under Sections 499 and 500 of the 1860 Code, slander is a crime. Criminal defamation is a compoundable and non-cognizable offence that is subject to bail. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Section 501 of the IPC states that any person who prints or engraves any matter, knowing or having good reason to believe that such matter is defamatory of any person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years, or with fine, or with both. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

• The Mauryan Empire, which formed around 321 B.C.E. and ended in 185 B.C.E., was the first pan- Indian empire, an empire that covered most of the Indian region. The Maurya organized a very elaborate system of administration.
• Dhammamahatras: Dhammamahatras were a group of officials appointed by Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire to propagate his teachings on dharma and to ensure their implementation throughout the empire. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Rajukas: Rajukas was a group of officials in the Mauryan Empire who were responsible for ensuring the proper administration of justice and maintaining law and order in the empire. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Shulkadhyakshas: Shulkadhyakshas were officers in charge of Royal income. The Shulkadhyakshas were appointed by the Emperor and were responsible for supervising the collection of various taxes, such as land tax, customs duty, tolls, and other levies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• In the Gandhara region, Indian and Hellenistic features coalesced. There was a significant expansion of Buddhist monasteries in Gandhara and northern Afghanistan in the early centuries CE, but very little evidence of their architectural form survives. Takht-i-Bahi in Pakistan and Guldara in Afghanistan are two important sites.
• Excavations at Takht-i-Bahi revealed a large monastic complex that included several connected clusters of cells arranged around courtyards, stupas, and sculptures. A stupa once stood in one of the courtyards, but only its square base survives.
• In contrast to the stupas of central India, those of the northwest had a towerlike appearance with sculptural decoration on the base and dome. Guldara stupa (2nd century CE) rises from a high square base, with stairs leading up to it from the east. The outer façade of the structure consists of thin, flat slabs of sedimentary rock, carefully arranged one on top of the other (this is known as the diaper masonry technique and was introduced to this region by the Parthians), the interior filled with stone rubble.
• Extensive evidence of early Buddhist shrines and stupas comes from Taxila. The city of Sirkap at this site was founded by the Indo-Greeks and continued to be occupied during Shaka and Parthian rule. The excavated remains mostly belong to the latter phase. The largest structure is a ruined Buddhist apsidal temple, located in Block D. This has a screen between the apse and area for assembly. A number of stone heads showing Indian and Greek features and styles were found here; some may represent bodhisattvas. In front of the shrine, on both sides of the entrance, were the square bases of stupas. This structure can be dated to the first half of the 1st century CE. Another important structure at Sirkap was the so-called ‘shrine of the double eagle’ in Block F, probably built in the late 1st century BCE. Its only surviving portion is the square base of what was obviously a stupa.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state.
• However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively. Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.

• The Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) is an arm of the International Monetary Fund which lends to the world's poorest countries. It was created on September 16, 1999, replacing the Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility.
  • Concessional support through the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) is currently interest free. x It has three lending facilities
  • Extended Credit Facility (ECF): Sustained medium- to long-term engagement in case of protracted balance of payments problems.
  • Standby Credit Facility (SCF) Financing for low-income countries with actual or potential short- term balance of payments and adjustment needs caused by domestic or external shocks, or policy slippages. It can also be used on a precautionary basis during times of increased risk and uncertainty.
  • Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): One-off disbursement for low-income countries facing urgent balance of payments needs. Repeated disbursements over a limited period are possible in case of recurring or ongoing balance of payments needs.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 

India is one of the few nations in the world with a Constitution that provides for preventative detention in times of peace without the protections considered necessary in other countries to protect fundamental human rights. The first Preventive Detention Act was passed on 26 February 1950 with the purpose of preventing anti- national elements from carrying out acts that are hostile to the Nation’s security and defense. It was not borrowed from the British constitution. So. Statement 1 is not correct.

According to the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution, Preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State, the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community falls under the concurrent list, where by both the Central and State Governments can legislate laws on Preventive dentition. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Preventive Detention is an action taken by the administration on the grounds of the suspicion that some wrong actions may be done by the person concerned, which will be prejudicial to the state. Preventive Detention is the most contentious part of the scheme of fundamental rights in the Indian constitutions Article 22(3) provides that if the person is arrested or detained under preventive detention laws, then the protection against arrest and Detention provided under article22 (1) and22 (2) shall not be available to that person. A detainee under preventive Detention can have no right of personal liberty guaranteed by Article 19 Or Right to Legal aid, guaranteed under Article 21.

So, Statement 3 is not correct. 

The following were the amendments added to the existing list of DPSPs the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act to the Part IV of the Indian Constitution Article 39 - children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity, and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and moral and material abandonment. Article - 39A. Equal justice and free legal aid.

The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. Article - 43A.

Participation of workers in the management of industries. The State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organizations engaged in any industry. Article - 48A. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life. The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the country's forests and wildlife.

Following directive principles are embodied in original constitution:

• To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).

So, Option (b) is correct. 

• A proportional tax is an income tax system that levies the same percentage tax to everyone regardless of income. For example, if the tax rate is 10%, someone who earns $50,000 would pay $5,000 in taxes, while someone who earns $100,000 would pay $10,000 in taxes. However, if there is significant income inequality among the tax base, a proportional taxation system may be unfair. In this case, only a progressive taxation system may be more appropriate.
• A progressive taxation system means that people with higher incomes pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes. For example, someone who earns $50,000 might pay a tax rate of 10%, while someone who earns $100,000 might pay a tax rate of 15%. So it can be considered that a proportional taxation system will be meaningful when there is minimal income inequality among the tax base. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• A progressive tax involves a tax rate that increases as taxable income increases. It imposes a lower tax rate on low-income earners and a higher tax rate on those with a higher income. This is usually achieved by creating tax brackets that group taxpayers by income range. It is an effective tool to reduce inequality as lower income groups are required to pay less tax and vice-versa.
• Thus the progressive taxation system can be beneficial to the low-income segment when there is significant income inequality among the tax base. Taxes that are applied on the value of transactions are considered as progressive tax, not proportional tax.
• So, Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is not correct. 

• Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in terms of its exchange rate versus other currencies. It refers to the decrease in the value of the domestic currency (₹) in terms of one or more foreign currencies (like $).
• It makes domestic currency less valuable, and more is required to buy a currency unit. Remittances are funds sent by individuals working or residing outside their home country to their families or friends in their home country.
• These funds can be a significant source of foreign exchange and can help support the value of the country's currency. So, Discourage remittances from certain Non-profit Organisations, can become counterproductive in case of tackling depreciation of money.

So, Option (d) is correct. 

The HDI was created to emphasize that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and decent living standards. The HDI is the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three dimensions. The HDI simplifies and captures only part of what human development entails. It does not reflect inequalities, poverty, human security, empowerment, etc. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic developed and compiled by the United Nations since 1990 to measure various countries’ social and economic development levels. The HDI can be used to question national policy choices, asking how two countries with the same level of GNI per capita can end up with different human development outcomes. These contrasts can stimulate debate about government policy priorities.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Capital expenditures (CapEx) are funds used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment.

CapEx is often used to undertake new projects or investments by a company. Making capital expenditures on fixed assets can include purchasing a piece of equipment or building a new factory.

Companies make capital expenditure type of financial outlay to increase the scope of their operations or add some future economic benefit to the operation.

The cost of obtaining a license for new technology is a capital expenditure because it is a long-term investment. Capital expenditure or CapEx means cash a business spends to purchase or invest in new assets crucial to the company's operations or creation of assets.

Gold is a very useful investment during periods of instability and high inflation. Thus, it is considered a part of capital expenditures. Repairing work in buildings is not necessarily a part of capital expenditures.

So, Option (b) is correct.

Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), which measure the rate of change in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by the working-class population, are compiled and maintained by the Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labor and Employment, since 1946. CPI-IW has been released every month on the basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially important centers in the country. The index is compiled for 88 centers and All-India and is released on the last working day of the succeeding month. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Labour and Employment Ministry revised the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) base year to 2016 to reflect the changing consumption pattern, giving more weightage to spending on health, education, recreation and other miscellaneous spending expenses while reducing the weight of food and beverages. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Apart from measuring inflation in retail prices, the CPI-IW was The CPI (IW) indices are mainly used for regulation of Dearness allowance and Wages of millions of Workers and Employees belonging to Central Government, State Governments, and Public and Private sector Establishments in the country. So, Statement 3 is correct. 

• 94 countries (Members of ISA) have signed and ratified the ISA Framework Agreement, but a total of 116 countries have signed the ISA Framework Agreement (not all countries ratify the agreement). Singapore has ratified the International Solar Alliance, signifying the decision to join collective efforts on climate action. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Observer Status to International Solar Alliance: The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has granted Observer Status to the International Solar Alliance (ISA). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It will help provide for regular and well-defined cooperation between the Alliance and the United Nations that would benefit global energy growth and development. The Assembly of the ISA is the apex decision-making body which comprises of representatives from each Member Country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Assembly deliberates matters of substance such as the selection of the Director General, achievement of ISA objectives, its functioning, approval of the operating budget and more

•  Gamosa : Assam. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • The Assamese gamosa is mostly woven out of white threads with colourful and intricate inlays in red.
  • This is a traditional textile having great significance for the people of Assam.
  • Gamosa is also known as ‘Bihuwaan, as it is an essential part of Bihu festival of Assam.
• Tandur Redgram : Telangana. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • It is a traditional crop in the rain-fed tract of the Telangana region.
  • It contains about 22-24% protein, which is almost three times that of cereals.
  • As per the researchers, the fertile deep black soil with clay minerals specifically in Tandur Region along with huge limestone deposits can be attributed to the specific quality traits of Tandur Redgram.
• Onattukara Ellu : Kerala. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • It is an ancient and traditional annual oilseed crops.
  • It has relatively higher antioxidant content.
  • It helps in fighting the free radicals, which destroy the body cells
  • The high content of unsaturated fat makes it beneficial for heart patients. x Attappady Thuvara: Kerala. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
  • The Attappady Thuvara is an important traditional crop of the Attappady tribal area in Palakkad district, Kerala.
  • It is a woody shrub, generally grown as an annual crop.
  • Attappady Thuvara is having seeds with white coat.
  • Compared to other red grams, Attappady Thuvara seeds are bigger and have higher seed weight.It is rich in protein, carbohydrate, fibre, calcium and Magnesium. 

• Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers, and so on of the state legislature. The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the upper house (second chamber or house of elders), while the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is the lower house (first chamber or popular house).
• The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of a universal adult franchise. The minimum and maximum strength of the State legislative assembly is 60 and 500 respectively. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The strength of the legislative council is a minimum of 40 to a maximum of one-third that of the legislative assembly. This arrangement ensures the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Hence statement 2 is correct. The constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament.
• The final power of passing an Ordinary Bill lies with the Assembly. Council can delay for a maximum of 4 months. Council is only an advisory body. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• MEMBERSHIP OF STATE LEGISLATURE-Qualifications under the Constitution:
  • Must be a citizen of India
  • 25 years or above for Legislative Assembly
  • 30 or above for Legislative Council o
  • Possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by the Parliament.
• Additional Qualifications under RPA (1951): o
  • A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state.
  • He must be a member of an SC or ST if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of SC or ST can also contest a seat not reserved for them.

• Sex Ratio:
  • The sex ratio in India is defined as the “number of females per 1,000 males in the population”. A sex ratio of 1,000 implies complete parity between the two sexes. Ratios above 1,000 indicate an excess of females over males; those below 1,000 indicate a deficit of females. According to the 2011 census, the overall sex ratio for the Indian population is 943.
  • The Sex Ratio in the country has shown an improvement. As per the Census, the sex ratio has increased from 933 females per thousand males in 2001 to 943 females per thousand males in 2011.
  • In 2011, Kerala with a sex ratio of 1,084 was at the top among all the states. Haryana has the lowest sex ratio in India with just 877 women per 1000 males. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

The main objective of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is indeed to raise awareness about critical life stages, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence, to promote better nutrition across India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

True. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is 'Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat,' emphasizing the importance of nutrition, education, and empowerment. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Poshan Abhiyaan primarily targets pregnant women, lactating mothers, adolescent girls, and children under 6 years of age, not 12 years. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect. 

CSIR-NEERI's technology involves a constructed wetland exclusively designed for the treatment of municipal, urban, agricultural, and industrial wastewater. The system is based on specific plants, such as Elephant Grass (Pennisetum purpureum), Cattails (Typha sp.), Reeds (Phragmites sp.), Cannas pp. and Yellow flag iris (Iris pseudocorus), which are normally found in natural wetlands with filtration and treatment capability. Some ornamental and flowering plant species, such as Golden Dhuranda, Bamboo, Nerium, Colosia, etc., can also be used for treatment and landscaping purposes. So, Statement 1 is correct.

It uses certain specific plants that can absorb nutrients directly from wastewater but do not require soil. These plants act as nutrient sinkers and removers. Using Phytorid Technology for the treatment of sewage, it is possible to recover and reuse the treated water for gardening purposes For the treatment of wastewater generated in the form of: Municipal/ Domestic wastewater Commercial establishments Agricultural runoffs Stormwater runoff So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Phytorid Technology is a combination of physical, biological, and chemical processes. It is a technology based on gravity that requires less energy. Phytorid Technology can be built into a series with modules / related cells depending on land availability and the amount of wastewater to be treated in groundwater.

So, Statement 3 is correct. 

Manjusha art is an ancient folk art of Ang Pradesh (the ancient Anga Mahajanapada). Ang Pradesh is currently known as Bhagalpur City of Bihar. The Sanskrit word Manjusa means a ‘box.’ These boxes were made from bamboo, Jute-Straw, and paper, inside which the devotees kept their ceremonial materials. The boxes were illustrated with paintings that tell a tale. And the tale was of Bihula, who saved her husband from the deity’s wrath and a snake bite and also of Bishahari or Mansa. The festival of Bisahari is celebrated on the 17th and 18th of August every year. During this pooja, two things are made. One is the “Kalash,” and the other the Manjusa. The Kalash is made by the Kumbhakar and Manjushas by the Malakars. Each is decorated with the art of Manjusha, which depicts these stories and is immersed in the lake at the end of the festival. They worship Bisahari as they believe they will get strength from her and her protection. She promises that their husbands will be protected from all the snakes. Bishaharis are represented in the same way, except they can be distinguished by what they hold in their hands: Jaya Bishahari holds a bow and arrow with an amrit kalash in one hand and snake in the other, Dhotila Bishahari has a rising sun in one hand and a snake in the other, Padmavathi Bishahari has lotus in one hand, and a snake in the other, Mynah Bishahari has mynah in one hand, and a snake in the other, and Maya/Manasa Bishahari holds snakes in both hands. Manjusha Art or Manjusha Kala is often referred to as Snake Paintings by foreigners as swirling snakes in the art depict the central character Bihula’s tale of love and sacrifice. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Patua Painting is an Indian folk painting that originated in West Bengal. This type of art is traditionally drawn on a piece of cloth known as a pati (or patta). The paintings are stitched onto the scroll, which is strengthened by adding fabric from old saris to the back. Sometimes, one scroll can have a scene or panel from a longer story painted on it. It could also have images of animals or scenes made up by the artist. Patuas, like other traditional painters, began by painting scrolls or patua depicting the mangal stories of the gods and goddesses. For generations, scroll painters or patuas have gone from village to village telling the mangal stories of the gods and goddesses. People found these scrolls to be a great source of entertainment. Traditionally, Patua painters used a brush made of bamboo and goat hair. Today, scrolls also depict current affairs, history, and other subjects apart from traditional themes. Painters use vegetable dyes with vegetable gum fixed on paper. The Patua is an artisan community found in the Indian states of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, and parts of Bangladesh. Some Patuas are Hindu, while others are Muslim. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Pithora paintings are done by the Rathwa, Bhil, Nayak and Tadi tribes of Gujarat, parts of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. The Pithora wall paintings are done on the main wall of the house, which divides the verandah from the kitchen. This part of the house is considered sacred to Pithoro, the god of food grains and the principal deity of the tribe. One of the most well-represented figures in Pithora wall paintings is the horse, which is used to represent the gods, goddesses and ancestors. The depiction of seven horses in the paintings represents the seven hills bordering their region. The main characters of Pithoro and Pithorani are made in white. The other deities depicted are Ramdev and Walan, the rain god. The walls for Pithora wall paintings are prepared by the kumaris, or unmarried girls, using cow dung and clay over seven days. Yet the paintings are done by men in groups of seven to eight. The characteristic white background is the result of the white clay, Pandurya. It is holy to the Rathwa tribe and is believed to purify the background of the painting. The colours used in the Pithora wall paintings are red, yellow, blue, green and orange.

So, Statement 3 is correct. 

Fort William College was established by the Governor General of Bengal, Lord Wellesley in 1800. Its object was to effect moral and intellectual development in newly recruited European civil servants. Wellesley envisioned ruling India and British India efficiently with the help of an enlightened and trained bureaucracy. Here, the civil servant of the company was trained in the local languages and cultures of India. During its short history, the institution had some major achievements: The college staff became well known in the East and the West as interpreters of the Oriental civilization. Their works and ideas attracted the attention of European Orientalists. The most outstanding students from this institution became well-renowned orientalists within the first decade of the establishment of the college. The teachers and alumni of the college have been instrumental in reforming and modernizing almost all the languages of India, including Bengali. It was with the encouragement and cooperation of the college that the technology of printing and publishing vernacular books began. The Court of Directors disapproved of this college as it negatively influenced their patronage in the recruitment of civil servants to the company. The East India College at Haileybury in England was established in 1806 to train civil servants of the company in Britain. So, Statement 1 is correct.

In the colonial administrative structure, the Indians were accommodated, if at all, only in subordinate positions, known as the Uncovenanted Civil Service. After 1813, under Lord Hastings, a gradual process of Indianization of the subordinate services began, mainly in the Judiciary. But it was Lord William Bentinck who advocated the inclusion of Indians by removing the humiliating distinction between Europeans and Indians public service and for orienting administration to local needs. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Section 87 of the Charter Act of 1833 declared that “No Indian subject of the Company in India shall by reason only of his religion, place of birth, color or any of them, be disabled from holding any place, office or employment under the Company.” This provision became very important as it was a bold step to remove disqualifications. The importance of this provision lies in the fact that it became the sheet anchor of political agitation in India towards the end of the 19th century. Almost all the political activities in the earlier years of the national awakening turned on this clause, which came in very handy when demands were being made for giving equal opportunities in administration. So, Statement 3 is correct.

The Charter Act of 1833 introduced competition for the recruitment of civil servants, but it was limited competition among the candidates nominated by the directors. It was the Charter Act of 1853 that introduced the principle of open competition. Civil servants after the passage of this Act were to be recruited through an examination open to all “natural born subjects of Her Majesty.” This dissolved the company’s patronage over civil servants as the Hailey bury College was abolished in 1858, and the Civil Service Commission recruited civil servants through an examination held annually in England. So, Statement 4 is correct. 

• The Trade Union Act of 1926: Recognized trade unions as legal associations Laid down conditions for registration and regulation of trade union activities Secured immunity, both civil and criminal, for trade unions from prosecution for legitimate activities but put some restrictions on their political activities So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Alarmed at the increasing strength of the trade union movement under the extremist influence, the government resorted to legislative restrictions. It passed the Public Safety Ordinance (1929) and the Trade Disputes Act (TDA), 1929. The TDA, 1929 Made compulsory the appointment of Courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes Made illegal the strikes in public utility services like the post, railways, water and electricity unless each individual worker planning to go on strike gave advance notice of one month to the administration Forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes.
• So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Ramprasad Bismil was one of the principal founders of the Hindustan Republican Association, which was established in 1924 to organize an armed revolution against British rule.
• Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was also a key member involved in the formation of the HRA.
• Sachindra Nath Sanyal, often referred to as Sachin Sanyal, played an important ideological and leadership role in the foundation of the HRA and authored its manifesto.
• Khudiram Bose, although a prominent revolutionary, was not associated with the HRA. He was involved in earlier revolutionary activities and was executed in 1908, long before the HRA was founded.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option A

Statement 1: "The Red Sand Boa is the largest of the sand boas in the world with its IUCN status as Near Threatened."
This statement is correct. The Red Sand Boa (Eryx johnii) is indeed the largest species among sand boas and its IUCN status is "Near Threatened."

Statement 2: "It is mainly found in Indian islands."
This statement is incorrect. The Red Sand Boa is primarily found in mainland India and is distributed across dry and semi-arid regions of India, Pakistan, and Iran. It is not mainly found in Indian islands.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option B